Answer: E
Explanation: I believe the answer is E but you may want to double check my logic. Each tRNA has to bind to a specific amino acid and they themselves are extremely small molecules. The tRNA carries the amino acid that corresponds to each codon, do I'm not exactly sure if that's correct. And finally there are 4 types of RNA, not tRNA, but technically there are at least 4 types of tRNA as there can be up to 20 different types.
Maltase is an enzyme that is not able to catalyze the synthesis of lipids because maltase.
Due to its unique active site, the enzyme maltase is unable to catalyze the production of lipids. One enzyme that particularly reacts with maltose is called maltosease (a sugar molecule). Because maltase has a unique active site, it is an enzyme that cannot catalyze the creation of lipids.
The biological molecules known as enzymes serve as catalysts in living things. They have a proteinoid makeup. The following characteristics of enzymes are listed The processes that enzymes catalyze do not affect them in any way. Enzymes work on particular substrates because they are substrate-specific. pH and temperature catalyze affect how well enzymes work.
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Design a Device That Minimizes the Force on an Object During a Collision
In this project, you will design, evaluate, and refine a device that minimizes the force
on an object during a collision. You should apply scientific ideas to develop your
device and try to avoid unanticipated effects. Apply the law of conservation of linear
momentum to the situation in which your device should be used, and compare the
velocities and momenta of objects in the system. Note that the total momentum of a
system can change, but the change is balanced by the momenta of objects outside
the system. In your design, you should specify any criteria and constraints, such as
limiting risk. You should be able to quantify how your design satisfies these criteria
and constraints. You may have to break down complex criteria into simpler ones and
prioritize certain criteria over others.
Background
An object's momentum is based on the mass and velocity of the object. The more
momentum the object has, the harder it is to stop the object or change its direction.
The equation for momentum is p = my, where p is momentum, mis mass, and vis
velocity. When a force is applied to an object, the object's velocity changes.
Answer: W h a t
Explanation: confusion
three babies were recently mixed up in a hospital. based on the data in the table above, the couple with blood types a and b are the actual parents of the child with blood type
Based on the data of blood types for both the couple and the babies, baby #3 with blood type AB belongs to Couple II with blood type A and B.
Why is Blood type important?Certain antigens are substances that can trigger an immune response that are considered foreign to the body. These antigens are found in blood types that determines its presence or absence.
In order for medical situations such as blood transfusion to successfully occur, blood type matching is needed. Blood type plays other important roles in genetics that include matching to identify parentage as is the case of the question where the baby with AB can only come from the parents with A and B blood type.
The full question is:
Three babies were mixed at the hospital. Given the data below, the couple with blood types a and b are the actual parents of the child with blood type?
COUPLE # I II IIIBlood type A&A A&B B&OBABY # 1 2 3Blood type B O ABLearn more on blood type here: https://brainly.com/question/15289194
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Efferent arteriole C 8 of 15 Art-labeling Activity: Figure 25.8 (1 of 2)
The Efferent arteriole are blood vessels connecting to the urinary tract.
What is Efferent arteriole?
Efferent arteriole is a blood vessels connecting to the urinary tract..
They carry filtered blood from glomerulus away.they facilitate maintaing glomerulus filtration rate.Blood vessels:These are the vessels that carry bloods away or toward heart or to other parts of the body.
the blood vessels which carry blood away from heart is Aorta.the blood vessel which carry deoxygenated blood to the heart is Vena cava.Urinary Tract:It is the tract of vessels which removes urine out of the body. It is divided into upper and lower Urinary tract.
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The blood arteries that link to the urinary tract are called efferent arterioles.
Efferent arteriole: What is it?
A blood artery that connects to the urinary system is an efferent arteriole.
They transport the glomerulus' filtered blood elsewhere.
They make glomerulus filtration rate maintenance easier.
Blood vessels: These are the conduits through which blood travels from or to the heart or to other bodily components.
The Aorta is the blood artery that carries blood away from the heart.
The Vena cava is the blood channel that carries anaemic blood to the heart.
