Please help it's for a test that is due right now.

A car of mass 1000kg is traveling 30m/s

a) What is the kinetic energy?

b) How high will it have to travel up a hill to have the same potential as kinetic energy as this speed? Remember Ep-Ek ​

Answer:

Explanation:

This is a First Law of thermodynamics problem. We have to remember that the total energy available to a system is constant throughout the whole problem and that energy cannot be created or destroyed. So we need to find the total energy available right at the start. Well it just so happens that we are told that the total energy is 1000J and that it is all potential energy when the sphere is at rest and is 25 m off the ground. If the object isn't moving, all the energy is potential until it starts moving and the energy begins to convert from potential to kinetic a little bit at a time. The thing that we don't know is the mass of the shpere. Begin with the fact that the PE = 1000 (I'm going to se 2 sig fig's since there's only 1 in 1000). If

PE = 1000 and PE = mgh, then

1000 = m(9.8)(25) so

m = 4.1 kg

We also need the height at which this sphere has a PE of 600. Again, if

PE = 600 and PE = mgh, then

600 = (4.1)(9.8)h so

h = 15 Filling in the total energy equation now, using the fact that the total energy available to the system is 1000J:

TE = PE + KE and

1000 = (4.1)(9.8)(15) + [tex]\frac{1}{2}(4.1)v^2[/tex] and we are looking for v.

1000 = 6.0 × 10² + 2.1v² so

[tex]v=\sqrt{\frac{1000-6.0*10^2}{2.1} }[/tex] and

[tex]v=\sqrt{\frac{4.0*10^2}{2.1} }[/tex] gives us

v = 14 m/s

Answer:

Both have equal impulse.

Explanation:

Let the mass of cars be m.

Then the Force acting on each of them for taking them to state of rest:

(Using Newton's second law of motion)

[tex]F_A=\frac{m\times (0-30)}{\Delta t_A}[/tex]

[tex]F_A=-30\frac{m}{\Delta t_A}[/tex] ...................................(1) (negative sign is associated with direction, here we are concerned about the magnitude only)

[tex]F_B=\frac{m\times (0-30)}{\Delta t_B}[/tex]

[tex]F_B=-30\frac{m}{\Delta t_B}[/tex] ...................................(2)

[tex]\because \Delta t_A<\Delta t_B[/tex]

[tex]\therefore F_A>F_B[/tex]

We know that impulse is given as:

[tex]J=F\times \Delta t[/tex] ........................................(3)

So, from eq. (1), (2) & (3)

[tex]J_A=F_A\times \Delta t_A[/tex]

[tex]J_A=-30m[/tex]

&

[tex]J_B=F_B\times\Delta t_A[/tex]

[tex]J_B=-30m[/tex]

Hence both have equal impulse.

Answer:1.6875 m

Explanation:

Formula= 1/2 x at^2

Answer:

Explanation:

Assuming the squirrel is jumping off the ground, here's what we know but don't really know...

v₀ = 4.0 at 50.0°

So that's not really the velocity we are looking for. We are dealing with a max height problem, which is a y-dimension thing. Therefore, we need the squirrel's upward velocity, which is NOT 4.0 m/s. We find it in the following way:

[tex]v_{0y}=4.0sin(50.0)[/tex] which gives us that the upward velocity is

v₀ = 3.1 m/s

Moving on here's what we also know:

a = -9.8 m/s/s and

v = 0

Remember that at the very top of the parabolic path, the final velocity is 0. In order to find the max height of the squirrel, we need to know how long it took him to get there. We are using 2 of our 3 one-dimensional equations in this problem. To find time:

v = v₀ + at and filling in:

0 = 3.1 - 9.8t and

-3.1 = -9.8t so

t = .32 seconds.

Now that we know how long it took him to get to the max height, we use that in our next one-dimensional equation:

Δx = [tex]v_0t+\frac{1}{2}at^2[/tex] and filling in:

Δx = [tex]3.1(.32)+\frac{1}{2}(-9.8)(.32)^2[/tex] and using the rules for adding and subtracting sig fig's correctly, we can begin to simplify this:

Δx = .99 - .50 so

Δx = .49 meters

the order of vector addition doesn't affect the resultant vector and grouping or order of pair doesn't effect the sum.

Answer:

the correct answer is B

Explanation:

To solve the system they must have the same amount of unknowns as equations,

a) If the system does not have friction, we must write the x-axis equation for each body, therefore we need to write N equations

b) if the system has friction, two equations are needed for each particle

therefore the correct answer is B

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for this is

[tex]F_g=\frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}[/tex] where F is the gravitational force, G is the gravitational constant, m1 is the mass of one object and m2 is the mass of the other object. We are looking for r, the distance between the centers of their masses.

