prior to the recent discovery that alzheimer's disease can be detected from cerebrospinal fluid withdrawn via spinal tap, true confirmation of the presence of the disease could only be made after

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Answer 1

Yes, it is true that only cerebrospinal fluid fluid obtained from a spinal tap might be used to prove the diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease.

Amyloid and tau protein aggregates, which are aberrant in nature, are the hallmark of Alzheimer's disease. A lumbar puncture can reveal whether the brain is impacted by Alzheimer's disease since these modifications are mirrored in the amounts of proteins in the cerebrospinal fluid. Repeated scans can reveal how the brain evolves over time. Although it cannot provide a precise diagnosis, evidence of shrinkage may help with an Alzheimer's or other neurodegenerative dementia diagnosis. a week ago. As a result of amyloid build up in the brain, the CSF has undergone changes that include a 50% reduction in Ab42 and an increase in p-Tau and total Tau (t-Tau). The amount of neuro degeneration is thought to be reflected by increases in both forms of Tau, with p-Tau being a more precise marker for Alzheimer's disease.

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Related Questions

assume the mpc is 0.8. assuming only the multiplier effect matters, a decrease in government purchases of $100 billion will shift the aggregate demand curve to the group of answer choices

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A $100 billion reduction in government purchases shifts the aggregate demand curve to the left by about $500 billion.

What is MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume)?

In economics, marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is defined as the percentage of wage increases that consumers spend on goods and services rather than saving. Customers can also save some extra money. These trends are not mere observations. They serve as the basis for the marginal propensity to save (MPS) and the marginal propensity to spend.

The marginal propensity to consume is calculated by dividing the change in consumption by the change in income. For example, if a person's spending increases by 90% for every new dollar earned, the formula would be 0.9/1 = 0.9.

With an MPC of 0.65 and a $20 billion decrease in government purchases, this is:

= Purchase / (1 - MPC)

= 100 billion / (1 - 0.8)

= 500 billion

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Which of the following is an example of composting?
A. creating mulch from yard and food scraps
B. using animal ding as a fuel source
C. recycling steel replace dependence on iron ore
D. purchasing products that have less packaging
E. using less toxic materials the build products

Answers

Creating mulch from yard and food scraps and using animal ding as a fuel source are the example of composting.

What is the process of composting?Composting is the natural, in controlled conditions occurring 'rotting' or breakdown of organic waste by microbes. After being composted, raw organic materials including agricultural leftovers, animal waste, food waste, some municipal wastes, and acceptable industrial wastes become more suited for use as fertilizing resources in the soil.An abundant supply of organic materials is compost. In order to maintain soil fertility and, by extension, sustainable agricultural output, soil organic matter is crucial. In addition to being a source of plant nutrition, it enhances the physico-chemical and biological qualities of the soil. These enhancements make the soil:( I) more resilient to pressures including drought, illness, and toxicity (ii) aids the crop in better nutrient uptake; (iii) thanks to active microbial activity, has a capacity for active nutrient cycling.

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a percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a fractured disk

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The answer to the statement " a percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a fractured disc " is false.

The correct answer choice is option b.

What is meant by percutaneous diskectomy?

A percutaneous diskectomy simply refers to that surgical or medical procedure which is performed in order to remove a herniated disc. This purpose of this procedure is to get relief for the patient suffering the health condition which occur as a result this disc irritating the nerve fibers. This goes to say that when there is an irritation in the nerve structure of the body, a fractured disc is not removed but a herniated disc.

That being said, it is a health condition which needs proper medical attention by a qualified medical personnel in order to improve the condition.

In conclusion, it can be deduced from the explanation given above that a percutaneous diskectomy is a surgical procedure.

Complete question:

A percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a fractured disk.

a. True

b. False

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two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: _________

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The two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: falls and motor vehicle collisions.

What is  Blunt trauma?The term "blunt trauma" refers to injuries to the body caused by a violent impact, a fall, or a physical assault with a dull instrument. It is sometimes referred to as "non-penetrating trauma" or "blunt force trauma." In contrast, penetrating trauma results in an open wound when an item or surface pierces the skin. Combinations of forces, including as acceleration and deceleration (the change in speed of a moving item), shearing (the sliding and stretching of organs and tissue in relation to one another), and crushing pressure can result in blunt trauma.Contusion, abrasion, laceration, and fracture are the four main subtypes of blunt trauma. A contusion, also referred to as a bruise, is an area of skin where tiny veins and capillaries have broken. Abrasions happen when the skin's layers have been

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if an identical twin has schizophrenia, the co-twin's chances of being similarly afflicted are in 10 if they shared a placenta.

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If an identical twin has schizophrenia, chances the co-twin's of being similarly afflicted are in 10 if they shared a placenta are  then there's a 30-50% danger that the alternative dual may have it as well.

Identical twins much more likely to expand schizophrenia than non-equal. They determined that after evaluating equal dual research, that they'd a concordance fee of 40% whilst non-equal twins had 7.4%. equal twins, if a dual develops schizophrenia, the alternative dual has a 1 in 2 danger of growing it, too.

This is proper even supposing they may be raised separately. In non-equal twins, who've distinctive genetic make-ups, while a dual develops schizophrenia, the alternative simplest has a 1 in eight danger of growing the condition.

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huntington's disease is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder that can affect both men and women. imagine a couple has had seven children, and later in life, the husband develops huntington's disease. he is tested and it is discovered he is heterozygous for the disease allele, hh. the wife is also genetically tested for the huntington's disease allele, and her test results show she is unaffected, hh

Answers

Answer:

a) probability that the first child of this couple will have Huntington's disease is 1/2 = 50%

b) probability that any six of the seven children will have Huntington's disease is 0.05468  ( 5.468% )

Step-by-step explanation:

a)Given that;Hh ( diseased father) and hh (normal)

        H   h

h Hh hh

h Hh hh

therefore Hh ⇒ 2 and hh ⇒ 2

so here we can see that chances of getting Huntington's disease is 1 : 1

so probability that the first child of this couple will have Huntington's disease is 1/2 = 50%b)

probability that 6 out of the 7 children will have Huntington's disease;

we use the expression: <P> = (n! / (S! × t!)) × p^S × q^t

where n! is total number of children factorial

S! is diseased number of children factorial

t! is healthy number of children factorial

p is probability of diseased children

q is probability of healthy children

so we substitute: <P> =  (7! / (6! × 1!)) × 1/2^6 × 1/2^1

= (7 × 6! / (6! × 1!)) × 1/2⁶ × 1/2

= 7 × 1/64 × 1/2

= 0.05468

probability that any six of the seven children will have Huntington's disease is 0.05468  ( 5.468% )

False positives for the presence of nitrites can happen if the specimen is ________ for too long.

Answers

Answer:

at room temperature

Explanation:

proof is the percentage of alcohol in a drink by volume, so 40 proof means 40% alcohol

Answers

The proof is the percentage of alcohol in a drink by volume, so 40 proof means 40% alcohol is false.

Is alcohol by a volume equivalent to proof?

Alcohol-by-volume and proof are the two primary measures used to describe a beverage's alcohol level. A spirit's proof is simply twice its alcohol by volume in the US. Accordingly, a bottle of 151-proof rum has a 75.5% abv, compared to 45% in a bottle of 90-proof bourbon.

The amount of alcohol in a beverage is measured as a percentage of the total weight of the beverage and is known as alcohol by weight (ABW). In the US, where alcohol proof is regarded as having twice the quantity of alcohol by volume, this method of determining alcohol content is therefore primarily employed (ABV). Alcoholic beverage weight values and the Bureau of Alcohol are frequently cited in United States.

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Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct?
A. Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs.
B. Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm.
C. Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims.
D. Laryngospasm following submersion in water makes rescue breathing difficult.

Answers

The correct statement about drowning is laryngospasm following submersion in water rescue breathing difficult.

what is drowning?

When the mouth and nose are submerged in liquid, it results in asphyxia known as drowning.

Laryngospasm, a reflex contraction of the vocal cords, is a common symptom of dry drowning. It prevents water from entering the lungs but can also impair proper air intake through the windpipe. If untreated, laryngospasm, which can happen minutes to hours after the first water inhalation, might be fatal.

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a medical assistant is preparing to administer an intramusuclar injection to a child who weights 50 lb

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22.7 the weight of the child in kg.  when a medical assistant is preparing to administer an intramusuclar injection to a child who weights 50 lb.

A material is injected into a muscle during an intramuscular injection, often known as IM. It is one of various strategies for administering drugs via parenteral infusion in medicine. The shoulder, hip, and thigh are only three examples of potential sites for intramuscular injection. Before administering an injection on themselves, those who must do so should acquaint themselves with the procedure and get help from their doctor. Medical personnel known as medical assistant support doctors in hospitals and clinics. It usually takes between nine months and two years for the majority of aspirants to become medical assistants, while the precise length of time might vary. Graduating from high school, enrolling in medical assistant training, and earning certifications are all necessary stages to become a medical assistant.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. ___ age is an individual's adaptive capacities compared with those of other individuals of the same chronological age.

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The ability to adjust to new situations in comparison to people of a similar chronological age is what is meant by psychological age. The study of the mind and behavior's is known as psychology.

Studying conscious and unconscious phenomena, such as thoughts and feelings, is part of psychological age. It is an academic field with a colossal extent that merges the social and natural sciences.  psychological age work to comprehend the brain's emergent characteristics, which ties their field to neuroscience. Chronological age is the period of time from a person's birth to a specific date. Chronological quotation units include years, months, weeks, days, etc. Because biological age takes into account a variety of biological and physiological development factors, such as genetics, lifestyle, and nutrition, it differs from chronological age.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. codes for glossectomy procedures are assigned from the___heading of the cpt digestive system subsection.

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Codes for glossectomy operations are allocated under the CPT digestive tract subsection's Tongue & Floor of Mouth category.

However, these codes must be recorded together along with CPT code 43020 (Esophagotomy, cervical method, with removal of foreign body) or CPT code 43045 when removing a foreign body (Esophagotomy, thoracic method, with removal of foreign body). The codes for combined adenoidectomy and tonsillectomy (42820-42821) reveal another coding trap that you must stay clear of. Use the combination tonsillectomy/adenoidectomy codes if the surgeon conducts an adenoidectomy and a tonsillectomy concurrently operations . When different endoscopic techniques are used to complete the same surgery, only the successful endoscopic operations should be reported. When urethral catheter is carried out independently of another operation, urethral catheter codes (51701-51702) are recorded.

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Factors that aid venous return include all EXCEPT

O pressure changes in the thorax
O urinary output
O venous valves
O activity of skeletal muscles

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Factors that aid venous return include pressure changes in the thorax, venous valves, and activity of the skeletal muscles except urinary output. Thus, the correct option is B.

What is Venous return?

Venous return is the rate of back flow of blood to the heart. It normally limits the cardiac output. Superposition of the cardiac function curve and venous return curve is used in hemodynamic model. The main driver force in venous return is the blood flowing back to the heart which is driven by the pressure difference between the mean systemic filling pressure and right atrial pressure (RAP).

Venous return can be facilitated by a number of different factors, such as inspiration, increased total blood volume, the cardiac suction effect, the presence of venous valves and the skeletal muscle pump.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

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why do you think dr. walker suspected the milk as the source of infection? imagine that you are working for johnson dairy. describe three practices (during or after production) that would help limit the chance of contamination in their milk?

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There is no context given, but most likely, after detecting Campylobacter Jujeni in the sample, Dr. Walker assumed the milk was the source of the infection. 

Campylobacter Jejuni is a kind of bacteria that is regularly found in milk. Ingestion of infected, raw, or undercooked chicken, as well as unpasteurized milk and other dairy products, is the most prevalent way Campylobacter Jejuni is transmitted. 

As a worker at Johnson Dairy, what are the three practices that would help limit the contamination in the milk?

Campylobacter Jejuni is a frequent pathogen in the dairy business. Consumption of raw milk, in particular, increases the chance of contracting this pathogen. Undiagnosed mastitis in cows and poorly sterilized equipment could also be issues.

To limit the possibility of contamination, the following practices should be conducted:

Equipment must be cleaned on a regular basis, and cows should be tested for disease on a regular basis.Dairy products marketed without pasteurization must be tested for microorganisms on a regular basis.Any abnormal findings must be reported as soon as possible.

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Health risks associated with a small-for-gestational-age infant (SGA) include all of the following, EXCEPT:- infant mortality.- stillbirth.- increased risk for hypertension as an adult.- increased risk for cancer as an adult.- increased risk for diabetes as an adult.

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Health risks associated with a small-for-gestational-age infant (SGA) include all of the following are - increased risk for cancer as an adult.

The common age at prognosis is 10 overall (a long time zero to 19), 6 years antique for children (elderly zero to 14), and 17 years antique for adolescents (elderly 15 to 19), at the same time as adults' common age for most cancers prognosis is 66. Childhood most cancers isn't one disease - there are extra than 12 fundamental forms of pediatric cancers and over a hundred subtypes.

Infants born with fetal increase restrict small for gestational age (FGR SGA) are at multiplied threat of short- and long-time period headaches and death. Conditions consisting of maternal hypertension, kidney disease, infections, malnutrition, smoking, and substance abuse boom the threat of getting an FGR SGA infant.

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The clinician is seeing a toddler for a follow-up visit. The chart indicates that the previous examiner noted an innocent murmur. You should suspect a possible pathological murmur if the examination reveals the following
A. Murmur is grade I-II/IV
B, Murmur changes with the toddler's position. C. Murmur is musical in quality. D. Murmur is diastolic.

Answers

The clinician should suspect a possible pathological murmur in the toddler, as his/her previous examiner noted an innocent murmur, if the examination reveals the murmur is diastolic. Hence, the correct answer is D.

Pathological murmurs have a sound level of 3rd grade or above, a diastolic murmur, or an increase in severity as the patient stands. All children who have any of these symptoms should see a pediatric cardiologist. Heart murmurs are noises produced by choppy and rapid blood flow through the heart, such as swishing and whooshing. A stethoscope can be used to listen to the heart murmur. When the heart valves close, a typical heartbeat generates two noises that sound like "lubb-dupp" that often written as "lub-DUP".

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