Multipolar neurons are neurons from the central nervous system. They are composed of an ovoid cell body with several dendrites emerging from it, a long axon, and axon terminals. Graded potential occurs in the neuronal soma, while action potential occurs in the axon.
What is a multipolar neuron?
Neurons are formed in general by
A cellular body, soma,Dendrites, which are cytoplasmic extensions that receive stimuli from other cells, and An axon, which is a long formation capable of conducting the electrochemical signals.
Multipolar neurons are the ones that have a single axon and several dendrites.
Dendrites emerge from an ovoidal soma, and extend in different directions, creating a net and increasing the neuronal area to receive stimuli.
Axons are very large and covered by Schwann cells, facilitating impulse transmission.
These neurons are usually located in the central nervous system and integrate information coming from other nerve cells.
Every neuron forms connections with other neurons. These connections are known as synapsis.
As it happens in every synapsis between neurons when a presynaptic neuron sends information, a neurotransmitter is released.
Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that travel through the synaptic cleft to the junctional area of the other neuron and bind to its receptors in the postsynaptic membrane.
This binding produces a depolarization of the cell called an excitatory postsynaptic potential.
Graded potential initiates in the soma and dendrites.An action potential is initiated in the axon and spreads to the rest of the membrane depolarizing it.
In the image,
Anatomical names from the left to the right: dendrite, body cell, initial segment of the axon, axon, axon terminals.Events from the left to the right: graded potential, action potential.You can learn more about multipolar neurons at
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art-labeling activity main nerves of the brachial plexus
The art-labeling activity main nerves of the brachial plexus is given in the image attached.
How many nerves does the brachial plexus have?There are five main nerve branches that branch off from the brachial plexus and travel down the arm: cutaneous nerve of the muscles: flexes muscles in the upper arm at the shoulder and elbow and originates from nerve roots C5 to C7.
The radial, musculocutaneous, median, ulnar, and axillary nerves are the brachial plexus' five terminal branches.
Note that the network of nerves called the brachial plexus is what carries signals from the spinal cord to the shoulder, arm, and hand. A brachial plexus injury happens when these nerves are compressed, stretched, or in the most severe scenarios, torn apart or severed from the spinal cord.
Therefore, one can say that for the motor and sensory innervation of the upper extremities, including the shoulder, arm, and hand, the brachial plexus is said to be a significant network of nerves that transmits signals.
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which bones unite to form the highlighted bone?
The highlighted bone is named the sternum. The sternum, which lies in the middle of the chest, is where the ribs connect to the body.
Which joint does the humerus's highlighted bone form?The humeral head's ball and glenoid's socket connect at the glenohumeral joint. The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles' tendons make up the rotator cuff, which joins the humerus to the scapula. Muscle and bone are joined via tendon.
What develops in the indicated curvature?When a child is able to sit up on their own, the lumbar curvature that is highlighted begins to develop. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation.
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a woman has been trying to conceive for several years, unsuccessfully. at a fertility clinic, they discover that she has blocked fallopian tubes. using modern technologies, some of her eggs are removed, fertilized with her husband's sperm, and implanted into her uterus. the procedure is successful, but the couple discovers that their new son is color-blind and has blood type o. the woman claims that the child can't be theirs since she has blood type a and her husband has type b. also, neither parent is color-blind, although one grandparent (the woman's father) is also color-blind. in regard to the baby's color blindness, a sex-linked recessive trait, you explain that
Though the parents have blood group A and B , still their son is of blood group and colorblind aswell is possible due to codominance.
What is codominance?
In terms of genetics, codominance is a sort of inheritance in which two distinct expressions (alleles) of the same gene result in distinct features in a person.
Red blood cells with blood type A have a specific antigen (class of protein) on their membrane. Red cells in type B blood have a unique antigen on their membrane, but neither is present in type O blood.
The type O gene is "recessive" because if you only have one copy of the O gene and one copy of the A gene, you will still have A antigens on your cell membranes. You must have two O parent cells in order to belong to group O. However, group O continues to be more prevalent merely because it is the ancestor form.
The X chromosome is where color blindness is most frequently inherited as a recessive trait. In genetics, this is referred to as X-linked recessive inheritance. As a result, men tend to be affected by the illness more frequently than women (8% male, 0.5% female). Males only get one X chromosome, thus even while the recessive trait is present, there isn't another X chromosome that would provide a dominant trait of normal color vision. On the other hand, most female offspring have a propensity to develop into what are known as "carriers," which are people who have the recessive gene (color blindness) as well as the dominant gene (normal color vision), resulting in the expression of the dominant feature.