The urinary tract is the network of vessels responsible for removing urine from the body. Upper and lower urinary tracts are separated.
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What is the ICD-10 code for suprapubic catheter status?
Answer:
k
Explanation:
The ICD-10 code for suprapubic catheter status is Z96.651. This code falls under the category of "persons with potential health hazards related to genitourinary devices, implants, and grafts" and specifically refers to the presence of a suprapubic catheter for drainage of urine.
What is ICD-10?ICD-10 code Z96.651 is used to indicate the presence of a suprapubic catheter, which is a medical device used to drain urine from the bladder through a small opening in the lower abdomen. This code is part of the ICD-10 system, which is a standardized classification system used by healthcare providers and organizations to code and report medical diagnoses and procedures.
Hence, the ICD-10 code for suprapubic catheter status is Z96.651. This code falls under the category of "Persons with potential health hazards related to genitourinary devices, implants, and grafts."
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Assuming ri, r2 are negative constants and that $1,2, and $2,1 are positive constants, what do the following equations represent? 1 dN1 = ri + $1,2N2 Ni dt 1 dN2 = r2 + 82,1N1 N2 dt a. Competition b. Predation c. Facultative mutualism d. Obligate mutualisme.
Assuming a, r2 are negative constants and that $1,2, and $2,1 are superb constants choice D obligates mutualism.
D. Obligate mutualisme.
crosses x-axis --> 1 species relies upon on the alternative/ negative population increase at some unspecified time in the future.
The negative constant time period is n. If n is wonderful, the graph of a line with slope m intersects the y-axis above the starting place at (0, n) If n is bad, the graph of a line with slope m intersects the y-axis under the foundation, at (0, n). The phrase "tremendous linear feature" isn't used.
The regular can be high quality or negative. If for a few purposes we already know it is able to simplest have values such as 1 and –1, we may say it equals ±1. Mathematical symbols are used mostly for comfort they do not make anything greater correct.
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sexual reproduction in humans .group of answer choicesallows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cellproduces a haploid individualproduces an individual with 23 chromosomescombines two diploid gametes, producing a zygote
Sexual reproduction in humans is A. allows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg.
The human reproductive system occurs through the fertilization process, namely the meeting of male gametes and female gametes. The fertilization process will produce a zygote, the zygote then undergoes embryonic development until it is born as a child.
The fertilization process begins with the maturation of the egg and spermatozoa. During ovulation, the spermatozoa penetrate the corona radiata until the sperm attaches to the zona pellucida. When the spermatozoa successfully penetrate the zona pellucida, oocyte fusion will occur. Haploid sperm cell to fertilize the haploid egg. The union of the ovum and spermatozoa triggers the start of mitotic division which will produce up to 32 cells called morula which will develop into a blastocyst.
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outline the process of transcription in the nucleus including the
Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three steps of transcription that are depicted here. Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three stages of transcription.
What are the four steps in the transcription process?The process of copying DNA to create a complementary strand of RNA is called transcription. After that, RNA is translated to become proteins. Initiation, promoter removal, elongation, and termination are the four main phases of transcription.
In what transcription does the nucleus engage?Transcription takes place in the cell's nucleus since the genes are bound there, but the mRNA transcript needs to be delivered to the cytoplasm. In prokaryotes, which include bacteria and archaea, transcription takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell since these organisms lack organelles and membrane-bound nuclei.
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concept map connective tissues
Connective tissues are tissues that supports, protects, and gives structure to other tissues and organs in the body. All other types of tissues in the body are supported by connective tissues, which joins or divides them.
Like all tissue types, it is made up of cells encased in a space of liquid known as the extracellular matrix (ECM). In contrast to other types of tissue, connective tissue's cells are loosely rather than densely packed within the ECM.
Types of connective tissueTwo distinct forms of connective tissue are distinguished based on the cells present and the ECM structure.
