Proposed Exercises: Strength and Acceleration in Circular Movement In the situation illustrated below, a 7kg sphere is connected to a rope so that it can rotate in a vertical plane around an O axis perpendicular to the plane of the figure. When the sphere is in position A, it has a speed of 3m/s. Determine for this position the modulus of tension on the string and the rate at which the tangential velocity is increased.

Answer:

The  angle is  [tex]\theta = 36.24 ^o[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  mass is  [tex]m = 0.6 \ kg[/tex]

     The radius is  [tex]r = 1.1 \ m[/tex]

     The speed is  [tex]v = 3.57 \ m /s[/tex]

According to  the law of energy conservation

  The  potential energy of the mass at the top is equal to the kinetic energy at the bottom i.e

      [tex]m * g * h = \frac{1}{2} * m * v^2[/tex]

 =>    [tex]h = \frac{1}{2 g } * v^2[/tex]

Here h is the vertical distance traveled by the mass  which is also mathematically represented as

      [tex]h = r * sin (\theta )[/tex]

So

     [tex]\theta = sin ^{-1} [ \frac{1}{2* g* r } * v^2][/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]\theta = sin ^{-1} [ \frac{1}{2* 9.8* 1.1 } * (3.57)^2][/tex]

     [tex]\theta = 36.24 ^o[/tex]

Answer:

the answer to your question us c honey

Answer:

C

Explanation:

This is so because different materials vary in resistance and conductance of current, heat. Metals are good conductors while none metals like rubber, plastic, glass etc are good insulators or resistors.

Answer:

a) Connect a series resistance of 8,47 ohms

b)14,16 [A]

c) r = 10,96 ohms

Explanation:

My blower requires 120 (v) then, I have to connect a series resistor to make the nominal 240 (v) of the European voltage outlet drop to 120 (V) but at the same time keep the level of current to operate my blower

In America

P = V*I

1700 (w) = 120*I

I = 1700/120 [A]

I = 14,16 [A]        current needed for the blower

In Europe

120 (v)  (the drop of voltage I need) when a current of 14,16 passes through to series  resistor is

V = I*R          120 = 14,16* R         R = 8,47 ohms

c) P = I*r²

1700 (w) = 14,16 (A) * r²

r² = 120,06

r = 10,96 ohms

Answer:

The magnitude of the charge is 54.9 nC.

Explanation:

The charge on each bead can be found using Coulomb's law:

[tex] F_{e} = \frac{k*q_{1}q_{2}}{r^{2}} [/tex]

Where:

q₁ and q₂ are the charges, q₁ = q₂  

r: is the distance of spring stretching = 4.8x10⁻² m

[tex]F_{e}[/tex]: is the electrostatic force

[tex] F_{e} = \frac{k*q^{2}}{r^{2}} \rightarrow q = \sqrt{\frac{F_{e}}{k}}*r [/tex]    

Now, we need to find [tex]F_{e}[/tex]. To do that we have that Fe is equal to the spring force ([tex]F_{k}[/tex]):

[tex] F_{e} = F_{k} = -kx [/tex]

Where:

k is the spring constant

x is the distance of the spring = 4.8 - 4.0 = 0.8 cm

The spring constant can be found by equaling the sping force and the weight force:

[tex] F_{k} = -W [/tex]

[tex] -k*x = -m*g [/tex]

where x is 5.2 - 4.0 = 1.2 cm, m = 1.8 g and g = 9.81 m/s²

[tex] k = \frac{mg}{x} = \frac{1.8 \cdot 10^{-3} kg*9.81 m/s^{2}}{1.2 \cdot 10^{-2} m} = 1.47 N/m [/tex]      

Now, we can find the electrostatic force:

[tex] F_{e} = F_{k} = -kx = -1.47 N/m*0.8 \cdot 10^{-2} m = -0.0118 N [/tex]

And with the magnitude of the electrostatic force we can find the charge:

[tex]q = \sqrt{\frac{F_{e}}{k}}*r = \sqrt{\frac{0.0118 N}{9 \cdot 10^{9} Nm^{2}/C^{2}}}*4.8 \cdot 10^{-2} m = 54.9 \cdot 10^{-9} C = 54.9 nC[/tex]

Therefore, the magnitude of the charge is 54.9 nC.