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what feature of fats makes them hydrophobic
TRUE/FALSE. single-cell profiling of tumor heterogeneity and the microenvironment in advanced non-small cell lung cance
The statement is False, i.e. single-cell profiling of tumor heterogeneity and the microenvironment in advanced non-small cell lung cancer.
Tumor cells can vary in their cellular shape, gene expression, metabolism, motility, proliferation, and metastatic potential, among other physical and behavioral characteristics. Tumor heterogeneity is the term for this phenomenon. This phenomenon has an impact on tumors both within them and between them (inter-tumor heterogeneity) (intra-tumour heterogeneity). Every time a cell multiplies, whether it be healthy or cancerous, a few mutations are picked up, creating a diverse population of cancer cells. This minor degree of intra-tumor heterogeneity is a clear outcome of the flaw in DNA replication. Because cancer cells vary greatly in their characteristics, creating effective treatment programs is substantially more difficult. But research into recognizing and explaining heterogeneity can help us better understand the origins and progression of disease. This could then serve as guidance for the creation of more complex treatment plans that account for heterogeneity to yield higher efficacy. A population of tumor cells only contains a small subset of cells that are tumorigenic, claims the cancer stem cell paradigm (able to form tumours). These cells, which have the ability to self-renew and differentiate into progeny that are not tumorigenic, are known as cancer stem cells (CSCs).
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Which organelles are found in an animal cell?check all that apply. Endoplasmic reticulumcentriolescell wallvacuoleslysosomesmitochondriachloroplastscell membrane.
The organelles present in an animal cell are-endoplasmic reticulum, centrioles, vacuoles, lysosomes, mitochondria, and cell membrane.
The endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane. It facilitates the production of chemical compounds as well as their transport into and out of the nucleus.
During meiosis and mitosis, centrioles are crucial to cell division.
Vacuoles play a key role in the storage of waste materials and aid in regulating the pH of the cell.
The waste molecules are broken down into simpler substances by lysosomes.
The mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell because they contribute to the production of ATP, which the cell uses as energy for a variety of tasks.
The cell's protective barrier is the cell membrane. It controls how things get into and out of the cell.
The complete question is:
Which organelles are found in an animal cell? check all that apply.
(A). Endoplasmic reticulum
(B). Centrioles
(C). Cell wall
(D). Vacuoles
(E). Lysosomes
(F). Mitochondrial
(G). Chloroplasts
(H). Cell membrane
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which of the following tactile receptors is found in the dermal papillae? identification of tactile receptors which of the following tactile receptors is found in the dermal papillae? identification of tactile receptors tactile disc ruffini corpuscle free nerve endings tactile corpuscle
Meissner corpuscle or tactile corpuscle is the tactile receptor found in the dermal papillae.
Professor Georg Meissner and Professor Rudolf Wagner initially identified Meissner corpuscles, often referred to as Wagner-Meissner corpuscles or tactile corpuscles, as a subset of mechanoreceptors in 1852. These unique encapsulated nerve terminals transmit low-frequency vibration and fine touch sensations to the central nervous system from the dermal papillae of glabrous skin (CNS). Meissner corpuscles are crucial for somatosensory acuity, particularly in the palmar skin and digital extremities. This has clinical implications for diabetic neuropathy, peripheral neuropathy, and the aging-related deterioration of dermatological tactile sense.
Meissner corpuscles are ellipsoid mechanoreceptors that are situated 150 micrometres superficially within the dermal papillae. The corpuscles have a long axis that is perpendicular to the skin's surface and are between 20 and 40 micrometres in diameter and 80 and 150 micrometres in length. Less than three corpuscles per papilla, with one corpuscle every two to four dermal papillae. The site of genesis affects the receptors' size and density.
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Which of the following statements are true about an IV set up? a. Line markings indicate how much fluid has infused into the patient. b. The injection port provides needle-less entry into the IV tubing. c. The IV bag includes information about the type and volume of IV solution d. The slide clamp compresses the tubing to allow IV flow rate to be increased or decreased e. The line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0"
The correct statements about the IV set are:
Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?
It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.
Features of IV set:
Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml. Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free materialHence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements
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The correct statements about the IV set are: option a, c and e.
Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.