Connective tissue proper; further broken down into loose and dense connective tissues.Specialised connective tissue; adipose tissues, cartilage, bone, blood, and reticular.learn more about connective tissues here;
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Which of the following statements are true about an IV set up? a. Line markings indicate how much fluid has infused into the patient. b. The injection port provides needle-less entry into the IV tubing. c. The IV bag includes information about the type and volume of IV solution d. The slide clamp compresses the tubing to allow IV flow rate to be increased or decreased e. The line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0"
The correct statements about the IV set are:
Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?
It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.
Features of IV set:
Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml. Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free materialHence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements
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The correct statements about the IV set are: option a, c and e.
Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.
Features of IV set:
Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml.Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free materialHence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements
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During the cell cycle, the cell divides its nucleus and chromosomes during. The cytoplasm and cell membrane divide during. Before the cell can divide again, it must grow and synthesize proteins during the phase and duplicate its chromosomes during the phase.
During the mitotic (M) phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells. M phase involves two distinct division-related processes: mitosis and cytokinesis.
The fluidy substance that fills a cell's inside is called cytoplasm. Salts, water, and numerous organic compounds make up its composition. Membranes surround some intracellular organelles, such as the nucleus and mitochondria, and keep them from coming into contact with the cytoplasm. One cell (the mother) splits into two genetically identical new cells (the daughters) during the process of mitosis, a kind of cell division. In the context of the cell cycle, mitosis refers to the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.
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art-labeling activity main nerves of the brachial plexus
The art-labeling activity main nerves of the brachial plexus is given in the image attached.
How many nerves does the brachial plexus have?There are five main nerve branches that branch off from the brachial plexus and travel down the arm: cutaneous nerve of the muscles: flexes muscles in the upper arm at the shoulder and elbow and originates from nerve roots C5 to C7.
The radial, musculocutaneous, median, ulnar, and axillary nerves are the brachial plexus' five terminal branches.
Note that the network of nerves called the brachial plexus is what carries signals from the spinal cord to the shoulder, arm, and hand. A brachial plexus injury happens when these nerves are compressed, stretched, or in the most severe scenarios, torn apart or severed from the spinal cord.
Therefore, one can say that for the motor and sensory innervation of the upper extremities, including the shoulder, arm, and hand, the brachial plexus is said to be a significant network of nerves that transmits signals.
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arginase, a key enzyme in liver urea production, requires four ____ atoms per molecule. group of answer choices iron copper zinc manganese
Ceruloplasmin is one illustration; it has eight copper atoms per molecule. Copper and zinc provide as examples of the needs for and toxicity of important trace elements.
What trace mineral is necessary for gluconeogenesis' primary enzyme to be activated?Manganese is a trace mineral that functions as a cofactor for enzymes that produce urea, cholesterol, and glucose (gluconeogenesis) (amino-acid catabolism in the liver).
Which Micromineral is deemed crucial for healthy brain function?The liver, kidney, pancreas, and bones are where manganese is primarily deposited. and contributes to the regulation of blood sugar, calcium absorption, and fat and carbohydrate metabolism. For healthy nerve and brain function, manganese is also essential.
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a gene pair made up of two similar alleles-for example, aa and bb-is said to be
A heterozygous gene pair consists of two unique alleles, whereas a homozygous gene pair consists of two alleles that are the same.
Which color test for bloodstains is the most popular?A presumptive test that reacts with the heme molecule found in blood is phenolphthalein. Pink results from an affirmative response. Despite the fact that bloodstains are often reddish-brown in hue, the substrate's color or the stain's age can have an impact on how noticeable or noticeable the stain is.
When two alleles are expressed, what is it called?In terms of genetics, codominance refers to an inheritance pattern in which two variants (alleles) of the same gene are expressed differently in order to produce distinct phenotypes in a person.
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TRUE/FALSE. modification of rhizobacterial populations by engineering bacterium utilization of a novel plant-produced resource.
Modification of rhizobia populations by bacterial manipulation (engineering) of new plant resources is True.
