Options:
a. technology has changed the structural economy so much that asset inflation is no longer a concern.
b. historically there has been asset deflation and now there is asset inflation.
c. during the financial crisis of 2008 there was asset deflation which can lead to overall deflation.
d. during the financial crisis of 2008 there was asset deflation
Answer:
c. during the financial crisis of 2008 there was asset deflation which can lead to overall deflation.
Explanation:
Unexpectedly, during the 2008 financial crises that had a firm grip on the US economy. Economist observed a trend of asset deflation.
For example, the real estate sector saw a reduction in the general level of prices homes in the economy. Thus, this meant that a too low inflation would lead to overall deflation, and it was a concern for policy makers.
"Frank bought a house for $100,000. He put 20% down and borrowed the rest from the bank. However, the value of the house has now increased to $160,000 and he has paid off $20,000 of the bank loan. What is the equity that Frank has in his home
Answer:
$100,000
Explanation:
The computation of the equity in his home is shown below;
Given that
Increased in the value of the house = $160,000
And, the amount he has to paid is
= Borrowed amount - down payment
= $80,000 - ($100,000 × 20%)
= $80,000 - $20,000
= $60,000
So, the equity is
= $160,000 - $60,000
= $100,000
hence, the equity value is $100,000
Answer:
The equity that Frank has in his home is $100000
Explanation:
The purchase price of house = $100000
The down payment = 20% or $100000 ×20% = $20000
The remaining amount paid by bank = $80000
The increased value of house = $160,000
Payment of loan amount = $20000
The Value of house is $160000 and he pays $20000 to the bank as a part of loan payment so reaming amount that he has to pay the bank is ($80000-20000) = $60000.
Thus, his equity will be $100000.
Employees in a department are considered a team only when they directly interact and coordinate work activities with each other.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Team can be defined as way in which group of people or individuals come together in one accord in order to carryout a task or an assignment for the purpose of achieving their aim,goals or objectives, which is why working together as a team either in a company or an organisation is vital and paramount because it help to create unity among employees and to enable the employees to interact and effectively coordinate their work activities with one another which will lead to the growth and success of the organisation or company.
The development manager is required to choose between two projects. Project A has an IRR of 25% and project B has an IRR of 30%. Which of the following statements is correct? A. If she can invest only in one project, the manager will choose project B B. None of the statements above is correct C. If she can invest only in one project, the manager will choose project A D. If she can invest in both projects, the manager will choose both projects A and B
Answer:
A
D
Explanation:
Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.
Because the IRR of both projects are positive, both projects are acceptable.
If the manager can only choose one project, she should choose the one with the higher IRR because it would be more profitable.
It is always necessary for an agent to disclose the identity of the principal to any third person with whom he is contracting; otherwise the contract becomes void.
a. True
b. False
Suppose an industry earns a rate of return of 10%, which is twice as high as that of competitive industries, 5%. How much is the price overcharge of that industry, if its capital is valued at half its annual revenue
Answer:
Let us assume that both the industries are having an investment of $100,000
The profit of the given industry which is having 10% rate of return will be $100,000 * 10% = $10,000
The other industry which is having the Rate of return of 5% will earn a profit of $100,000 * 5% = $5000.
As the capital is just half of the revenue, it signifies that the total revenue will be $200,000 . So the same value of $10,000 will be 5% of the total revenue. On the other hand, $5,000 would be 2.5% of total revenue.
Thus, the first stated industry will charge 2.5% more than the other industry.
What transportation mode has very high initial investment costs but gives a very low cost per mile for products that are highly specialized and require no packaging?
Complete Question:
What transportation mode has very high initial investment costs but gives a very low cost per mile for products that are highly specialized and require no packaging?
Group of answer choices.
A. Highway
B. Rail
C. Water
D. Pipeline
E. Air
Answer:
D. Pipeline.
Explanation:
Pipeline transportation can be defined as the long-distance transportation of consumer fluid products such as liquefied natural gases or crude oil, through a system of interconnected pipes.
As a result of the long distance being covered, pipeline transportation mode has very high initial investment costs because it requires excavation of the soil to enable the laying of pipes running into several miles.
However, the advantage of the pipeline transportation mode is that it gives a very low cost per mile for products that are highly specialized and require no packaging.
White Lion Homebuilders has a current stock price of $22.35 per share, and is expected to pay a per-share dividend of $2.03 at the end of the year. The company’s earnings’ and dividends’ growth rate are expected to grow at the constant rate of 9.40% into the foreseeable future. If White Lion expects to incur flotation costs of 3.750% of the value of its newly-raised equity funds, then the flotation-adjusted (net) cost of its new common stock (rounded to two decimal places) should be .
Answer:
18.84%
Explanation:
the flotation adjusted cost of new common stock = [expected dividend / (net proceeds from stock issuance)] + expected growth rate
expected dividend = $2.03net proceeds from stock issuance = $22.35 x (1 - flotation costs) = $22.35 x 0.9625 = $21.5119expected growth rate = 9.4%the flotation adjusted cost of new common stock = [$2.03 / $21.5119] + 9.4% = 9.44% + 9.4% = 18.84%
A product selling in France has a price to the channel of EUR 10.00, fixed costs of EUR 33 million, and variable costs of EUR 4.50. How many units does the company have to sell to break even
Answer:
Break-even point in units= 6,000,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Selling price= $10
Unitary variable cost= $4.5
Fixed costs= 33,000,000
To calculate the break-even point in units, we need to use the following formula:
Break-even point in units= fixed costs/ contribution margin per unit
Break-even point in units= 33,000,000 / (10 - 4.5)
Break-even point in units= 6,000,000
Three grams of musk oil are required for each bottle of Mink Caress, a very popular perfume made by a small company in western Siberia. The cost of the musk oil is $2.20 per gram. Budgeted production of Mink Caress is given below by quarters for Year 2 and for the first quarter of Year 3:Budget Production, in bottlesYear 2:First 72,000Second 102,000Third 162,000Fourth: 112,000Year 3:First 82,000Musk oil has become so popular as a perfume ingredient that it has become necessary to carry large inventories as a precaution against stock-outs. For this reason, the inventory of musk oil at the end of a quarter must be equal to 20% of the following quarter’s production needs. Some 43,200 grams of musk oil will be on hand to start the first quarter of Year 2.Required:
Prepare a direct materials budget for musk oil, by quarter and in total, for Year 2. (Round "Unit cost of raw materials" answers to 2 decimal places.)
Answer:
Since there is not enough room here, I used an excel spreadsheet and attached it.
Explanation:
Year 2 Year 3
First Second Third Fourth First
Budgeted prod. 72,000 102,000 162,000 112,000 82,000
in bottles
Last year Harrington Inc. had sales of $325,000 and a net income of $19,000, and its year-end assets were $250,000. The firm's total-debt-to-total-capital ratio was 15.0%. The firm finances using only debt and common equity and its total assets equal total invested capital. Based on the DuPont equation, what was the ROE
Answer:
8.94%
Explanation:
Firstly, we will need to find total equity and total debt of Harrington Inc inorder to apply the Dupont equation for getting ROE
Harrington's total debt = 15.00 % × $250,000
= $37,500
Harrington's total equity will be; applying accounting equation
Asset = Liabilities + Owner's equity
Owner's equity = Assets - Liabilities
= $250,000 - $37,500
= $212,500
Therefore, using the Dupont equation, we can calculate the ROE as;
(NI/Sales) × (Sales/Total assets) × (Total assets/Total common equity)
= 19,000/325,000 × 325,000 /250,000 × 250,000/212,500
= 8.94%
Trevor Company discloses supplementary operating segment information for its three reportable segments. Data for 20X8 are available as follows:
Segment A Segment B Segment C
Sales $500,000 $300,000 $200,000
Traceable operating expenses 250,000 120,000 90,000
Allocable costs for the year was $180,000. Allocable costs are assigned based on the ratio of a segment's income before allocable costs to total income before allocable costs. The 20X8 operating profit for Segment B was:
a. $180,000
b. $120,000
c. $126,000
d. $110,000
Answer:
Operating profit of segment B = $180,000
Explanation:
The allowable cost to any of the segment would be equal to the proportion that the segment income bears to the overall total income multiplied by the allocable cost.
Mathematically, we can use the realationship below:
Allocable cost to Segment B = Sales of segment B/Total sales × Alllocable cost
Allowable cost = 180,000
Total sales = 250,000+ 120,000 + 90,000 = 460,000
Allocable cost to B = (120,000/460,000) × 180,000 = 46,956.52
Allocable cost to segment B =$46,956.52
However,the question required us to determine operation profit.
Operating profit is the excess of sales revenue over operating expenses
Operating profit of segment B-= 200,000 - 90,000 = 180,000
Operating profit of segment B = $180,000
Archie Co. purchased a framing machine for $60,000 on January 1, 2021. The machine is expected to have a four-year life, with a residual value of $5,000 at the end of four years. Using the sum-of-the years'-digits method, depreciation for 2022 and book value at December 31, 2022, would be: (Do not round intermediate calculations.)
Answer:
$16,500
Explanation:
Depreciation is a method used in expensing the cost of an asset.
sum-of-the years'-digits method = (useful life remaining / sum of years) x (cost of asset - residual value)
sum of the years = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10
(3 / 10) x ($60,000 - $5,000) = $16,500
"A tender offer has been made for PDQ common shares. The brokerage firm department that would handle the tendering of shares is the:"
Answer: Re-organization department
Explanation:
A tender offer is a public takeover bid that consists of an offer to buy either some or all of the shares that are available in a corporation.
When a tender offer has been made for PDQ common shares. The re-organization department is the brokerage firm department that would handle the tendering of shares.
Winnwbagel corp. currently sells 25,200 motor homes per year at 37,800 each, and 10,080 luxury motor coaches per year at $71,400 each. The company wants to introduce a new portable camper to fill out its product line., it hopes to sell 15,960 of these campers per year at $10,080 each. An independent consultant has determined that if the company introduces the new campers, it should boost the sales of its existing motor homes by 3,780 units per year, and reduce the sales of its motor coaches by 756 units per year. What is the amount to use as the annual sales figure when evaluating this project?
a. $237,293,280.
b. $262,271,520.
c. $357,739,200.
d. $95739200.
e. $160,876,800.
f. $249,782,400.
Answer:
Option C is correct
Annual sales figure =$ 357,739,200
Explanation:
Annual sales figure for Winnebago corp after the introduction f the new portable campers would be the sum of the annual sales figure for motor homes, luxury homes (after the introduction of new product) and the camper.
Note that the only the impact of the introduction of the new product would be considered on sales would . The existing sales figures are not not relevant because they are not incremental.
Also,any reduction in sales figure as result of the introduction of a new product would be deducted.
These explanations are incorporated into the analysis below:
Product type Quantity Price Sales figure ($'000)
Motor homes 3780 37,800 142,884
Luxury homes 756 71,400 (53,978.4)
Camper 15,969 (10,080 ) 160,967.52
Total sales 357,739.20
Annual sales figure =$ 357,739,200
has a target debt−equity ratio of 1.35. Its WACC is 8.3 percent, and the tax rate is 35 percent. If the company’s cost of equity is 14 percent, what is its pretax cost of debt? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter yo
Answer:
5.74%
Explanation:
WACC = weight of equity x cost of equity + weight of debt x cost of debt x (1 - tax rate)
weight of debt = D / (D + E) = 1.35/ (1.35 + 1) = 0.574468 = 57.4468%
weight of equity = 100% - 57.4468% = 42.5532%
let x represent pretax cost of debt
8.1% = 0.425532 x 14% +( 0.574468x) x 0.65
8.1% = 0.373404x + 5.957448%
solve for x
x = 5.74%
In a competitive industry, it takes a fixed ratio of one skilled worker and two unskilled workers to produce a unit of output. If the immigration of unskilled workers lowers the wage of unskilled workers, it will likely
Answer:
The answer is that the ratio is likely the same.
Explanation:
There is no equivalent of how many unskilled worker can replace a skilled worker. Also, it's a fixed ratio of one skilled worker and two unskilled workers to produce a unit of output. Therefore, even though the wage of unskilled workers decreases because of a surplus in immigration of unskilled workers, and assume that the rest is the same, firms won't hire more unskilled workers.