Filling in:

[tex]7.5*10^{-8}=\frac{6.67*10^{-11}(90.0)(30.0)}{r^2}[/tex] and moving things around to solve for r:

[tex]r=\sqrt{\frac{6.67*10^{-11}(90.0)(30.0)}{7.5*10^{-8}} }[/tex] Doing all that and rounding to the 3 sig fig's you need gives us a distance of 1.55 m

Answer:

Yes it would be different on Earth and the moon

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

Explanation:

[tex]we \: know \: that \: joule \: is \: the \: unit \: of \\ energy \: we \: have \: energy = \frac{1}{2} m {v}^{2} \\ unit \: of \: this \: is \\ joule = kg {( \frac{m}{ s }) }^{2} \\ thank \: you[/tex]

Answer:

The measurement of first cylinder is more accurate.(A)

Explanation:

The least possible error higher will be accuracy.

Answer:

In coin card experiment smooth card is used so that the card can slide easily from glass

Answer:

[tex]V.E=498.02m/s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Radius [tex]r=301Km[/tex]

Gravitational acceleration [tex]g=0.412 m/s^2[/tex]

Generally the equation for Escape velocity is mathematically given by

 [tex]V.E^2=2gr[/tex]

 [tex]V.E^2=2*0.412m/s^2*301000[/tex]

 [tex]V.E^2=248024[/tex]

 [tex]V.E=\sqrt{248024}[/tex]

 [tex]V.E=498.02m/s^2[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

First I need to tell you that I used .20 s for the period of rotation instead of just .2, and I used 30.0 kg for the mass instead of just 30. The reason being that both those numbers as stated in the problem only have 1 significant digit and that's not generally enough to get the accuracy you're looking for. Adding a 0 to the ends of each of those numbers doesn't change the value of the numbers, only the number of sig fig's in each. Beginning with a:

a. [tex]f=\frac{1}{T}[/tex] so [tex]f=\frac{1}{.2}[/tex] and f = 5.0 Hz

b. The circumference is the distance around the outside of the washer's drum. We need to find that, but before we do, I'm going to state the radius in meters instead of cm. 35 cm = .35 m. Therefore,

C = 2(3.1415)(.35) so

C = d = 2.2 m

c. The speed of the washer is found in d = rt, where r is the rate and our velocity and d is the distance around the outside of the drum (circumference). Therefore,

2.2 = v(.20) so

v = 11 m/s

d. The centripetal acceleration has an equation

[tex]a_c=\frac{v^2}{r}[/tex] so

[tex]a_c=\frac{(11)^2}{.35}[/tex] and

[tex]a_c=\frac{121}{.35}[/tex] so

[tex]a_c=350\frac{m}{s^2}[/tex]

e. The centripetal force has an equation

[tex]F_c=\frac{mv^2}{r}[/tex] and

[tex]F_c=\frac{(30.0)(11)^2}{.35}[/tex] and

[tex]F_c=[/tex] 1.0 × 10⁴ N

f. The equation for Power is

[tex]P=\frac{W}{t}[/tex] where W is work and W = FΔx (force times displacement). Therefore,

[tex]P=\frac{(1.0*10^4)(2.2)}{.20}[/tex] so

P = 1.1 × 10⁵ Watts

Answer:

[tex]N_B-W_B = 0[/tex]

Explanation:

There are two forces acting on object B. If we consider the law of equilibrium, then the two forces must be equal in magnitude, for the object to remain in equilibrium position:

[tex]N_B = W_B\\\\N_B-W_B = 0[/tex]

Therefore, the correct answer of the given question, from the given choices, is:

[tex]N_B-W_B = 0[/tex]

Explanation:

soln,

weight=600N

mass=?

gravity=9.8 m/s²

now,

hope it helps.

Answer:

m = 61.22 kg

Explanation:

F = 600 N

g = 9.8 m/s²

m = ?

F = mg

600 = m(9.8)

---> m = 61.22 kg

Answer:

a. Potential energy is highest at Part A

The kinetic energy is highest at Part C and Part D

b. The potential energy is lowest at Part C and Part D

c. The roller coater has equal amount of potential and kinetic energy at Part B, Part D and part F

2) Yes, the mechanical energy is the same from point A to F according to the first law of thermodynamics

Explanation:

The total mechanical energy is constant where the roller coaster moves by only the initial velocity, and the the force of gravity

Total mechanical energy, M.E. = Kinetic energy, K.E. + Potential energy, P.E.

