pls help the will mean the world

Answer:

i need the question

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

0 = 5x + 7

-7 = 5x

x = - 7/5 = -1.4

Answer:

-1.4

Step-by-step explanation:

h(x)=0=5x+7

or, 5x= -7

x= -7/5= -1.4

Answer: 41 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

41 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

41 miles in a hour rate.

Answer:

.25

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A' = (2 + 3, 1 + 2) = (5, 3)

B' = (-1 + 3, -3 + 2) = (2, -1)

C' = (3 + 3, -3 + 2) = (6, -1)

Answer:

-6.4 is GREATER.

The number closest to 0 is greater.

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

First subtract 6 from 16 to find how many cucumbers she has,

16 - 6 = 10

Now we know she has 10 cucumbers.

Subtract 5 from the 10 cucumbers to find out how many she has after giving away 5.

10 - 5 = 5

After subtracting the 5 cucumbers she gave away, we are left with 5

This means Maya has 5 cucumbers now

there you go the answer is in the picture

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

win

There are 3 face cards / suit. Every suit contains a Jack, Queen, and king.

There are 4 suits so the number of face cards is 3*4 =  12

There is 1 ace / suit

There are 4 suits so the number of aces is 1 * 4 = 4

The gain from the face cards = 12 * 13 = 156

The gain from the aces = 4 * 3 =               12

Total gain = 168

Losses

Any other card costs you $5

How many cards is that? 52 - 16 = 36

Each one costs 5 dollars

Total loss = 5 * 36 = 180

So each time you play the game, you can expect to lose 180 - 68 = 12 dollars. You should walk away quickly from this one.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

if 50 AED= 12 Euro

for 1 AED ? Euro

50AED/1AED= 12Euro/x

cross multiplication:

50*x=12*1

50*x=12

x=12/50

x=0.24 Euro

so for 1AED you will get 0.26 Euro

To answer this question, you would need to divide the total amount of cereal in the box by the serving size.

This would be 12 2/3 divided by 1 1/3.

We can write each mixed number as an improper fraction first before we divide:12 2/3 = 38/3 and 1 1/3 = 4/3

Now divide 38/3 by 4/3. Recall that dividing by a fraction is accomplished by multiplying by the reciprocal of the divisor: 38/3 * 3/4 = 114/12 = 38/4 OR 19/2

Also, 19/2 is equivalent to 9 and 1/2. There would be 9 and 1/2 servings in the box of cereal.

Hope this helps

Answer:

250

Step-by-step explanation:

You can take the explicit formula and simply substitute the n value with 64:

-2 + 4 * (64 - 1)

-2 + 4 * (63)

-2 + 252

250

Answer:

$69 is correct

hope this helps

Answer: $69

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 23 and 3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is C. Either the date the property was acquired by the donor or the date of the gift.

Step-by-step explanation:

The donor's holding time is included in the holding period connected with the gain basis rule. The loss basis rule's holding period begins on the day of the donation.

Answer:

Yes, because (-1,2) is a solution to both inequalities

Step-by-step explanation:

2>-1 so the first inequality is correct

-1+2>0 so the second inequality is correct

1. The given equation is probably supposed to read

y'' - 2y' - 3y = 64x exp(-x)

First consider the homogeneous equation,

y'' - 2y' - 3y = 0

which has characteristic equation

r² - 2r - 3 = (r - 3) (r + 1) = 0

with roots r = 3 and r = -1. Then the characteristic solution is

[tex]y = C_1 e^{3x} + C_2 e^{-x}[/tex]

and we let y₁ = exp(3x) and y₂ = exp(-x), our fundamental solutions.

Now we use variation of parameters, which gives a particular solution of the form

[tex]y_p = u_1y_1 + u_2y_2[/tex]

where

[tex]\displaystyle u_1 = -\int \frac{64xe^{-x}y_2}{W(y_1,y_2)} \, dx[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle u_2 = \int \frac{64xe^{-x}y_1}{W(y_1,y_2)} \, dx[/tex]

and W(y₁, y₂) is the Wronskian determinant of the two fundamental solutions. This is

[tex]W(y_1,y_2) = \begin{vmatrix}e^{3x} & e^{-x} \\ (e^{3x})' & (e^{-x})'\end{vmatrix} = \begin{vmatrix}e^{3x} & e^{-x} \\ 3e^{3x} & -e^{-x}\end{vmatrix} = -e^{2x} - 3e^{2x} = -4e^{2x}[/tex]

Then we find

[tex]\displaystyle u_1 = -\int \frac{64xe^{-x} \cdot e^{-x}}{-4e^{2x}} \, dx = 16 \int xe^{-4x} \, dx = -(4x + 1) e^{-4x}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle u_2 = \int \frac{64xe^{-x} \cdot e^{3x}}{-4e^{2x}} \, dx = -16 \int x \, dx = -8x^2[/tex]

so it follows that the particular solution is

[tex]y_p = -(4x+1)e^{-4x} \cdot e^{3x} - 8x^2\cdot e^{-x} = -(8x^2+4x+1)e^{-x}[/tex]

and so the general solution is

[tex]\boxed{y(x) = C_1 e^{3x} + C_2e^{-x} - (8x^2+4x+1) e^{-x}}[/tex]

2. I'll again assume there's typo in the equation, and that it should read

y''' - 6y'' + 11y' - 6y = 2x exp(-x)

Again, we consider the homogeneous equation,

y''' - 6y'' + 11y' - 6y = 0

and observe that the characteristic polynomial,

r³ - 6r² + 11r - 6

has coefficients that sum to 1 - 6 + 11 - 6 = 0, which immediately tells us that r = 1 is a root. Polynomial division and subsequent factoring yields

r³ - 6r² + 11r - 6 = (r - 1) (r² - 5r + 6) = (r - 1) (r - 2) (r - 3)

and from this we see the characteristic solution is

[tex]y_c = C_1 e^x + C_2 e^{2x} + C_3 e^{3x}[/tex]

For the particular solution, I'll use undetermined coefficients. We look for a solution of the form

[tex]y_p = (ax+b)e^{-x}[/tex]

whose first three derivatives are

[tex]{y_p}' = ae^{-x} - (ax+b)e^{-x} = (-ax+a-b)e^{-x}[/tex]

[tex]{y_p}'' = -ae^{-x} - (-ax+a-b)e^{-x} = (ax-2a+b)e^{-x}[/tex]

[tex]{y_p}''' = ae^{-x} - (ax-2a+b)e^{-x} = (-ax+3a-b)e^{-x}[/tex]

Substituting these into the equation gives

[tex](-ax+3a-b)e^{-x} - 6(ax-2a+b)e^{-x} + 11(-ax+a-b)e^{-x} - 6(ax+b)e^{-x} = 2xe^{-x}[/tex]

[tex](-ax+3a-b) - 6(ax-2a+b) + 11(-ax+a-b) - 6(ax+b) = 2x[/tex]

[tex]-24ax+26a-24b = 2x[/tex]

It follows that -24a = 2 and 26a - 24b = 0, so that a = -1/12 = -12/144 and b = -13/144, so the particular solution is

[tex]y_p = -\dfrac{12x+13}{144}e^{-x}[/tex]

and the general solution is

[tex]\boxed{y = C_1 e^x + C_2 e^{2x} + C_3 e^{3x} - \dfrac{12x+13}{144} e^{-x}}[/tex]

Answer:

$200 times 5% = $10/MONTH

Step-by-step explanation:

$10 times 24 because theres 24 months in 2/YRS

$240 additional accruing funds at the end of the period!

Answer:8x-40

Step-by-step explanation:

Because when we simply 4(x-5)/2

We multiply both sides by 2 because the inverse operations of division is multiplication. 2*4(x-5)*2/2 we cancel two by two then it leave us 4*2(x-5).

Next four times two is eight. So 8(x-5) we distribe eight that means eight times x and 5, 8x-40thos is the answer. Hope this help

Answer:

B a vertical translation 50units right

Answer:

slope = - [tex]\frac{6}{5}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculate the slope m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (2, 7 ) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (7, 1 )

m = [tex]\frac{1-7}{7-2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-6}{5}[/tex] = - [tex]\frac{6}{5}[/tex]

Hello there! :)

To find the slope of the line when we are given 2 points, we use the following formula:

m=[tex]\frac{y2-y1}{x2-x1}[/tex]

m=[tex]\frac{1-7}{7-2} \\\frac{-6}{5}[/tex]

So the slope is -6/5. Hope this helps!

~Just a cheerful gal

#CarryOnLearning

[tex]MysteriousNature :)[/tex]

Answer:

42.20

Step-by-step explanation:

132 ×0.32

=42.24

rounded off it give 42.20

Answer:

Hello!

Judging by the link you provided I have come up with the correct solution:

x= 61°

y= 29°

Step-by-step explanation:

I will link my work below:

The first step to finding the two solutions it to first identify one of them.

I chose to identify x first.

To identify the value of x in this problem you have to notice that the x value corresponds with the value "29°" to form a perfect right angle, being 90°.

Thus you can simply find the value of x by doing this formula:

x+29°=90°

You then subtract 29° from both sides to simplify, and you come up with the solution

x=61°

Now we need to find the value of y.

To find the value of y I noticed that again, like x, y corresponds with another variable (being x) to form a perfect right angle (90°).

The way I realized this is a perfect right angle is because, as you can see in the picture you provided, the y+x angle are alternate exterior angles with another angle that is 90°.

Thus you can assume that:

x+y=90°

x= 61°

61°+y=90°

You then subtract 61° from both sides to get:

y=29°

Answer:

15:8=15/8

Step-by-step explanation:

45:24=45/24

15/8=15:8

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A board foot is 1 inch thick by 1 ft by 1 ft

(3) 1 x 6  8'  are already 1 inch thick ½ ft wide and 8 ft long

  3 x 1 x (6/12) x 8 = 12 board ft.

(6) 2" x 10" x 12'  are 2 thick x 10/12 ft wide by 12 ft long

  6 x 2 x (10/12) x 12 = 120 board ft.

(6)  1" x 8" x 10'

  6 x 1 x (8/12) x 10 = 40 board ft

12 + 120 + 40 = 172 board ft

Answer:

ok you to !!!!!!!!! good night!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20:12

brainlest if it helped

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20:12

Step-by-step explanation:

if you multiply 5:3 by 4, they'll end up with 20:12.