Can bacteria be engineered?Bacteria are constructed according to synthetic biology design and plasmid introduction or genome modification. In vitro co-culture systems can be used to rapidly characterize and develop effective genetically modified bacteria.Our bodies are home to several species of bacteria that help us maintain our health and well-being. Manipulating these beneficial bacteria to alter the activity of aberrant genes by either disabling or activating them is a promising approach to improving health and fighting disease.How do rhizobia help plants?Beneficial rhizosphere bacteria were used to improve water and nutrient uptake, and abiotic and biotic stress tolerance. Many soil bacteria have been reported to promote plant growth and development, but the modes by which bacteria exhibit beneficial activity are poorly understood.
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Answer and match them
Answer:
Answered (?)
Explanation:
1. C
2. E (?)
3. F
4. D
5. B
6. A
I wasn't sure about E because for me I would say that means 'extinction' but that's not an answer, I tried my best and hope this helps!
many people believe that taking zinc lozenges reduces the severity and duration of the common cold. sebastien decides to conduct a study at his school to explore this claim. he sends a survey to a simple random sample of 100 students, asking them to if they took zinc lozenges or not during their last cold, and how long they experienced cold symptoms. he found that students who took zinc had a mean cold duration that was 1.2 days lower than those who did not take zinc. which of the following statements about his study is true?
Sebastien's study is subject to confounding.
What are zinc lozenges?
A well-liked remedy for the common cold is zinc. According to some studies, zinc lozenges may shorten colds' duration by one or two days and may lessen the incidence of upper respiratory infections. Zinc aids in wound healing and infection prevention. Treatment of the common cold with zinc gluconate lozenges, using adequate doses of elemental zinc, may be effective in reducing the duration and severity of cold symptoms. If the lozenges are started as soon as symptoms appear, the benefit seems to be at its greatest. The formulation of the lozenges also appears to be important because the addition of citric acid or tartaric acid may reduce efficacy due to the chelation of zinc ions.
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The hydrogen ions released by the dissociation of carbonic acid are buffered by their A) transport into the erythrocyte as sodium ions move out. B) transport out of the erythrocyte as a sodium ion moves in. C) active transport out of the erythrocyte. D) binding to DNA within the nucleus. E) binding to hemoglobin.
The hydrogen ions released by the dissociation of carbonic acid are buffered by their transport into the erythrocyte as sodium ions move out option A is correct.
what are hydrogen ions?
A hydrogen ion is a positively charged molecule as a result of it loosing an electron. Which is also the nucleus of a hydrogen atom separated from its accompanying electron.
what is erythrocyte ?
literally it is referred to as Red blood cell, red blood corpuscles, haematids, erythroid cells etc. This is also type of blood cell that is made in the bone marrow and found in the blood. Erythrocytes contain a protein
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What would happen to a cell that didn’t replicate its dna before cell division?
The cell will not proceed with the further processes.
What is equational division?
Chromosome replication and equal distribution between the two daughter cells occur during the cell division process known as mitosis. Each daughter cell has the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, making them diploid. Thus, mitosis is also referred to as equational division.
Unequal division will result if the cell didn't replicate prior to actually cell division. As a result of the checkpoints, it won't move on to the next step. The checkpoint will later start the apoptosis process, which results in programmed cell death.
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classify each mutation example as definitely positive, definitely negative, or most likely neutral. each category has two examples. you are currently in a sorting module. turn off browse mode or quick nav, tab to items, space or enter to pick up, tab to move, space or enter to drop. beneficial mutations neutral mutations harmful mutations answer bank
A beneficial mutation is one that has a good effect on an organism. These mutations are uncommon yet important. The benefit that a beneficial mutation provides the organism is passed down from generation to generation, increasing the chances of survival for the offspring.
Neutral mutations:
Neutral mutations are changes in DNA sequence that are neither beneficial nor harmful to an organism's ability to survive and reproduce. In population genetics, neutral mutations are mutations in which natural selection has no effect on the spread of the mutation in a species.