I hope it helps you!  

The magnitude of the charge (in nC) on each bead is equal to 55.21 nC.

Given the following data:

Extension, e = [tex]0.052 - 0.048[/tex] = 0.012 m

Scientific data:

To calculate the magnitude of the charge (in nC) on each bead, we would apply Coulomb's law:

First of all, we would determine the spring constant of this lightweight spring by using this formula:

[tex]W = mg = Ke \\\\K=\frac{mg}{e} \\\\K=\frac{0.0018 \times 9.8}{0.012} \\\\K=\frac{0.01764}{0.012}[/tex]

Spring constant, K = 1.47 N/m.

For the electrostatic force:

[tex]F = ke\\\\F = 1.47 \times 0.08[/tex]

F = 0.01176 Newton.

Coulomb's law of electrostatic force.

Mathematically, the charge in an electric field is given by this formula:

[tex]q = \sqrt{\frac{F}{k} } \times r[/tex]

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]q = \sqrt{\frac{0.01176 }{8.99 \times 10^9} } \times 0.048\\\\q=\sqrt{1.3228 \times 10^{-12}} \times 0.048\\\\q=1.1502 \times 10^{-6} \times 0.048\\\\q= 5.521 \times 10^{-8}\;C[/tex]

Note: 1 nC = [tex]1 \times 10^{-9}\;C[/tex]

Charge, q = 55.21 nC.

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Answer:

m1v1=m2v2, v2=4.3m/s KE=(0.5)(2.94)(4.3)=6.2J

Answer:

The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another. On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system. Therefore, matter and energy in a system naturally change over time will decrease in entropy.

Explanation:

Answer:

Decrease in entropy

Explanation:

Various systems which exist in nature possess energy and matter that move through these system continuously. The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another.

In a closed system for example, only energy flows in and out of the system while matter does not enter or leave the system.

On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system.

Answer:

     λ = 52.5 nm

Explanation:

De Broglie's duality principle states that all matter has wave and particle characteristics, being related by the expression

          p = h / λ

where the moment

          p = mv

          λ = h / mv

let's calculate

        λ = 6.63 10⁻³⁴ / 1.675 10⁻²⁷ 7.54

        λ = 5.25 10⁻⁸ m

Let's reduce anm

       λ = 5.25 10⁻⁸ m (10⁹ nm / 1m)

       λ = 52.5 nm

Answer:

The speed of the electron is 1.371 x 10⁶ m/s.

Explanation:

Given;

wavelength of the ultraviolet light beam, λ = 130 nm = 130 x 10⁻⁹ m

the work function of the molybdenum surface, W₀ = 4.2 eV = 6.728 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

The energy of the incident light is given by;

E = hf

where;

h is Planck's constant = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J/s

f = c / λ

[tex]E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} \\\\E = \frac{6.626*10^{-34} *3*10^{8}}{130*10^{-9}} \\\\E = 15.291*10^{-19} \ J[/tex]

Photo electric effect equation is given by;

E = W₀ + K.E

Where;

K.E is the kinetic energy of the emitted electron

K.E = E - W₀

K.E = 15.291 x 10⁻¹⁹ J - 6.728 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

K.E = 8.563 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Kinetic energy of the emitted electron is given by;

K.E = ¹/₂mv²

where;

m is mass of the electron = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

v is the speed of the electron

[tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{2K.E}{m} } \\\\v = \sqrt{\frac{2*8.563*10^{-19}}{9.11*10^{-31}}}\\\\v = 1.371 *10^{6} \ m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the speed of the electron is 1.371 x 10⁶ m/s.

