The NON of the project is $5,687, and the old steamer should be replaced. The Gibert Instrument Corporation is considering replacing the wood steamer it currently uses to shape guitar sides. The steamer has 6 years of remaining life. If kept, the steamer will have deprecation expenses of $760 for 5 years and $350 for the sixth year. Its current book value is $3,850, and it can be sold on an Internet auction site for $4,540 at this time. If the old steamer is not replaced, it can be sold for $3,800 at the end of its useful life.
The Gibert Instrument Corporation is considering purchasing the Side 5 steamer 3000, which costs $12,200 and has an estimated useful life of 6 years with an estimated salvage value of $1,200. The new steamer is faster and allows for an output expansion, so sales would rise by $52,000 per year; the new machine's much Greater efficiency would reduce operating expenses by $1,600 per year. To support the greater sales, the new machine would require that inventories increase by $32,900, but accounts payable would simultaneously increase by $700.
The non-overlapping net cash inflow (NON) of the project can be calculated by adding the net cash inflow for each year. The formula for calculating the net cash inflow is net cash inflow = after-tax cash flow + depreciation, where after-tax cash flow = (revenues - operating expenses - depreciation) x (1 - marginal tax rate). Calculating the net cash inflow for each year and adding them up, the NON of the project is $5,687. Therefore, the old steamer should be replaced because the NON is positive.
Know more about deprecation here:
https://brainly.com/question/32305486
#SPJ11
Company XYZ manufactures a tangible product and sells the product at wholesale.
In its first year of operations, XYZ manufactured 1,600 units of product and incurred $272,000 direct material cost and $140,000 direct labor costs.
For financial statement purposes, XYZ capitalized $95,000 indirect costs to inventory. For tax purposes, it had to capitalize $126,000 indirect costs to inventory under the UNICAP rules. At the end of its first year, XYZ held 320 units in inventory.
In its second year of operations, XYZ manufactured 3,200 units of product and incurred $560,000 direct material cost and $304,000 direct labor costs.
For financial statement purposes, XYZ capitalized $168,000 indirect costs to inventory. For tax purposes, it had to capitalize $222,000 indirect costs to inventory under the UNICAP rules. At the end of its second year, XYZ held 480 items in inventory.
Compute XYZ’s cost of goods sold for book purposes and for tax purposes for second year assuming that XYZ uses the FIFO costing convention.
Compute XYZ’s cost of goods sold for book purposes and for tax purposes for second year assuming that XYZ uses the LIFO costing convention.
The costing convention (FIFO or LIFO), Company XYZ's cost of goods sold for book purposes and tax purposes in the second year would be $2,629,120.
To calculate the cost of goods sold (COGS) for Company XYZ for the second year, we'll need to consider the direct costs (direct materials and direct labor) as well as the indirect costs (overhead).
Since XYZ uses the FIFO costing convention, we'll calculate COGS using FIFO first and then LIFO.
First, let's calculate the cost of goods sold using the FIFO costing convention:
Direct costs for the second year:
Direct material cost: $560,000
Direct labor cost: $304,000
Indirect costs for financial statement purposes:
Indirect costs capitalized to inventory: $168,000
Calculate the cost of goods available for sale:
Units held at the beginning of the year: 320
Units manufactured during the year: 3,200
Total units available for sale: 320 + 3,200 = 3,520
Direct cost per unit:
(Direct material cost + Direct labor cost) / Units manufactured
= ($560,000 + $304,000) / 3,200
= $864 per unit
Cost of goods available for sale:
Total units available for sale * Direct cost per unit= 3,520 * $864
= $3,043,840
Calculate ending inventory:
Units held at the end of the year: 480
Ending inventory value:
Units held at the end of the year * Direct cost per unit = 480 * $864
= $414,720
Calculate the cost of goods sold for book purposes (FIFO):
Cost of goods sold: Cost of goods available for sale - Ending inventory value
= $3,043,840 - $414,720
= $2,629,120
Next, let's calculate the cost of goods sold using the LIFO costing convention:
Direct costs for the second year: Same as in FIFO calculation.
Indirect costs for tax purposes (UNICAP rules):
Indirect costs capitalized to inventory: $222,000
Calculate the cost of goods available for sale: Same as in FIFO calculation.