Harmful mutations: Mutations that are harmful can result in genetic diseases or cancer. A genetic condition is an illness that results from a mutation in one or more genes. Cystic fibrosis is a human example. A single gene mutation causes the body to produce thick, sticky mucus, which clogs the lungs and blocks ducts in digestive organs.
What is mutation?
A mutation is a change in an organism's DNA sequence. Mutations can occur as a result of errors in DNA replication during cell division, mutagen exposure, or viral infection.
What causes mutation?
Mutations can occur as a result of mistakes in DNA replication during cell division, mutagen exposure, or viral infection. Germline mutations (those that occur in eggs and sperm) can be handed on to offspring, but somatic mutations (those that originate in body cells) cannot.
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Full Question: Classify each mutation example as definitely positive, definitely negative, or most likely neutral. Each category has two examples.
unlike b lymphocytes, t lymphocytes do not generate a secreted form of their antigen receptors
Self-reactive antigen receptors may be produced by the random process that produces lymphocyte antigen receptors.Several of these possibly self-reactive lymphocytes are removed during lymphocyte development,
Why does the antigen receptor exist?It serves as a receptor that identifies and binds antigen through the exposed V regions on the cell's surface, sending a signal that activates B cells, triggering clonal growth and the production of specific antibodies.
Describe the three antigen receptors?A co-receptor complex made up of at least three cell-surface molecules—CD19, CD21, and CD81—modifies the signaling of B-cell antigen receptors.
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electrons excited in photosystem ii help the chloroplast produce
As excited electrons move through the electron transport chain, NADPH is created.
The photosystem II's source of the excited electrons is what?A chlorophyll molecule's excited electron is moved to the an electron acceptor at the reaction center.It's an oxidation-reduction reaction right now.An electron from water is used in photosystem II to replace the electron lost from the reaction center.
What is produced during photosynthesis by photosystem 2?In oxygenic photosynthetic organisms, photosystem II is the first membrane protein complex.It uses light energy to catalyze the oxidation of water, which results in the production of atmospheric oxygen.
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in a study of the forces involved when motor proteins
Motor proteins also produce force locally within the network of cytoskeletal polymers, which transmits these forces to determine the shape of each cell and, ultimately, the architecture of tissues and whole organisms. Chapters 37 to 39 and 44 illustrate how motors move cells and their parts.
which bones unite to form the highlighted bone?
The highlighted bone is named the sternum. The sternum, which lies in the middle of the chest, is where the ribs connect to the body.
Which joint does the humerus's highlighted bone form?The humeral head's ball and glenoid's socket connect at the glenohumeral joint. The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles' tendons make up the rotator cuff, which joins the humerus to the scapula. Muscle and bone are joined via tendon.
What develops in the indicated curvature?When a child is able to sit up on their own, the lumbar curvature that is highlighted begins to develop. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation.
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Drag each label into the appropriate position to identify whether the statement depicts something true or false about the specimen pictured below: - contains connective tissues- visible directional orientation of collagen fibers- found in areas where bones are joined via cartilage- same tissue category as blood- a larger portion of extracellular matrix to cells- functions to resist shock; - seen in tendons
- contains dense irregular connective tissue
- contains a perichondrium
- chondrocytes in clusters of 3-4 arranged in clumps
TRUE Statement
- contains connective tissues
- visible directional orientation of collagen fibers
- found in areas where bones are joined via cartilage
- same tissue category as blood
- a larger portion of extracellular matrix to cells
- functions to resist shock
FALSE Statement
- seen in tendons
- contains dense irregular connective tissue
- contains a perichondrium
- chondrocytes in clusters of 3-4 arranged in clumps
What is perichondrium?
The cartilage of growing bones is surrounded by a layer of dense, wavy connective tissue called the perichondrium. It is made up of an inner chondrogenic layer and an exterior fibrous layer. Fibroblasts in the fibrous layer create collagenous fibers. The chondrogenic layer can produce chondroblasts and is yet undifferentiated. Both hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage have perichondrium at their edges.