Answer:

0.05cos10t

Explanation:

X(t) = Acos(wt+φ)

The oscillation angular frequency can be calculated using below formula

w = √(k/M)

Where K is the spring constant

But we were given body mass of 5.0 kg

We know acceleration due to gravity as 9.8m)s^2

The lenghth of spring which stretches =10 cm

Then we can calculate the value of K

k = (5.0kg*9.8 m/s^2)/0.10 m

K= 490 N/m

Then if we substitute these values into the formula above we have

w = √(k/M)

w = √(490/5)

= 9.90 rad/s=10rads/s(approximately)

Its position as a function of time can be calculated using the below expresion

X(t) = Acos(wt+φ)

We were given amplitude of 5 cm , if we convert to metre = 0.05m

w=10rads/s

Then if we substitute we have

X(t)=0.05cos(10×t)

X(t)= 0.05cos10t

Therefore,Its position as a function of time=

X(t)= 0.05cos10t

Answer:

A

 [tex]\lambda = 361.45 \ m[/tex]

B

[tex]k = 0.01739 \ rad/m[/tex]

C

 [tex]w = 5.22 *10^{6} \ rad/s[/tex]

D

[tex]E = 0.01446 \ N/C[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The frequency is [tex]f = 83 0 \ kHz = 830 *10^{3} \ Hz[/tex]

    The  magnetic field amplitude is  [tex]B = 4.82*10^{-11} \ T[/tex]

Generally wavelength is mathematically represented as

        [tex]\lambda = \frac{c}{f}[/tex]

where c is the speed of light with value  [tex]c = 3.0*10^{8} \ m/s[/tex]

     =>  [tex]\lambda = \frac{3.0*10^{8}}{ 830 *10^{3}}[/tex]

     =>  [tex]\lambda = 361.45 \ m[/tex]

Generally the wave number is mathematically represented as

        [tex]k = \frac{2 \pi }{\lambda }[/tex]

=>     [tex]k = \frac{2 * 3.142 }{ 361.45 }[/tex]

=>    [tex]k = 0.01739 \ rad/m[/tex]

Generally the angular frequency is mathematically represented as

     [tex]w = 2 * \pi * f[/tex]

=>  [tex]w = 2 * 3.142 * 830*10^{3}[/tex]

=>   [tex]w = 5.22 *10^{6} \ rad/s[/tex]

The the electric-field amplitude is mathematically represented as

     [tex]E = B * c[/tex]

=>    [tex]E = 4.82 *10^{-11} * 3.0*10^{8}[/tex]

=>     [tex]E = 0.01446 \ N/C[/tex]

This question involves the concepts of wavelength, frequency, wave number, and electric field.

a) The wavelength is "361.44 m".

b) The wave number is "0.0028 m⁻¹".

c) The angular frequency is "5.22 x 10⁶ rad/s".

d) The electric field amplitude is "0.0145 N/C".

a)

The wavelength can be given by the following formula:

[tex]c=f\lambda[/tex]

where,

c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

f = frequency = 830 KHz = 8.3 x 10⁵ Hz

λ = wavelength = ?

Therefore,

[tex]3\ x\ 10^8\ m/s=(8.3\ x\ 10^5\ Hz)\lambda\\\\\lambda=\frac{3\ x\ 10^8\ m/s}{8.3\ x\ 10^5\ Hz}\\\\[/tex]

λ = 361.44 m

b)

The wave number can be given by the following formula:

[tex]wave\ number = \frac{1}{\lambda} = \frac{1}{361.44\ m}[/tex]

wave number = 0.0028 m⁻¹

c)

The angular frequency is given as follows:

[tex]\omega = 2\pi f = (2)(\pi)(8.3\ x\ 10^5\ Hz)[/tex]

ω = 5.22 x 10⁶ rad/s

d)

The electric field amplitude can be given by the following formula:

[tex]\frac{E}{B} = c\\\\c(B)=E\\\\E = (3\ x\ 10^8\ m/s)(4.82\ x\ 10^{-11}\ T)\\[/tex]

E = 0.0145 N/C

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Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\sf 65.3 \ inches}[/tex]

Explanation:

1 foot = 12 inches

Sammy is 5 feet tall.