M.E. = K.E. + P.E. = Constant

Therefore, we have;

a. Potential energy is the energy stored in a body, due to its position or elevation, state or arrangement

The higher the elevation, the higher the potential energy, therefore, the highest amount of potential energy is gained when the roller coaster is at the  highest point in the motion = Part A

From M.E. = K.E. + P.E. = Constant, the highest kinetic energy is given at the point the roller coaster has the lowest potential energy, which corresponds with the lowest points = Part C and Part D

b. Potential energy, which is the energy of body due to its position or state is lowest at the lowest points = Part C and Part D

c. The value of potential energy, P.E. due to elevation, can be found as follows

P.E. = Mas, m × Gravity, g × Height, h

Therefore, the potential energy will be half the maximum value where the height, h = (Maximum height)/2 and given that M.E. = K.E. + P.E., the kinetic energy, will increase by the same amount, and we have;

K.E. = P.E. at the half the maximum height of the track = Part B, Part D and part F

2) The mechanical energy is the input energy, which according to the first law of thermodynamics cannot be created and destroyed an it is therefore, constant and it is the same from point A to F

Answer:

A

Explanation:

The first thing you have to do is go back and list the resistances correctly. R1 = 20 R2 = 30 and R3 = 10.

Leave the units off if you can't make an omega.

The resistance of a series circuit (that's what this is) is r1 + r2 + r3 = 10 + 20 + 30 = 60 ohms

Now use ohms law.

R = 60 ohms

V = 110 volts.

I = V / R

I = 110/60

I = 1.833 to the nearest 1/10 = 1.8

Answer:

Explanation:

mass and distance

Answer:

The force of gravitational attraction between them also decreas

Answer:

Explanation:

As far as the displacement goes, we have 2 displacement vectors. If we didn't have the angles to deal with, this would be a much simpler process, but then that wouldn't be any fun at all, would it? I'll deal with the average speed first, then the displacement, which is a vector addition problem.

The average speed is found by adding together the distances the student traveled and then dividing this sum by the total time he spent traveling. If we are told that the student runs at 4.5 m/s for 3.0 minutes, we can use this to find out the distance he ran during that time interval. However, the units are not the same. We will find the distance the student traveled by convering the time to seconds.

3.0 minutes = 180 seconds, and

4.1 minutes = 246 seconds.

That means that the distance he ran in 180 seconds is found by multiplying this time be the speed at which he ran:

4.5 m/s(180 s) = 810 m and

3.5 m/s(246 s) = 860 m (rounded to follow the rules of sig dig).

This makes the speed equation look like this:

[tex]s=\frac{810+861}{180+246}=\frac{1671}{426}=3.9\frac{m}{s}[/tex] That's the average speed, which is NOT at all the same as the displacement. Displacement is where he ended up in reference to where he started. The angles play a huge part in this math (that is very involved, to say the least). We begin by restating the displacement of each "leg" of this journey.

The first leg took him 810 m at 207 degrees and

the second leg took him 860 m at 325 degrees

To find the x and y components of these 2 legs, or parts, we have to use the cos and sin formulas. We will call the first leg A and the second leg B. First the x components of both A and B:

[tex]A_x=810cos207[/tex] and

[tex]A_x=-720[/tex]

[tex]B_x=860cos325[/tex] and

[tex]B_x=704[/tex] and we add these to get the x-component of the resultant vector, C:

  -720

+  704

   -10 (rounded, as needed, to the tens place).

Now for the y-components of the resultant vector:

[tex]A_y=810sin207[/tex] and

[tex]A_y=-370[/tex]

[tex]B_y=860sin325[/tex] and

[tex]B_y=-490[/tex] and we add these to get the y-component of the resultant vector, C:

  -370

+ -490

 -860

Since the x component is negative and so is the y, we are in QIII, so when we finally find our angle, we will have to add 180 to it.

For the magnitude of the displacement vector, in m:

[tex]C_{mag}=\sqrt{(-10)^2+(-860)^2}[/tex] which gives us

[tex]C_{mag}=860m[/tex]

Now, because displacement is vector, we also need the angle. We find that is the formula

[tex]\theta=tan^{-1}(\frac{C_y}{C_x})[/tex] and filling in:

[tex]\theta=tan^{-1}(\frac{-860}{-10})=90[/tex] (rounded correctly), and then we add 180 to give us a final direction of 270 degrees.

So the final displacement of the student is 860 m at 270 degrees

Answer:

D. The number of winter coats sold and the temperature outside.

Explanation:

A negative correlation can be described as a relationship existing between two variables such that as one of these variables goes up, the other variable would go down and vice versa.

With this explanation in mind, as the temperature outside increases, less winter coats would be sold because an increase in temperature would mean more heat and hotness. People would be uncomfortable wearing thick clothing.