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what feature of fats makes them hydrophobic
Covalent modification generally turns off genes by attracting proteins that bind to methylated cytosines and block gene transcription.
a) DNA Methylation
b) miRNA
c) RNAi
d) tRNA
The correct option among the following was DNA Methylation.
define DNA Methylation ?
A biological process called DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to the DNA molecule. Without altering the sequence, methylation can modify the activity of a DNA region. DNA methylation often suppresses gene transcription when it occurs at a gene promoter. DNA methylation plays an important role in a variety of critical processes in mammals, including ageing, cancer, X-chromosome inactivation, genomic imprinting, and transposable element suppression.
Adenine and cytosine are the two nucleobases on which natural, enzymatic DNA methylation occurs as of 2016. N6-methyladenine[1], 5-methylcytosine[2], and N4-methylcytosine are the modified bases. [3]
The DNA nucleotide cytosine is methylated to create 5-methylcytosine at position 5 on the pyrimidine ring. This is the same place that separates thymine from the homologous RNA base uracil, which has no methyl group. 5-Methylcytosine undergoes spontaneous deamination and is changed into thymine. A T:G mismatch emerges from this. If A is substituted for G, the original C:G pair becomes a T:A pair, thus altering a base and producing a mutation. Repair mechanisms then fix it back to the original C:G pair.
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the theory of endosymbiosis and history of life on earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of other plant species bacterial species other tree species
The theory of endosymbiosis and the history of life on earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of other bacterial species (Option II).
What is the theory of endosymbiosis?The theory of endosymbiosis is a model to explain the origin of eukaryotic cells, which postulates that these types of organisms evolved as a consequence of symbiotic relationships between primitive bacterial cells that converted into mitochondria and chloroplasts in animals and plants.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the theory of endosymbiosis is based on the scientific idea that eukaryotic cells as observed in plants and animals generated due to symbiosis with primitive bacterial cells that entered into the cell and performed cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
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Classify the examples as prezygotic or postzygotic barriers. Prezygotic barrier Postzygotic barrier Answer Bank A horse and donkey mate to produce a sterile mule. One bird species prefers open areas, whereas another bird species prefers wooded areas. One frog species mates in the spring, whereas another frog species mates in the summer. Individuals from two different species mate, but the resulting embryo dies before birth.
Prezygotic and Postzygotic barriers are reproductive isolation mechanisms, which avoid mating events or prevent viable and fertile mixtures between different species. Pre-zygotic barriers: One bird species prefers open areas, whereas another bird species prefers wooded areas. One frog species mates in the spring, whereas another frog species mates in the summer. Postzygotic barrier: A horse and donkey mate to produce a sterile mule. Individuals from two different species mate, but the resulting embryo dies before birth.
What is reproductive isolation?This is a mechanism through which different species or populations do get to mate and produce fertile offspring. This mechanism allows the accumulation of genetic differences and favors speciation.
Different barriers inhibit or interrupt the genetic flow between species.
Reproductive barriers are isolation mechanisms that prevent mating between two or more species. There are two types of barriers,
prezygotic ⇒ that avoids fertilization between individuals of different species, postzygotic ⇒ that impedes the zygote from developing and reaching the adult stage.Pre-copulatory or pre-zygotic barriers include:
Ecological or by habitat isolation; Seasonal or temporal; Sexual o ethologic; Mechanic; Gametes incompatibility.Postzygotic mechanisms barriers include:
Hybrid inviability, Hybrid sterility, Hybrid reduced viability or fertility, Cytoplasmic interactions.Examples,
Pre-zygotic barriersOne bird species prefers open areas, whereas another bird species prefers wooded areas (Ecological or by habitat isolation)
One frog species mates in the spring, whereas another frog species mates in the summer (Seasonal or temporal isolation)
Postzygotic barrier
A horse and donkey mate to produce a sterile mule (Hybrid sterility).
Individuals from two different species mate, but the resulting embryo dies before birth (Hybrid inviability).
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Which is not true about all
of these elements?
Answer:
A. They are all in the same group B. They all have the same number of valence electrons C. They all have the same number of protons D. They all share similar properties
Explanation:
