predict the reading of the spring balance when the wooden block is pulled on the sandpaper. Explain your answer. ​

Answer:

the elastic constant of the spring=1.715

the length of the spring=0.28

Explanation:

we know that according to hooks law

F=-k x

F= force

k= elastic constant

x= extension or compression

given

length change from 35cm to 55 cm so delta x = L2-L1= 55-35=20 cm

now to find k we need F and F =ma

M for part a is 3.5 kg

so F=3.5 kg *9.8=34.3

now k=F/x

k=34.3/20=1.715 N/cm=171.5 N/m

now to find length given mass is 5 kg so

F= ma

F=5*9.8=49 N

so x =F/k

x=49/171.5

x=0.28

Answer:

here I am just giving an idea of how the graph will be like ...

In the pic..

Hope it helped u if yes mark me BRAINLIEST!

Tysm!

:)

Answer:

proton:18

neutron:39-18=21

Answer:

Explanation:

For acceleration due to gravity g , the expression is

g = GM / R² , where G is gravitational constant M is mass of the earth and R is radius of the earth .

At height h , let the value of it becomes g / 4 , so

g / 4 = GM / ( R + h )²

dividing

4 = [( R+ h)² / R² ]

2 = (R + h) / R

2 = 1 + h / R

h / R = 1

h = R

So at height equal to radius of the earth , acceleration due to gravity becomes 1 /4 of value on the surface of the earth .

Answer:

Chemical Energy

Explanation:

Answer:

usa

Explanation:

Answer:

v1 = −2.201946 m/s ( to the left)

v2 = 0.7780534 m/s ( to the right)

Explanation:

Given the following :

Mass of first glider (m1) = 0.149kg

Initial Speed of first glider (u1) = 0.710 m/s

Mass of second glider (m2) = 0.308kg

Initial Speed of second glider (u2) = 2.27m/s

For elastic collision:

m1u1 + mu2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2

Where V1 and v2 = final velocities if the body after collision.

Taking right as positive ; left as negative

u1 = 0.710m/s ; u2 = - 2.27m/s

u1 - u2 = - (v1 - v2)

0.710 - - 2.27 = - v1 + v2

v2 - v1 = 2.98 - - - - (1)

From:

m1u1 + mu2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2

(0.149 * 0.710) + ( 0.308 * - 2.27) = (0.149 * v1) + (0.308 * v2)

0.10579 + (-0.69916) = 0.149 v1 + 0.308v2

−0.59337 = 0.149 v1 + 0.308v2

Dividing both sides by 0.149

v1 + 2.067v2 = −0.59337 - - - - - (2)

From (1)

v2 = 2.98 + v1

v1 + 2.067(2.98 + v1) = −0.59337

v1 + 6.16 + 2.067v1 = −0.59337

3.067v1 = −0.59337 - 6.16

3.067v1 = −6.75337

v1 = −6.75337 / 3.067

v1 = −2.201946 m/s ( to the left)

From v2 = 2.98 + v1

v2 = 2.98 + (-2.201946)

v2 = 0.7780534 m/s ( to the right)

Explanation:

SI is the international system of units

It was developed to express magnitudes and quantities

Answer:

D) The force F is perpendicular (normal) to both velocity V and magnetic field B.

Explanation:

When a charged particle enters a magnetic field, it experiences a force which changes its direction of travel. The direction of motion of the charged particle, the magnetic field direction, and the direction of the force, are all perpendicular to one another. According to Lorentz right hand rule, hold the right hand parallel to the ground, with the palm facing up, and the thumb held out at right angle to the other fingers. If the direction of the other fingers represents the magnetic field line and direction, and the thumb represents the direction of motion of a positively charged particle, then, the palm will push up in the direction of the force. For a negatively charged particle, the force will push down in the direction of the back of the hand.

Answer:

Explanation:

Pinhole camera is a simple camera. It does not have a lens. The light passes from a hole and an inverted image is formed on the opposite side of the box.

Answer:

13.6 cm

Explanation:

From Snell's law:

n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂

In the air, n₁ = 1, and light from the horizon forms a 90° angle with the vertical, so sin θ₁ = sin 90° = 1.

Given n₂ = 4/3:

1 = 4/3 sin θ

sin θ = 3/4

If x is the radius of the circle, then sin θ is:

sin θ = x / √(x² + 12²)

sin θ = x / √(x² + 144)

Substituting:

3/4 = x / √(x² + 144)

9/16 = x² / (x² + 144)

9/16 x² + 81 = x²

81 = 7/16 x²

x ≈ 13.6

Answer:

 w = -101 rad / s

Explanation:

For this exercise we will use Faraday's law

          E = - dФ / dt

where the magnetic flux is

          Ф = B. A = B A cos θ

In this case, the angle between the magnetic field and the normal to the disk is zero, cos 0 = 1, they indicate that the field is constant, let's find the area

The area rotated by the disk is

         A = ½ r s

if we express the angles in radians

         θ = s / r

         s = r θ

where is the arc supported

         A = ½ r (r θ)

let us substitute in the Faraday equation

          E = - d (B ½ r² θ) / dt

          E = - ½ B r² dθ/dt

the definition of angular velocity is

          w = dθ/dt

          E = - ½ B r² w

           w = - 2E / B r²

let's calculate

         w = - 2 3.86 / (0.0314 1.56²)

         w = -101 rad / s

realtion between applied force.and pressure is more force exerts more pressure whereas less force exerts less pressure

confused in another one

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

1) Applied Force and Pressure

Pressure = Force / Area

This shows that Applied force and pressure are in direct relationship. This means that If the Applied force is more, the Pressure is also More and vice versa.