5 feet = ? inches

Multiply the feet value by 12 to find in inches.

5 × 12

= 60

Add 5.3 inches to 60 inches.

60 + 5.3

= 65.3

Answer:

The current in the ammeter is zero.

(1) is correct option.

Explanation:

Given that,

The capacitor is charged.

We need find the current after closed switched

We know that,

When switch is closed then the capacitor behave as a short circuit, and the all current flows through it. the current is zero.

Then, the ammeter reads zero.

Hence, The current in the ammeter is zero.

(1) is correct option.

Answer:

Maximum altitude to see(L) =  1.47 × 10⁶ m (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

wavelength (λ) = 0.12 nm = 0.12 × 10⁻⁹ m

Pupil Diameter (d) = 4.1 mm = 4 × 10⁻³ m

Separation distance (D) = 5.4 cm = 0.054 m

Find:

Maximum altitude to see(L)

Computation:

Resolving power = 1.22(λ / d)

D / L = 1.22(λ / d)

0.054 / L = 1.22 [(0.12 × 10⁻⁹) / (4 × 10⁻³ m)]

0.054 / L = 1.22 [0.03 × 10⁻⁶]

L = 0.054 / 1.22 [0.03 × 10⁻⁶]

L = 0.054 / [0.0366 × 10⁻⁶]

L = 1.47 × 10⁶

Maximum altitude to see(L) =  1.47 × 10⁶ m (Approx)

Answer:

From the relation above we can conclude that the  as the distance between the two plate increases the electric field strength decreases

Explanation:

I cannot  find any attached photo, but we can proceed anyways theoretically.

The electric field strength (E) at any point in an electric field is the force experienced by a unit positive charge (Q) at that point

i.e

[tex]E=\frac{F}{Q}[/tex]

But the force F

[tex]F= \frac{kQ1Q2}{r^2}[/tex]

But the electric field intensity due to a point charge Q at a distance r meters away is given by

[tex]E= \frac{\frac{kQ1Q2}{r^2}}{Q} \\\\\E= \frac{Q1}{4\pi er^2 }[/tex]

From the relation above we can conclude that the  as the distance between the two plate increases the electric field strength decreases

Answer:

 Δy = 1 10⁻⁴ m

Explanation:

In double-slit experiments the constructive interference pattern is described by the equation

           d sin θ = m λ

In this case we have two wavelengths, so two separate patterns are observed, let's use trigonometry to find the angle

         tan θ = y / L

as the angles are small,

         tan θ = sin θ / cos θ = sin θ

substituting

         sin θ = y / L

         d y / L = m λ

         y = m λ / d L

let's apply this formula for each wavelength

λ = 450 nm = 450 10⁻⁹ m

m = 5

d = 5.0 mm = 5.0 10⁻³ m

      y₁ = 5 450 10⁻⁹ / (5 10⁻³  1.4)

      y₁ = 3.21 10⁻⁴ m

we repeat the calculation for lam = 590 nm = 590 10⁻⁹ m

      y₂ = 5 590 10⁻⁹ / (5 10⁻³  1.4)

      y₂=  4.21 10⁻⁴ m

the separation of these two lines is

        Δy = y₂ - y₁

        Δy = (4.21 - 3.21) 10⁻⁴ m

        Δy = 1 10⁻⁴ m

Answer:

T = 80√3 N ≈ 139 N

W = 160 N

Explanation:

Sum of forces on B in the x direction:

∑F = ma

80 N sin 60° − T sin 30° = 0

T = 80 N sin 60° / sin 30°

T = 80√3 N

T ≈ 139 N

Sum of forces on B in the y direction:

∑F = ma

80 N cos 60° + T cos 30° − W = 0

W = 80 N cos 60° + T cos 30°

W = 40 N + 120 N

W = 160 N

Answer:

The distance of the father from the center is  [tex]d_f = \frac{1}{2} \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The distance of the son from the center is  [tex]d_s = 2 \ m[/tex]

Let the mass of the son be  [tex]m_s[/tex]

     then the mass of the father is  [tex]m_f = 4m_s[/tex]

Now for the teeter-totter to be balanced the torque due to the weight of the father must be equal to the torque due to the weight the son, this is mathematically represented as

         [tex]\tau_s = \tau_f[/tex]

Where  [tex]\tau_s[/tex] is the torque of the son which is mathematically represented as

        [tex]\tau_ s = m_s * d_s * g[/tex]

while [tex]\tau_f[/tex] is the torque of the father which is mathematically represented as

        [tex]\tau_f = m_f * d_f * g[/tex]

=>    [tex]\tau_f = 4 m_s * d_f * g[/tex]

 So

         [tex]4 m_s * d_f * g = m_s * d_s * g[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]4 * d_f * = 2[/tex]

 =>    [tex]d_f = \frac{1}{2} \ m[/tex]      

Answer:

They both have the same acceleration

Explanation:

Using Equations of Motion :

[tex]s = ut + \frac{1}{2} g {t}^{2} [/tex]

Height = 0 * 4 + 4.9 * 16

Height = 78.4 m

Answer:

1)   q₁ = 12.987 cm , b)       L = 17.987 cm , c)      m = 179.87

Explanation:

We can solve the geometric optics exercises with the equation of the constructor

         1 / f = 1 / p + 1 / q

where f is the focal length, p and q are the distance to the object and the image respectively.

Let's apply this equation to our case

1) f = 5mm = 0.5 cm

    p₁ = 5.2 mm = 0.52 cm

    h = 0.1 mm = 0.01 cm

    1 / q₁ = 1 / f- 1 / p

    1 / q₁ = 1 / 0.5 - 1 / 0.52 = 2 - 1.923

    1 / q₁ = 0.077

    q₁ = 12.987 cm

2) in this part they tell us that the eyepiece creates an image at infinity, therefore the object that comes from being at the focal length of the eyepiece

            p₂ = 5 cm

The absolute thing that goes through the two lenses is

           L = q₁ + p₂

           L = 12.987 +5

           L = 17.987 cm

3) This lens configuration forms the so-called microscope, whose expression for the magnifications

           m = -L / f_target 25 cm / f_ocular

           m = - 17.987 / 0.5 25 / 5.0

            m = 179.87

Answer: Tension = 47.8N, Δx = 11.5×[tex]10^{-6}[/tex] m.

              Tension = 95.6N, Δx = 15.4×[tex]10^{-5}[/tex] m

Explanation: A speed of wave on a string under a tension force can be calculated as:

[tex]|v| = \sqrt{\frac{F_{T}}{\mu} }[/tex]

[tex]F_{T}[/tex] is tension force (N)

μ is linear density (kg/m)

Determining velocity:

[tex]|v| = \sqrt{\frac{47.8}{5.47.10^{-3}} }[/tex]

[tex]|v| = \sqrt{0.00874 }[/tex]

[tex]|v| =[/tex] 0.0935 m/s

The displacement a pulse traveled in 1.23ms:

[tex]\Delta x = |v|.t[/tex]

[tex]\Delta x = 9.35.10^{-2}*1.23.10^{-3}[/tex]

Δx = 11.5×[tex]10^{-6}[/tex]

With tension of 47.8N, a pulse will travel Δx = 11.5×[tex]10^{-6}[/tex]  m.