Features of IV set:
Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml.Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free materialHence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements
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Which of the following is a description of trait of an area with a low carrying
capacity?
A. Most people have refrigerators in their homes.
B. Homes are large and have few people in them.
C. Food is usually shipped in from far away.
D. People spend hours each day collecting water.
The description of trait of an area with a low carrying capacity is that people spend hours each day collecting water. This is because of scarcity of water as the area is running low on carrying capacity.
What is carrying capacity?We know that the environment was not designed to support the existence of an unlimited number of individuals. There is a definite of number of individuals that can be supported by a given environment.
The number of individual organisms that can be supported by a given environment is what we call the carrying capacity of the environment. Now we know that as long as the environment has not exceeded the carrying capacity, the resources would remain sufficient for individuals in the environment.
The resources in an environment would become scarce and difficult to get if the carrying capacity is low.
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Answer:
D. people spend hours each day collecting water
Explanation:
i just did this
classify each mutation example as definitely positive, definitely negative, or most likely neutral. each category has two examples. you are currently in a sorting module. turn off browse mode or quick nav, tab to items, space or enter to pick up, tab to move, space or enter to drop. beneficial mutations neutral mutations harmful mutations answer bank
A beneficial mutation is one that has a good effect on an organism. These mutations are uncommon yet important. The benefit that a beneficial mutation provides the organism is passed down from generation to generation, increasing the chances of survival for the offspring.
Neutral mutations:
Neutral mutations are changes in DNA sequence that are neither beneficial nor harmful to an organism's ability to survive and reproduce. In population genetics, neutral mutations are mutations in which natural selection has no effect on the spread of the mutation in a species.
Harmful mutations: Mutations that are harmful can result in genetic diseases or cancer. A genetic condition is an illness that results from a mutation in one or more genes. Cystic fibrosis is a human example. A single gene mutation causes the body to produce thick, sticky mucus, which clogs the lungs and blocks ducts in digestive organs.
What is mutation?
A mutation is a change in an organism's DNA sequence. Mutations can occur as a result of errors in DNA replication during cell division, mutagen exposure, or viral infection.
What causes mutation?
Mutations can occur as a result of mistakes in DNA replication during cell division, mutagen exposure, or viral infection. Germline mutations (those that occur in eggs and sperm) can be handed on to offspring, but somatic mutations (those that originate in body cells) cannot.
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Full Question: Classify each mutation example as definitely positive, definitely negative, or most likely neutral. Each category has two examples.
outline the process of transcription in the nucleus including the
Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three steps of transcription that are depicted here. Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three stages of transcription.
What are the four steps in the transcription process?The process of copying DNA to create a complementary strand of RNA is called transcription. After that, RNA is translated to become proteins. Initiation, promoter removal, elongation, and termination are the four main phases of transcription.
In what transcription does the nucleus engage?Transcription takes place in the cell's nucleus since the genes are bound there, but the mRNA transcript needs to be delivered to the cytoplasm. In prokaryotes, which include bacteria and archaea, transcription takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell since these organisms lack organelles and membrane-bound nuclei.
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During the cell cycle, the cell divides its nucleus and chromosomes during. The cytoplasm and cell membrane divide during. Before the cell can divide again, it must grow and synthesize proteins during the phase and duplicate its chromosomes during the phase.
During the mitotic (M) phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells. M phase involves two distinct division-related processes: mitosis and cytokinesis.
The fluidy substance that fills a cell's inside is called cytoplasm. Salts, water, and numerous organic compounds make up its composition. Membranes surround some intracellular organelles, such as the nucleus and mitochondria, and keep them from coming into contact with the cytoplasm. One cell (the mother) splits into two genetically identical new cells (the daughters) during the process of mitosis, a kind of cell division. In the context of the cell cycle, mitosis refers to the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.
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Answer and match them
Answer:
Answered (?)
Explanation:
1. C
2. E (?)
3. F
4. D
5. B
6. A
I wasn't sure about E because for me I would say that means 'extinction' but that's not an answer, I tried my best and hope this helps!
why do we need to label the membrane
hippoboscidae have wings that will fall off once they reach their final host. we call these wings.
These are deciduous wings.
The principal characteristic of the fowl's wings is to provide them with the potential to fly. All birds have two wings, however, that does not mean flying.
Each of the wings includes a thin membrane supported by using a system of veins. The membrane is shaped by way of layers of integument carefully apposed, while the veins are fashioned where the 2 layers stay separate; now and again the lower cuticle is thicker and extra heavily sclerotized underneath a vein.
There are 4 preferred wing shapes that are not unusual in birds: Passive soaring, energetic hovering, elliptical wings, and high-speed wings.
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Researchers performing __________ insert a weak electric current into the brain to stimulate it. a. lesioning b. esb c. eeg d. pet please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
Researchers performing ESB technique insert a weak electric current into the brain to stimulate it.
What does ESB contain in psychology?
Electrical stimulation of the mind (ESB) is a method which includes the creation of a susceptible electric modern into precise places withinside the mind via way of means of the use of more than one microelectrode to use brief pulses of electrical currents supposed to imitate the herbal glide of impulses via the neural pathways.
What contribution do ESBs make to our understanding of the brain?
Electrical brain stimulation (ESB) is useful in a variety of settings, including neurosurgery and experimental research. Neurosurgeons can use this procedure to help doctors determine which brain tissue needs to be removed.
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the theory of endosymbiosis and history of life on earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of other plant species bacterial species other tree species
The theory of endosymbiosis and the history of life on earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of other bacterial species (Option II).
What is the theory of endosymbiosis?The theory of endosymbiosis is a model to explain the origin of eukaryotic cells, which postulates that these types of organisms evolved as a consequence of symbiotic relationships between primitive bacterial cells that converted into mitochondria and chloroplasts in animals and plants.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the theory of endosymbiosis is based on the scientific idea that eukaryotic cells as observed in plants and animals generated due to symbiosis with primitive bacterial cells that entered into the cell and performed cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
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correctly label the following parts of the large intestine.
Answer:
ok
Explanation:
In an asexual life cycle, cells reproduce by meiosis. fertilization. All of the answer choices are correct. meiosis and fertilization. mitosis.
Answer:
k
Explanation:
What is the function of glucagon
Glucagon counteracts the actions of insulin by by increasing blood glucose levels.
What is glucagon?Glucagon is a peptide hormone, produced by alpha cells of the pancreas. It increases concentration of glucose and fatty acids in the bloodstream. It is considered to be the main catabolic hormone of the body. It is also used as a medication to treat a number of health conditions.
Insulin is also produced from the pancreas and it's function is to regulate the level of blood glucose in the blood stream. As alpha cell produces glucagon, beta cells produces insulin.
The main function of glucagon is to counter the effect of insulin by stimulating hepatic glucose production which will increase the blood glucose level.
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three babies were recently mixed up in a hospital. based on the data in the table above, the couple with blood types a and b are the actual parents of the child with blood type
Based on the data of blood types for both the couple and the babies, baby #3 with blood type AB belongs to Couple II with blood type A and B.
Why is Blood type important?Certain antigens are substances that can trigger an immune response that are considered foreign to the body. These antigens are found in blood types that determines its presence or absence.
In order for medical situations such as blood transfusion to successfully occur, blood type matching is needed. Blood type plays other important roles in genetics that include matching to identify parentage as is the case of the question where the baby with AB can only come from the parents with A and B blood type.
The full question is:
Three babies were mixed at the hospital. Given the data below, the couple with blood types a and b are the actual parents of the child with blood type?
COUPLE # I II IIIBlood type A&A A&B B&OBABY # 1 2 3Blood type B O ABLearn more on blood type here: https://brainly.com/question/15289194
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concept map connective tissues
Connective tissues are tissues that supports, protects, and gives structure to other tissues and organs in the body. All other types of tissues in the body are supported by connective tissues, which joins or divides them.
Like all tissue types, it is made up of cells encased in a space of liquid known as the extracellular matrix (ECM). In contrast to other types of tissue, connective tissue's cells are loosely rather than densely packed within the ECM.
Types of connective tissueTwo distinct forms of connective tissue are distinguished based on the cells present and the ECM structure.
Connective tissue proper; further broken down into loose and dense connective tissues.Specialised connective tissue; adipose tissues, cartilage, bone, blood, and reticular.learn more about connective tissues here;
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The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________.
A. Muscularis mucosae
B. Serosa
C. Adventitia
D. Lamina propria
The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the Lamina propria (Option D).
What are the capillary blood vessels?The capillaries are small vessels capable of transporting oxygen and nutrients to all cells of the body in order to perform cellular respiration, which is fundamental to obtaining energy in the form of ATP.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the small capillary blood vessels that lie in the lamina propria and other tissues in the body are required to transport both oxygen and nutrients.
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Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation
replicates DNA
transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation
transfers DNA vertically, to new cells
transcribes DNA to RNA
Answer: B
Explanation:
Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. So, the correct option is B.
What is Conjugation?Bacterial conjugation is defined as the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact or a bridge-like connection between two cells that occurs through a pilus. It is a parasexual mode of reproduction in bacteria.
The donor bacterium contains a DNA sequence known as a fertility factor or F-factor that allows the donor to produce a thin, tubelike structure called a pilus, which the donor uses to contact the recipient. does for. The pilus then draws the two bacteria together in which the donor bacterium transfers genetic material to the recipient bacterium.
Thus, Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. So, the correct option is B.
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What would happen to a cell that didn’t replicate its dna before cell division?
The cell will not proceed with the further processes.
What is equational division?
Chromosome replication and equal distribution between the two daughter cells occur during the cell division process known as mitosis. Each daughter cell has the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, making them diploid. Thus, mitosis is also referred to as equational division.
Unequal division will result if the cell didn't replicate prior to actually cell division. As a result of the checkpoints, it won't move on to the next step. The checkpoint will later start the apoptosis process, which results in programmed cell death.
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lactic acid was generated by the leg muscles after a bunch of hard squats and is now circulating in the blood which of the following is likely to occur as a compensation of this lactic acid buildup
The following are likely to occur as a compensation of lactic acid buildup:
Decreased urinary pHIncreased H+ in bloodIncreased hyperventilationIncreased H+ selectionWhat is lactic acid?
Red blood cells and muscle cells are the principal producers of lactic acid. When oxygen levels are low, it develops when the body metabolizes carbohydrates for energy.
In the body, lactic acid serves three basic purposes:
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_____ provides employees with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use in their present jobs. a. Development b. Recruiting c. Networking d. Training
Answer:
D
Explanation:
then major contribution of forensic entomology to death inestigations is
In situations forensic entomology where insects have attacked a corpse, the main benefit is to assist in determining the PMI.
For what is forensic entomology most known?The use of species identification, known growth rates, and data on insect succession to pinpoint the site and roughly establish the time of the victim's death is the main focus of entomology study and case application in forensic science.
What three things can an entomologist use forensics to determine?Forensic scientists can determine the postmortem index, any shift in the corpse's posture, and the cause of death by observing the insect population and the growing larval stages.
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Covalent modification generally turns off genes by attracting proteins that bind to methylated cytosines and block gene transcription.
a) DNA Methylation
b) miRNA
c) RNAi
d) tRNA
The correct option among the following was DNA Methylation.
define DNA Methylation ?
A biological process called DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to the DNA molecule. Without altering the sequence, methylation can modify the activity of a DNA region. DNA methylation often suppresses gene transcription when it occurs at a gene promoter. DNA methylation plays an important role in a variety of critical processes in mammals, including ageing, cancer, X-chromosome inactivation, genomic imprinting, and transposable element suppression.
Adenine and cytosine are the two nucleobases on which natural, enzymatic DNA methylation occurs as of 2016. N6-methyladenine[1], 5-methylcytosine[2], and N4-methylcytosine are the modified bases. [3]
The DNA nucleotide cytosine is methylated to create 5-methylcytosine at position 5 on the pyrimidine ring. This is the same place that separates thymine from the homologous RNA base uracil, which has no methyl group. 5-Methylcytosine undergoes spontaneous deamination and is changed into thymine. A T:G mismatch emerges from this. If A is substituted for G, the original C:G pair becomes a T:A pair, thus altering a base and producing a mutation. Repair mechanisms then fix it back to the original C:G pair.
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The hydrogen ions released by the dissociation of carbonic acid are buffered by their A) transport into the erythrocyte as sodium ions move out. B) transport out of the erythrocyte as a sodium ion moves in. C) active transport out of the erythrocyte. D) binding to DNA within the nucleus. E) binding to hemoglobin.
The hydrogen ions released by the dissociation of carbonic acid are buffered by their transport into the erythrocyte as sodium ions move out option A is correct.
what are hydrogen ions?
A hydrogen ion is a positively charged molecule as a result of it loosing an electron. Which is also the nucleus of a hydrogen atom separated from its accompanying electron.
what is erythrocyte ?
literally it is referred to as Red blood cell, red blood corpuscles, haematids, erythroid cells etc. This is also type of blood cell that is made in the bone marrow and found in the blood. Erythrocytes contain a protein
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