2) Surface Area of Contact and Pressure

Pressure = Force / Surface Area of Contact

This shows that Pressure and Surface area of contact are inversely related. This means that if pressure is increased on an object, the surface area of contact decreases and vice versa.

Derived Quantities

Answer:

These are quantities calculated from two or more measurements

Explanation:

They can't me measured directly.

They can only be computed.

They are calculated in PHYSICAL SCIENCE.

hope it helps.

Answer:

The ending pressure is R.

Explanation:

This is Recreational scuba diving (R). According to standards, this diving has prescribed depth limit of 130 ft. This means that the limit must include a depth that is not greater than 130 ft while using only compressed air and not even requiring a decompression stop.

Now, from the question, we can see that that there was a prescribed limit of 60ft of water with a planned bottom time of 30 minutes.

Thus, the ending pressure is R.

Answer:

A dark fringe

Answer:

5 W

Explanation:

The formula of the power is:

● P = W/t

W is the work and t is the time needed to do it(in seconds)

Let's calculate first the work that the force exerced:

W = Vector F . Vector d

D is the distance ( here 400 cm wich is 4 m)

Make a representation to see how are the vectors F and V.(picture below)

The vector F and d are colinear since Den is pushing the desk on the ground.

● W = 4 × 10 = 40 J

J is Joule

■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■■

● P = W / t

● P = 40/ 8

● P = 5 W

The power output of the force of 10N for 8 seconds to move the desk is 5 watts. Thus, the correct option is B.

Power is the amount of energy which is transferred or converted per unit time. In the SI system of Units, the unit of power is the watt, which is equal to one joule per second time.

We Know, P = W/t

where, P = Power,

W = Work done,

t = Time taken

P = F × s/t

where, F = Force applied,

s = distance travelled,

t = time taken

Here, F = 10N

s = 400cm = 4m

t = 8 sec

Substitute their values into the expression,

P = 10 × 4/8

P = 10 × 1/2

P = 5 Watt

So, the power output will be 5 watts.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

Learn more about Power here:

https://brainly.com/question/287674

#SPJ6

Answer:

5000 N/m².

Explanation:

The following data were obtained from the question:

Density (d) = 1000 kg/m³

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 N/kg

Height (h) = 50 cm = 50/100 = 0.5 m

Pressure (P) =.?

Pressure is related to density and height by the following equation:

P = dgh

Where

P is the pressure.

d is the density.

g is the acceleration due to gravity.

h is the height.

With the above formula, we can obtain the pressure at the bottom of the cup as follow:

P = dgh

P = 1000 x 10 x 0.5

P = 5000 N/m²

Therefore, the pressure at bottom of the cup is 5000 N/m².

Answer:

2,500,000W or 2.5MW

Explanation:

The power lost due to resistance is given by I^2R. We must first obtain R as follows;

Resistance per kilometer= 0.050Ω/km

Distance covered= 200km

R = 200km x 0.050Ω/km = 10Ω

The lost power as a 500A current passes through the powerline is:

P = I²R

P= 500² x 10

P= 2,500,000 W or 2.5MW

The resistive power loss in 200 km of the powerline is of 2.5 MW.

Given data:

The root mean square voltage is, V' = 500000 V.

The magnitude of current through the power line is, I =500 A.

The magnitude of resistance of cable is, R = 0.050 Ω/km.

The length of powerline is, L = 200 km.

Whenever there is a flow of current through the wire, then there are various losses out of which the power loss is a major factor. The mathematical expression for the power loss is given as

P = I²R

Solving as,

P= 500² x 10

P= 2,500,000 W or 2.5MW

Thus, we can conclude that the resistive power loss in 200 km of the powerline is of 2.5 MW.

Learn more about the resistive power loss here:

https://brainly.com/question/15158529

Answer:

The magnitude of the resultant of the magnetic field is [tex]4.11\times10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

Current = 40 A

Magnetic field [tex]B=3.7\times10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

Distance = 22 cm

We need to calculate the magnetic field

Using formula of magnetic field

[tex]B'=\dfrac{\mu_{0}I}{2\pi r}[/tex]

Where, r = distance

I = current

Put the value into the formula

[tex]B'=\dfrac{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times20}{2\pi\times0.22}[/tex]

[tex]B'=1.8\times10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

We need to calculate the magnitude of the resultant of the magnetic field

Using formula of resultant

[tex]B''=\sqrt{B^2+B'^2}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]B''=\sqrt{(3.7\times10^{-5})^2+(1.8\times10^{-5})^2}[/tex]

[tex]B''=4.11\times10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

Hence, The magnitude of the resultant of the magnetic field is [tex]4.11\times10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

Answer:

  2.4583 ± 0.0207 seconds

Explanation:

The time period of a pendulum is approximately given by the formula ...

  T = 2π√(L/g)

The maximum period will be achieved when length is longest and gravity is smallest:

  Tmax = 2π√(1.51/9.7) ≈ 2.47903 . . . seconds

The minimum period will be achieved for the opposite conditions: minimum length and maximum gravity:

  Tmin = 2π√(1.49/9.9) ≈ 2.43756 . . . seconds

If we want to express the uncertainty using a symmetrical range, we need to find half their sum and half their difference.

  T = (2.47903 +2.43756)/2 ± (2.47903 -2.43756)/2

  T ≈ 2.4583 ± 0.0207 . . . seconds

__

We have about 2+ significant digits in the given parameters, so the time might be rounded to 2.46±0.02 seconds.

Answer:

The necessary force applied by the person to hold the mass stationary there is 10 N

Explanation:

We are told that this person extends the spring 30 cm from equilibrium and holds it at this location by applying a 10 N force.

Thus, based on Hooke's law formula which is F = k Δx, we can say that the mass attached to the spring does not change the spring constant. Thus, the

same resistive spring force will still be in place and in turn, the same stretching force of 10N would still be required.

Thus;

The necessary force applied by the person to hold the mass stationary there is 10 N

Answer:

See explanation below

Explanation:

234/92U--------> 230/90Th + 4/2He

230/90Th----->226/88Ra + 4/2He

There are various modes of radioactive decay. One of them is alpha decay.

Alpha decay involves the loss of an alpha particle from a nucleus. When this occurs, the mass number of the daughter nucleus is four units less than that of the parent while the atomic number of the daughter nucleus is two units less than that of its parent as shown in the equations above.

An alpha particle is akin to a helium nucleus in terms of mass and charge

Answer:

The answer is 29 AU

Hoped I helped

mark me as brainliest

Answer:

29

Explanation:

Answer:

The correct option is energy levels

Explanation:

Rutherford's model of an atom suggests that an atom has a tiny positively charged central mass (now called the nucleus) which is surrounded by electrons (negatively charged) in a cloud-like manner.

Bohr's model went a bit further than the Rutherford's model in describing an atom by suggesting that the electrons which surrounds in the nucleus travel in fixed circular orbits. This description by Bohr was able to describe the energy levels of orbitals which assumes that smallest orbitals have the lowest energy while the largest orbitals have the highest energy.

Answer:

energy levels

hope this helped!

Explanation:

Answer:

3504 m/s

Explanation:

Let x be the horizontal component of distance

y - vertical component of distance

t-time

ax- horizontal component of acceleration

ay-Vertical component of acceleration

Vx-horizontal component of velocity

Vy-Vertical component of velocity

horizontally: x = V_x ×t + ½×a_x×t²  

plugging the values we get

23500× cos 55º = 1350×cos25.0º × 10.20 + ½×a_x× (10.20)²  

⇒ax = 19.2 m/s²  

Moreover,

V'x = V_x + a_x×t = 1350×cos25.0º + 19.2×10.20= 1419 m/s  

similarly in vertical direction:

y = V_y×t + ½×a_y×t²  

23500×sin55º = 1350×sin25.0º×10.20s + ½×a_y×(10.20)²  

⇒a_y = 258 m/s²  

Also,

V'y = V_y + a_y×t = 1350×sin25.0º + 258×10.20 = 3204 m/s  

Therefore

V = √(V'x² + V'y²) = 3504 m/s  

therefore,  magnitude of final velocity of missile=3504 m/s

THANKS  

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Brainliest

Answer:

800km/s

Explanation:

Initial momentum = final momentum

the total momentum is zero, Before the release of the asteroid , but Superman and the asteroid are not moving.

So, according to the Conservation of momentum the total momentum when the astronaut is been thrown will equals to zero . Then we can say

Initial momentum = final momentum

Because the momentum of the Superman immediately the asteroid is been thrown is equal to the momentum of the asteroid

Momentum =(mass ×velocity)

the mass of the asteroid i= 1000M

Given velocity = 800 m/s,

momentum =(1000M)(800 m/s)

= 800,000M m/s.

to get the answer, we need to divide by Superman's mass, M, which gives his recoil velocity of 800,000 m/s.

But we're told to convert to km/ s

We know that 1m/s=0.001km/s

=(800,000M m/s)× (0.001km/s)

=800km/s

Therefore, his recoil speed (in km/s) is 800km/s

Answer:

D:rarefactions and compressions

Explanation:

Longitudinal waves are readily formed in materials such as a stretched spring. Longitudinal waves are waves which travel in a direction parallel to the vibrations of the medium.

Longitudinal waves are characterized by a series of compressions and rarefactions. The compressions are areas of clusters while rarefactions are areas of expansions. The same can be observed in a sound wave.

this process is called parellelogram method of resolving vectors.

Answer:

is the last one, a magnetic wave and electrical current moving in opposite directions

Explanation:

opposite directions always attract in magnetic waves and fields