Doubling Tension:

[tex]|v| = \sqrt{\frac{2*47.8}{5.47.10^{-3}} }[/tex]

[tex]|v| = \sqrt{2.0.00874 }[/tex]

[tex]|v| = \sqrt{0.01568}[/tex]

|v| = 0.1252 m/s

Displacement for same time:

[tex]\Delta x = |v|.t[/tex]

[tex]\Delta x = 12.52.10^{-2}*1.23.10^{-3}[/tex]

[tex]\Delta x =[/tex] 15.4×[tex]10^{-5}[/tex]

With doubled tension, it travels [tex]\Delta x =[/tex] 15.4×[tex]10^{-5}[/tex] m

Answer:

Pressure, P = 1250 Pa

Explanation:

Given that,

Weight of a brick, F = 50 N

Dimension of the brick is 30.0 cm × 10.0 cm × 4.00 cm

We need to find the maximum pressure it can exert on a horizontal surface due to its weight. Pressure is equal to the force acting per unit area. Pressure exerted is inversely proportional to the area of cross section. So, we need to minimize area. Taking to smaller dimensions.

A = 40 cm × 10 cm = 400 cm² = 0.04 m²

So,

Pressure,

[tex]P=\dfrac{50\ N}{0.04\ m^2}\\\\P=1250\ Pa[/tex]

So, the maximum pressure of 1250 Pa it can exert on a horizontal surface.

The maximum pressure it can exert on a horizontal surface due to its weight will be 1250 Pascal.

The force applied perpendicular to the surface of an item per unit area across which that force is spread is known as pressure. It is denoted by P.

The given data in the problem is;

W is the weight of a brick = 50 N

The dimension of the brick = 30.0 cm × 10.0 cm × 4.00 cm

A is the area,

The area is found as;

A=40 cm × 10 cm = 400 cm² = 0.04 m²

The pressure is the ratio of the force and area

[tex]\rm P = \frac{F}{A} \\\\ \rm P = \frac{50}{0.04} \\\\ \rm P =1250 \ Pascal[/tex]

Hence the maximum pressure it can exert on a horizontal surface due to its weight will be 1250 Pascal.

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Answer:

E = -8.23 ​​10⁻¹⁷ N / C

Explanation:

In the Bohr model, the electric potential for the ground state corresponding to the Bohr orbit is

         E = k q₁ q₂ / r²

in this case

q₁ is the charge of the proton and q₂ the charge of the electron

         E = - k e² / a₀²

let's calculate

         E = - 9 10⁹ (1.6 10⁻¹⁹)² / (0.529 10⁻¹⁰)²

         E = -8.23 ​​10⁻¹⁷ N / C

Answer:

Explanation:

The force experienced by the moving electron in the magnetic field is expressed as F = qvBsinθ where;

q is the charge on the electron

v is the velocity of the electron

B is the magnetic field strength

θ is the angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field.

Given parameters

F =  1.40*10⁻¹⁶ N

q = 1.6*10⁻¹⁹C

v = 3.94*10³m/s

B = 1.23T

Required

Angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field

Substituting the given parameters into the formula:

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ =  1.6*10⁻¹⁹ * 3.94*10³ * 1.23 * sinθ

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ = 7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁹⁺³sinθ

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ = 7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁶sinθ

sinθ = 1.40*10⁻¹⁶/7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁶

sinθ = 1.40/7.75392

sinθ = 0.1806

θ = sin⁻¹0.1806

θ₁ = 10.4⁰

Since sinθ is positive in the 1st and 2nd quadrant, θ₂ = 180-θ₁

θ₂ = 180-10.4

θ₂ = 169.6⁰

Hence, the angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field are 10.4⁰ and 169.6⁰

Complete Question

The image of this question  is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

a

   [tex]d =0.161 \ m[/tex]

b

  [tex]v = - 0.054 \ m/s[/tex]

c

  [tex]a = 6.12 \ m/s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The maximum  displacement is  A =  0.17  m  

      The  time considered is  [tex]t = 3.1 \ s[/tex]

     The spring constant is  [tex]k = 137 \ N \cdot m[/tex]

      The mass is  [tex]m = 3.8 \ kg[/tex]

Generally given that the motion which the cylinder is undergoing is a simple harmonic motion , then the displacement is mathematically represented as

             [tex]d = A cos (w t )[/tex]

Where [tex]w[/tex] is the angular frequency which is mathematically evaluated as

        [tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m} }[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{137}{ 3.8} }[/tex]

        [tex]w =6[/tex]

So the displacement is at  t

      [tex]d = 0.17 cos (6 * 3.1 )[/tex]

       [tex]d =0.161 \ m[/tex]

Generally the velocity of a  SHM(simple harmonic motion) is mathematically represented as

         [tex]v = - Asin (wt)[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]v = - 0.17 sin ( 6 * 3.1 )[/tex]

          [tex]v = - 0.054 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally the maximum acceleration is  mathematically represented as

         [tex]a = w^2 * A[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]a_{max} = 6^2 * (0.17)[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]a = 6^2 * (0.17)[/tex]

        [tex]a = 6.12 \ m/s^2[/tex]

Answer:

Lighthouse 1 during the day will be warmer, lighthouse 2 during the night will be warmer.

Explanation:

As the paragraph stated land absorbs heat and heats up faster than water. So during the day the lighthouse farthest away from the water will be hotter. But then the converse is true also land losses heat faster than water at night. So the water retains the heat from the day better making the lighthouse by the water warmer at night.

Answer:

The actual distance is  [tex]d_a = 0.3233\ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The  distance of the can is d =  43 cm  =  0.43 m

Generally the actual distance is mathematically represented as

         [tex]d_a = [\frac{ n_a }{n_w} ]* d[/tex]

Where  [tex]n_a , n_w[/tex] are the refractive index of air and water and their value is  

         [tex]n_a = 1 , \ \ \ n_w = 1.33[/tex]

So

       [tex]d_a = [\frac{ 1 }{1.33} ]* 0.43[/tex]

       [tex]d_a = 0.3233\ m[/tex]

Answer:

The resultant amplitude of the two waves is 2.65.

Explanation:

Given;

amplitude of the first wave, A₁ = 1

amplitude of the second wave, A₂ = 2

phase difference of the two amplitudes, θ = 60.0°.

The resultant amplitude of two waves after interference is given by;

[tex]A = \sqrt{A_1^2 + A_2^2 + 2A_1A_2Cos \theta} \\\\A = \sqrt{1^2 + 2^2 + 2(1)(2)Cos 60} \\\\A= 2.65[/tex]

Therefore, the resultant amplitude of the two waves is 2.65.

Answer:

The emerging intensity is equal to 0.75[tex]I_{o}[/tex]

Explanation:

The initial intensity of the light = [tex]I_{o}[/tex]

The angle of polarization β = 30°

We know that the polarized light intensity is related to the initial light intensity by

[tex]I[/tex] = [tex]I_{0} cos^{2}\beta[/tex]

where [tex]I[/tex] is the emerging polarized light intensity

inserting values gives

[tex]I[/tex] = [tex]I_{0} cos^{2}[/tex] 30°

[tex]cos^{2}[/tex] 30° = [tex](cos 30)^{2}[/tex] = [tex](\frac{\sqrt{3} }{2} )^{2}[/tex] = 0.75

[tex]I[/tex] = 0.75[tex]I_{o}[/tex]

Answer:

The separation of the two slits is 0.456 mm.

Explanation:

Given the wavelength of light = 519 nm

The indifference pattern = 4.6 m

Adjacent bright fringes = 5.2 mm

In the interference, the equation required is Y = mLR/d

Here, d sin theta = mL

L = wavelgnth

For bright bands, m is the  order = 1,2,3,4  

For dark bands,  m = 1.5, 2.5, 3.5, 4.5

R = Distance from slit to screen (The indifference pattern)

Y = Distance from central spot to the nth  order fringe or fringe width

Thus,  here d = mLR/Y

d = 1× 519nm × 4.6 / 5.2mm

d = 0.459 mm