Stock Investment Transactions On September 12, 2,000 shares of Aspen Company were acquired at a price of $50 per share plus a $200 brokerage commission. On October 15, a $0.50-per-share dividend was received on the Aspen stock. On November 10, 1,200 shares of the Aspen stock were sold for $42 per share less a $150 brokerage commission. In your computations, round per share amounts to two decimal places. When required, round final answers to the nearest dollar. For a compound transaction, if an amount box does not require an entry, leave it blank. Journalize the entries to record the original purchase, the dividend, and the sale under the cost method.
Answer: Please see answer in explanation column
Explanation:
1. Journal to record original purchase.
Date Account Debit Credit
Sept 12 Investment- Aspen stock $100,200.
Cash $100,200.
Calculation
Cash = 2,000 shares x $50 per share = 100,000 + brokerage commission of $200
= $100,200.
2.Journal to record dividend received
Date Account Debit Credit
Oct 15 Cash $1000.
Dividend revenue $1000
Calculation
dividend received = $2000 x $0.50-per-share dividend =$1000
3..Journal to record sale of investment
Date Account Debit Credit
Nov 10 Cash $50,250
Loss from sale $9,870
Investment - Aspen stock $60,120
Calculation
Purchase price of 1 Share in Aspen stock = 100,200/2000 = 50.10 per share
Investment = share sold x purchase amount of 1 share in Aspen stock
1,200 x 50.10= $60,120
Cash = 1,200 shares x $42 per share = 100,000 - brokerage commission of $150
= $50,250
Assuming you are a rational investor, the amount you should be willing to pay for a 20-year ordinary annuity that makes payments of $4,000 per year and you require a 6% rate of return per year is closest to:
Answer:
PV= $45,879.68
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $4,000 annually
n= 20
i= 6% compunded annually
The maximum that an investor should pay is the present value (PV).
First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual cash flow
FV= {4,000*[(1.06^20) - 1]} / 0.06
FV= $147,142.36
Now, we can calculate the present value, we need to use the following formula:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 147,142.36/(1.06^20)
PV= $45,879.68
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Investment in another company's common stock is classified as a cash outflow from financing activities in the statement of cash flows.
B. Losses on the sale of long-term assets are an adjustment reported in the operating activities section of the statement of cash flows under the indirect method.
C. Dividends paid are classified as a cash outflow from operating activities in the statement of cash flows.
D. Re-payment of long-term debt is classified as a cash outflow from investing activities in the statement of cash flows.
Answer:
The answer is B.
Explanation:
Loss on the sale of long-term assets is an adjustment which will be added back to the net income. This is under the cash flow from operations when preparing cash flow using an indirect method.
Option A is incorrect because investment in another company is under investing activities.
Option C is incorrect because dividend paid are usually under financing activities (cash outflow)
Option D is incorrect because repayment of long term debt is a cash outflow under financing activities.
The _________ price is the price at which a dealer is willing to sell a security. A. bid B. ask C. clearing D. settlement
Answer: B. ask
Explanation:
The ask also known as the offer price is the price at which seller is willing to sell a security after which the buyer must have stated a bid price of how much he or she wants to pay for the security. The bid price is known to be always lower than the ask price , of which the difference between both prices is called a bid-ask spread.
For example, if an investor wants to buy a security, he or she will first determine how much the seller is willing to sell it for, which is the ask price--- least price the seller is willing to sell the security for. However on the other hand, the seller in order to sell his or her security will first determine the highest price at which a buyer would be willing to pay for the security.
Consider a university that purchases replacement chairs for its classrooms. The purchasing manager knows that the annual demand for replacement chairs is 500. The pricing schedule is as follows: Use the following Excel solution to this quantity discount problem with constant carrying cost. Carrying cost = $ 15 Ordering cost = $ 200 Annual Demand = 500
Quantity Price Q Discount Q Total Cost
100 $130 115.47 115.47 $ 66,732.05
200 $122 115.47 200.00 $ 63,000.00
500 $120 115.47 500.00 $ 63,950.00
What is the inventory ordering cost using the economic order quantity?
A. $1,000
B. $866
C. $500
D. $200
Answer:
b. $866
Explanation:
Annual demand from the question = D = $500
the ordering cost = S = $200
then the cost of carrying H = $15
we have to calculate the economic order quantity
= sqr(2*D*S)/H
= sqr(2 x 500 x 200)/25
= sqr(13333.3333)
this equals 115.469
which is approximately 115.5
next we have to calculate inventory ordering cost
= (D * S)/EOQ
= 200 *500/115.5
= 865.5
When approximated becomes $866
The inventory ordering cost using the economic order quantity is: B. $866.
First step is to calculate the Economic order quantity
Economic order quantity =√(2×D×S)/H
Where:
D=Annual demand=$500
S=Ordering cost=$200
H=Holding cost =$15
Let plug in the formula
Economic order quantity =(2 x 500 x 200)/15
Economic order quantity =√200,000/15
Economic order quantity =√13333.3333
Economic order quantity =115.46
Economic order quantity = 115.5 (Approximately)
Second step is to calculate the inventory ordering cost using this formula
Inventory ordering cost= (Annual demand× Ordering cost )/Economic order quantity
Let plug in the formula
Inventory ordering cost= (200×500)/115.5
Inventory ordering cost=100,000/115.5
Inventory ordering cost=$865.8
Inventory ordering cost=$866 (Approximately)
Inconclusion the inventory ordering cost using the economic order quantity is: B. $866.
Learn more here:https://brainly.com/question/14498670
When analyzing the changes on a spreadsheet used to prepare a statement of cash flows, the cash flows from operating activities generally are affected by
Answer: a. Net income, current assets, and current liabilities
Explanation:
The Operating Cashflow relates to cash transactions that have to do with the normal operations of the business. In other words, the business that the firm does to make revenue. It therefore includes, production, purchases, admin expenses, net income and the assets required to run the business.
Operating cashflows will therefore be affected by the Net Income as this is the end result of the business transactions the business engaged in. The current assets were needed to sell goods as well as being derived from selling goods and the current liabilities enabled the company to buy goods that they sell amongst other things.
Net income, current assets, and current liabilities are directly related to the operations of the business and so affect the Operating cashflows.
Which phase of the HRIS system development life cycle involves identifying new needs and defining the system's scope
Answer:
Analysis phase
Explanation:
Human resource information system (HRIS) is a collection of systems and processes that provides an easy way to manage human resources, processes, and data of the organisation.
There are various processes in HRIS life cycle:
- Planning is the long range and short range forecast of resources that are to be used to implement HRIS.
- Analysis is the most important stage where needs to be met are identified.and scope is determined.
- Design is where blueprint is drafted
- Implementation is when tested and released live.
- Maintenance to fix bugs and improve the system
- Needs analysis
- Needs analysis planning
- Observation
- Exploration
- Evaluation
- Prioritisation
- Reporting
Which of the following ratios indicates the percentage of each sales dollar that is available to cover fixed costs and to provide a profit?
A. Margin of safety ratio
B. Costs and expenses ratio
C. Profit ratio
Answer:
The correct answer is the option A: Margin of safety ratio.
Explanation:
To begin with, the name of "Margin of Safety", in the field of business and accounting, is refered to a ratio whose main purpose is to establish the point in where the company knows that it has to sale obligately due to the fact that at that point the company can be sure that they have covered the fixed costs of it and after that point every sale will became a profit for the company. So that is why that this ratio indicates the percentage of each sales dollar that is available to cover those costs.
Online B2B enables companies to enhance their performance by Multiple Choice reducing procurement costs. making supply-chain management unnecessary. making looser inventory control possible. lengthening order cycle time.
Answer:
reducing procurement costs.
Explanation:
Online business to business (B2B) marketing enables companies to enhance their performance by reducing procurement costs.
An online business to business (B2B) can be defined as a type of market where a business sells goods and services to another business online.
In an online business to business marketing or e-commerce, the cost of buying a product is usually lesser when compared to other channels of sales because the seller do not have to charge so much as sales are usually transparent and done automatically.
Hence, companies that are engaged in B2B are able to improve their performance and cut down the costs of procurement for goods and services.
How much of the contract price should Maya allocate to the machine, installation, and training, respectively?
Answer:
I looked for the missing information and found the following:
total contract price = $920,000
individual prices:
machine = $800,000 installation = $100,000training = $100,000total = $1,000,000Maya should allocate each performance obligation in the same proportion as if they were sold separately:
machine = ($800,000 / $1,000,000) x $920,000 = $736,000installation = ($100,000 / $1,000,000) x $920,000 = $92,000training = ($100,000 / $1,000,000) x $920,000 = $92,000Debt financing has one important advantage that the early Modigliani and Miller (MM) propositions ignored: the interest on business debt is tax deductible. This benefit means that the amount of taxes that a business is required to
pay will be reduced by a phenomenon called an interest tax shield, which is a function of the amount of debt in the firm's capital structure and its tax rate. In contrast, the dividends that a corporation pays on its common and
preferred shares are not tax deductible.
Consider the case of Green Llama Foodstuffs, Inc.:
At the beginning of the year, Blue Chipmunk Foodstuffs, Inc. had an unlevered value of $8,500,000. It pays federal and state taxes at the marginal rate of 40%, and currently has $2,500,000 in debt capital in its capital structure.
According to MM Proposition I with taxes, Green Llama Foodstuffs is allowed to recognize a tax shield of ___________, and the levered value of the firm is:
a. $7,100,000
b. $12,500,000
c. $9,900,000
d. $4,500,000
Answer:
c. $9,500,000
Explanation:
Un-levered value = $8,500,000
Tax= 40% = 0.4
Debt capital= $2,500,000
Tax shield = Debt capital * Tax
Tax shield = $2,500,000 * 0.4
Tax shield = $1,000,000
Levered value = Unlevered value + Tax shield
Levered value = $8,500,000 + $1,000,000
Levered value = $9,500,000
Open space arrangements in workstations increase communication and potentially decrease noise, distractions, and loss of privacy.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
false
Explanation:
while open space arrangement increases communication, it also increases noise, distractions, and loss of privacy.
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
Although open space arrangement in a workstation increases communication , yet such communication would eventually lead to an increase noise, distractions and loss of privacy. This is the reason why modern organizations preferred the use of cubicle in demarcating spaces allocated to their employees.
The advantage of using cubicle as demarcation is that there will be less noise and distractions hence leads to increase in productivity . An employee would also have his or her privacy unlike an open space arrangement.
According to the CAPM, what is the market risk premium given an expected return on a security of 15.8%, a stock beta of 1.1, and a risk-free interest rate of 7%? Multiple Choice 7.70% 6.05% 7.00% 8.00%
Answer:
The risk premium on market is 8%
Explanation:
The CAPM or Capital Asset Pricing Model is used to calculate the required rate of return on a stock which is the minimum return that is expected or required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk as measured by the beta of the stock.
The formula to calculate r under the CAPM is,
r = rRF + Beta * rpM
Where,
rRF is the risk free raterpM is the risk premium on marketTo calculate the risk premium on market, we will input the available values for r, rRF and beta in the equation above.
0.158 = 0.07 + 1.1 * rpM
0.158 - 0.07 = 1.1 * rpM
0.088 / 1.1 = rpM
rpM = 0.08 or 8%
So, the risk premium on market is 8%
A project with an initial cost of $27,250 is expected to generate cash flows of $6,600, $8,700, $9,100, $8,000, and $7,400 over each of the next five years, respectively. What is the project's payback period?
Answer:
It will take 4 years and 130 days to recover for the initial investment.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
A project with an initial cost of $27,250 is expected to generate cash flows of $6,600, $8,700, $9,100, $8,000, and $7,400
The payback period is the time required to recover for the initial investment:
Year 1= 6,600 - 27,250= -20,650
Year 2= 8,700 - 20,650= -11,950
Year 3= 9,100 - 11,950= -2,850
Year 4= 8,000 - 2,850= 5,150
To be more accurate:
(2,850/8,000)*365= 130
It will take 4 years and 130 days to recover for the initial investment.