Answer:

The experimental scientist

Answer:

B. have a lower ionization energy

D. are metals

Explanation:

An atom can be defined as the smallest unit comprising of matter that forms all chemical elements. Thus, atoms are basically the building blocks of matters and as such determines or defines the structure of a chemical element.

Generally, atoms are typically made up of three distinct particles and these are protons, neutrons and electrons.

In Chemistry, electrons can be defined as subatomic particles that are negatively charged and as such has a magnitude of -1.

Valence electrons can be defined as the number of electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom. Valence electrons are used to determine whether an atom or group of elements found in a periodic table can bond with others. Thus, this property is typically used to determine the chemical properties of elements.

Valency can be defined as a measure of the combining power of a chemical element with other atoms to form a molecule or chemical compound.

Typically, valency is measured by the amount of hydrogen atoms that a chemical element can combine with or displace to form a molecule or chemical compound.

Ionization energy can be defined as the minimum energy required to remove or detach an electron from a neutral atom in a gaseous state.

Generally, the ionization energy of chemical elements tend to increase from left to right across a period on the periodic table. This increase is due to the fact that the atomic radius of chemical elements generally decreases across the periodic table, typically from alkali metals (group one elements such as hydrogen, lithium and sodium) to noble gases (group eight elements such as argon, helium and neon) i.e from left to the right of the periodic table. Also, the atomic radius of a chemical element increases down each group of the periodic table, typically from top to bottom (column).

This ultimately implies that, atoms with relatively large atomic radii tend to have a low electron affinity and a low ionization energy.

In conclusion, chemical elements that typically give up electrons are metals because their outermost shell contains excess electrons and have a lower ionization energy.

Answer:

2.38m

Explanation:

Use potential energy

PE= mgh

42= 1.8*9.8*h

solve for h

to get h= 2.38 m

Answer:

ME= 196.2 J

KE= 136.2

Explanation:

potential energy=mgh 2*9.81*10

Our ME is quivalent to PE as that is the toal amount of energy in the system

Kinetic energy= 1/2 m[tex]v^{2}[/tex]

to solve for kinetic enrgy we need to use a kinaetmtic equation that help us find velocity

vf= vi+at

but we need to find time first

d=vi+1/2(accelretaion)[tex]t^{2}[/tex]

7=0+1/2(9.81)[tex]t^{2}[/tex]

t= 1.19 s

vf= 0+ 9.81*1.19

vf= 11.67 m/s

Now

1/2 m[tex]v^{2}[/tex]

1/2*2*[tex]11.67^{2}[/tex]

= 136. 2

or we could just (PE/10)*7

so (196.2/10)*7

Answer:

10seconds

Explanation:

use the formula a=v final_v inital/time

The Earth orbits around the sun because the gravitational force that the sun

exerts on the Earth:

O A. causes Earth's acceleration toward the sun.

O B. is very small because the sun is so far from the Earth.

O c. is smaller than the force the Earth exerts on the sun.

O D. pushes the Earth away from the sun.

O A. causes Earth's acceleration toward the sun.

I hope this helps, have a nice time ahead!

Answer:

The assertion is true and reason is false.

Explanation:

Assertion: I P+ Q I = I P- QI, then P must be perpendicular to Q.

Reason : The relation will hold even when Q is a null vector.

Now

[tex]\left | P + Q \right |=\left | P - Q \right |\\\\P^2 + Q^2 + 2 P Q cos \theta =P^2 + Q^2 - 2 P Q cos \theta\\\\4 P Q cos \theta = 0 \\\\cos \theta = 0 \\\\\theta = 90 degree[/tex]

So, P and Q are perpendicular to each other.

So, the assertion is true.

Reason is false.

Answer:

F = 0.414 N

Explanation:

Given that,

Magnetic flux density,[tex]B=3.6\times 10^{-2}\ T[/tex]

The length of the wire, l = 24 m

Current, I = 0.48 A

We need to find the force acting on the wire. The formula for the force is given by:

[tex]F=ILB[/tex]

Put all the values,

[tex]F=0.48\times 24\times 3.6\times 10^{-2}\\\\F=0.414\ N[/tex]

So, the force acting on the copper wire is equal to 0.414 N.

The magnetic force of the copper wire is  41.472 N.

The magnetic force of the copper wire is calculated by applying the following equation.

F = BIL x sinθ

Where;

F = (3.6 x 10⁻²) x (48) x 24 x sin(90)

F = 41.472 N

Thus, the magnetic force of the copper wire is  41.472 N.

Learn more about magnetic force here:  https://brainly.com/question/13277365