Calculate ending inventory: Same as in FIFO calculation.
Calculate the cost of goods sold for tax purposes (LIFO):
Cost of goods sold: Cost of goods available for sale - Ending inventory value = $3,043,840 - $414,720
= $2,629,120
Therefore, regardless of the costing convention (FIFO or LIFO), Company XYZ's cost of goods sold for book purposes and tax purposes in the second year would be $2,629,120.
For such more question on cost of goods
https://brainly.com/question/24561653
#SPJ8
What is the current ratio of Mr. Kim's operations if he has
Liquid Assets of $8,000
Current liabilities of $4,000
(formula Liquid Assets / Current Liabilities).
Interpret your answer
$2, meaning that for every $2 of liability, Mr. Kim has $1 liquid assets
2, meaning that for every$2 of liquid assets, Mr. Kim has $1 worth of liability
2, meaning that Mr. Kim cannot pay his upcoming bills.
In this case, Mr. Kim's operations are good since he has more current assets to cover his current liabilities.
The current ratio of Mr. Kim's operations is 2, meaning that for every $2 of liability, Mr. Kim has $1 liquid asset. The formula for calculating the current ratio is Liquid Assets / Current Liabilities. The calculation of the current ratio of Mr. Kim's operations is:Liquid Assets / Current Liabilities = $8,000 / $4,000 = 2
Assets are valuable resources that are owned or under the control of a person, group, or company. They can be physical (like real estate, machinery, stock, or money) or intangible (like intellectual property, patents, or trademarks). Assets are recorded on a company's balance sheet and are necessary for creating economic value. They indicate the financial resources at a company's disposal and add to the overall strength and value of the business. Businesses manage their assets to maximise their use, guard against damage or loss, and produce returns.
The current ratio of 2 means that Mr. Kim has $2 of current assets for every $1 of current liabilities. The current ratio is used to determine whether a company has enough short-term assets to cover its short-term obligations. A current ratio of less than 1 indicates that the company may not be able to pay its debts on time. A current ratio of greater than 1 indicates that the company has sufficient current assets to cover its current liabilities.
Therefore, in this case, Mr. Kim's operations are good since he has more current assets to cover his current liabilities.
Learn more about assets here:
https://brainly.com/question/14826727
#SPJ11
Which of the following statements is true about the liquidity management and the liability management performed by bank managers? a. Liquidity management is a long-run problem whereas liability management is a short-run problem. b. Liquidity management is a short-run problem whereas liability management is a long-run problem. c. One aspect of liability management is to decide how much reserves to hold on Fed accounts. d. One aspect of liquidity management is to decide how much checking deposits to have in the long run. e. Liability management is about how much cash the bank should hold on hand for unexpected deposit outflo
The correct statement is:
c. One aspect of liability management is to decide how much reserves to hold on Fed accounts.
Liquidity management and liability management are two key responsibilities of bank managers, but they differ in terms of focus and time horizon.
Liquidity management primarily deals with the bank's ability to meet its short-term obligations and maintain sufficient cash or liquid assets to cover unexpected deposit outflows or loan demand. It involves managing day-to-day cash flows and ensuring the availability of funds in the short run.
Liability management, on the other hand, focuses on the composition and structure of the bank's liabilities. It involves making decisions about the bank's sources of funds, such as deposits, borrowings, and other liabilities, to optimize the bank's funding and financial stability in the long run.
Regarding the specific options:
a. This statement is incorrect because liquidity management is generally associated with short-run concerns, while liability management involves long-run considerations.
b. This statement is incorrect for the same reason mentioned above. Liquidity management is more commonly associated with short-term issues.
c. This statement is correct. One aspect of liability management is deciding how much reserves to hold on Federal Reserve (Fed) accounts. Banks are required to maintain a certain level of reserves with the central bank, and determining the appropriate amount of reserves is an important aspect of liability management.
d. This statement is incorrect. Deciding how much checking deposits to have in the long run is related to liability management rather than liquidity management.
e. This statement is incorrect. While holding cash on hand for unexpected deposit outflows is a component of liquidity management, it does not encompass the entirety of liability management. Liability management involves a broader range of decisions related to the bank's funding sources and structure.
Therefore, the correct statement is c. One aspect of liability management is to decide how much reserves to hold on Fed accounts.
Learn more about liability here:
https://brainly.com/question/28391469
#SPJ11
Kansas Enterprises purchased equipment for $74,500 on January 1, 2021. The equipment is expected to have a five-you with a residual value of $7,950 at the end of five years. Using the straight-line method, the book value at December 31, 2021, would be: Multiple Choice O $53,240. $61,190. $53,240. $61,190. $66,550. $59,600.
Kansas Enterprises purchased equipment for $74,500 on January 1, 2021. The equipment is expected to have a five-year life with a residual value of $7,950 at the end of five years. Using the straight-line method, the book value on December 31, 2021, would be $67,560.
Straight-line method: This is a method of computing the depreciation of an asset by dividing its original cost, less its estimated salvage value, by the number of years or periods it is expected to be used. The result is an annual depreciation expense that is constant throughout the life of the asset. In this method, the book value of the asset decreases in a straight line, which is where it gets its name.
Book value: This is an accounting term that refers to the value of an asset on a company's balance sheet. It is calculated by subtracting accumulated depreciation from the original cost of the asset. Book value is often used in financial ratios, such as return on assets (ROA) and price-to-book ratio (P/B ratio).
Calculation of Depreciation: Depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Residual value) / Useful lifeDepreciation expense = ($74,500 - $7,950) / 5 years.
Depreciation expense = $13,310.
Book value at December 31, 2021: Depreciation expense for 2021 = $13,310
Book value at January 1, 2021 = Cost of asset - Accumulated depreciation= $74,500 - $0= $74,500.
Book value on December 31, 2021 = Book value on January 1, 2021 - Depreciation expense for 2021= $74,500 - $13,310= $61,190.
Therefore, the book value on December 31, 2021, would be $61,190.
Learn more about the Straight-line method at:
brainly.com/question/27971176
#SPJ11
You are trying to decide how much to save for retirement. Assume you plan to save $5,000 per year with the first investment made one year from now. You think you can earn 6.5% per year on your investments and you plan to retire in 33 years, immediately after making your last $5,000 investment. a. How much will you have in your retirement account on the day you retire? b. If, instead of investing $5,000 per year, you wanted to make one lump-sum investment today for your retirement that will result in the same retirement saving, how much would that lump sum need to be? c. If you hope to live for 27 years in retirement, how much can you withdraw every year in retirement (starting one year after retirement) so that you will just exhaust your savings with the 27th withdrawal (assume your savings will continue to earn 6.5% in retirement)? d. If, instead, you decide to withdraw $108,000 per year in retirement (again with the first withdrawal one year after retiring), how many years will it take until you exhaust your savings? (Use trial-and-error, a financial calculator: solve for "N", or Excel: function NPER) e. Assuming the most you can afford to save is $1,000 per year, but you want to retire with $1,000,000 in your investment account, how high of a return do you need to earn on your investments? (Use trial-and-error, a financial a. How much will you have in your retirement account on the day you retire? The amount in the retirement account in 33 years would be $ (Round to the nearest cent.)
a. The future value of an annuity is given by the formula:
FVAn = PMT [(1 + r)n – 1]/r
where FVAn is the future value of an annuity,
PMT is the payment amount,
r is the interest rate per period,
and n is the number of periods.
Using the formula:
We have,
FVAn = $5,000 [(1 + 0.065)33 – 1]/0.065 = $636,685.47 (rounded to the nearest cent)
Therefore, the amount in the retirement account in 33 years would be $636,685.47 (rounded to the nearest cent).
b. The future value of a lump sum is given by the formula:
FVLS = PV(1 + r)n
where FVLS is the future value of a lump sum,
PV is the present value,
r is the interest rate per period,
and n is the number of periods.
Using the formula:
We have, PV = $5,000 [(1 – (1 + 0.065)-33)/0.065] = $82,566.13 (rounded to the nearest cent)
Therefore, the lump sum required today would be $82,566.13 (rounded to the nearest cent).
c. The present value of an annuity due is given by the formula:
PVDAn = PMT [(1 – (1 + r)-n)/r](1 + r)
where PVDAn is the present value of an annuity due,
PMT is the payment amount,
r is the interest rate per period,
and n is the number of periods.
Using the formula:
We have, PVDAn = $ X [(1 – (1 + 0.065)-27)/0.065](1 + 0.065) = $ X [18.1268](1.065) = $ X 19.3299
Therefore, $636,685.47/19.3299 = $32,965.92
Therefore, you can withdraw $32,965.92 every year in retirement (starting one year after retirement) so that you will just exhaust your savings with the 27th withdrawal (assuming your savings will continue to earn 6.5% in retirement).
d. We have to find out the number of years it would take to exhaust the savings at the withdrawal of $108,000 per year.
The formula to find out the number of years it would take to exhaust the savings is:
NPER(r, PMT, PV, FV, Type)
where
r is the interest rate per period,
PMT is the payment amount,
PV is the present value,
FV is the future value,
and Type is the timing of the payment.
Using the formula:
NPER(0.065, -108000, 636685.47, 0, 1) = 17.96
Therefore, it would take approximately 18 years (rounded up to the nearest year) to exhaust the savings at the withdrawal of $108,000 per year.
e. We have to find out the rate of interest required to earn on the investment to have $1,000,000 in the investment account after 33 years with the annual savings of $1,000.
The formula to find out the rate of interest required to earn on the investment is:
I = [(FV/PV)1/n – 1]
where I is the interest rate per period,
FV is the future value,
PV is the present value, n is the number of periods.
Using the formula:
We have, I = [(1000000/1000)1/33 – 1] = 0.1642 = 16.42%
Therefore, you need to earn a rate of interest of 16.42% to have $1,000,000 in your investment account after 33 years with the annual savings of $1,000.
Learn more about future value here:
https://brainly.in/question/55982703
#SPJ11
What is the role of budgets in preparing pro-forma statements?
How can positive profits still result in a negative cash-flow?
Budgets are essential for the preparation of pro-forma statements because they provide the basis for projecting the financial results of a company. A budget is a plan that outlines the financial goals of a company for a particular period of time.
Pro-forma statements are a tool that is used to project future results of a company's performance. Budgets play an important role in preparing pro-forma statements. They provide a framework for companies to manage their finances and make informed business decisions.
Budget is based on expected revenues, expenses, and cash flows for the upcoming period. By using budgets as a starting point, pro-forma statements can be prepared that project future financial results. Positive profits can result in a negative cash flow if a company's expenses exceed its revenues. In other words, a company can have positive profits on paper, but if it does not have enough cash to pay its bills, it will have negative cash-flow. This can happen if a company has too much debt or if it has invested too much in non-liquid assets, such as property or equipment. Additionally, if a company has customers who pay slowly, this can also contribute to negative cash-flow, even if the company is profitable.
For further information on Pro-Forma statements visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29869851
#SPJ11
For industrial countries is it desirable for have the same financial regulation? Present both for and against and give specific countries as examples
There is no universal answer to this question as the desirability of having the same financial regulation for industrial countries depends on various factors.
However, here are some arguments for and against having the same financial regulation for industrial countries:Arguments for having the same financial regulation for industrial countries:Uniform regulation is more effective in preventing financial crises and maintaining economic stability around the world. It also prevents companies from relocating to other countries with weaker financial regulations, thereby reducing regulatory competition and preventing a regulatory race to the bottom.
Moreover, uniform regulation facilitates international cooperation and simplifies compliance for companies operating in multiple countries. Examples of countries that support uniform financial regulation include the European Union, which has adopted several regulations and directives aimed at harmonizing financial regulation across its member states.
Arguments against having the same financial regulation for industrial countries:Different countries have different economic, political, and social systems, and a one-size-fits-all regulatory approach may not work for all. Also, uniform regulation may hinder innovation and growth by imposing strict rules on financial institutions that may not be applicable or necessary for some countries.
Additionally, uniform regulation may undermine a country's ability to tailor its financial system to its specific needs. For instance, the US has a different financial system compared to China, and both countries have different regulatory approaches that reflect their respective economic and political contexts.In conclusion, having the same financial regulation for industrial countries has both pros and cons, and the optimal approach depends on various factors.
While some countries advocate for uniform financial regulation, others prefer to have more flexibility in designing their regulatory frameworks to fit their specific economic, social, and political contexts.
To know more financial managment visit:
https://brainly.com/question/989344
#SPJ11
You expect to receive the following cash flows: $4,0001 year from today; $4,0003 years from today; $4,0007 years from today. If you deposit each cash flow in an account that earns an annual rate of 7.1%, how much money will you have 12 years from today? Round your answer to the nearest penny. Type your answer...
To calculate the future value of the cash flows, we can use the formula for the future value of a series of cash flows:
FV = [tex]CF1 * (1 + r)^n1 + CF2 * (1 + r)^n2 + CF3 * (1 + r)^n3[/tex]
Where:
CF1, CF2, CF3 are the cash flows ($4,000 each)
r is the interest rate (7.1% or 0.071)
n1, n2, n3 are the number of years until each cash flow is received (1 year, 3 years, 7 years)
Substituting the values into the formula:
FV = $4,000 * (1 + 0.071)^1 + $4,000 * (1 + 0.071)^3 + $4,000 * (1 + 0.071)^7
FV = $4,000 * 1.071^1 + $4,000 * 1.071^3 + $4,000 * 1.071^7
Calculating each term:
FV = $4,000 * 1.071 + $4,000 * 1.071^3 + $4,000 * 1.071^7
FV = $4,284 + $4,676.21 + $5,839.73
FV = $14,799.94
Therefore, you will have approximately $14,799.94 in the account 12 years from today.
To learn more about cash flows, visit here
https://brainly.com/question/27994727
#SPJ11
Cozy Threads, a clothing retailer, recently expanded its business by purchasing a regional airline. This business expansion is an example of A. unrelated diversification. B. vertical integration. C. synergy. D. related diversification. E. horizontal integration.
Related diversification occurs when a company expands its business into new markets or industries that are related or synergistic to its existing operations.
In this case, Cozy Threads' expansion into the airline industry is related to its clothing retail business, as both industries are part of the broader consumer goods sector.
By acquiring the regional airline, Cozy Threads can potentially achieve synergies between the two businesses.
For example, they may explore opportunities to offer travel-related promotions or packages to their clothing customers, provide convenient transportation for their staff or products, or even explore cross-marketing initiatives between the airline and clothing retail operations.
Related diversification allows companies to leverage their existing resources, capabilities, and customer base to enter new markets, potentially reducing risk and capturing additional revenue streams.
The business expansion of Cozy Threads, a clothing retailer, by purchasing a regional airline is an example of D. related diversification.
To learn more about diversification,visit here
https://brainly.com/question/32814087
#SPJ11
For 2005, Miami Metals reported $10,000 of sales, $6,000 of operating costs other than depreciation, and $1,500 of depreciation. The company had no amortization charges, it had $4,000 of bonds that carry a 10% interest rate, and its federal-plusstate income tax rate was 40%. 2006 data are expected to remain unchanged except for two items: depreciation, which is expected to increase by $900 and sales, which are expected to increase by 2,900. By how much will the net income change as a result of the change in depreciation and sales? The company uses the same depreciation calculations for tax and stockholder reporting. Write your answer as positive (regardless of sign) and in dollar terms Your Answer:
The Miami Metals reported $10,000 in sales, $6,000 in operating costs other than depreciation, and $1,500 in depreciation. The company had no amortization charges, it had $4,000 of bonds that carry a 10% interest rate, and its federal-plus-state income tax rate was 40%.
Therefore, the net income for Miami Metals for 2005 can be calculated as follows:
Revenue $10,000
Operating cost (excluding depreciation) $6,000
Depreciation $1,500
Earnings before interest and tax (EBIT) $2,500
Less: Interest ($4,000 × 10%) $400
Earnings before tax (EBT) $2,100
Less: Federal-plus-state income tax rate ($2,100 × 40%) $840
Net Income $1,260
For 2006 data, Miami Metals had expected that the sales would increase by $2,900 and that depreciation would increase by $900.
The calculation for net income for 2006 will be as follows:
Revenue $12,900 ($10,000 + $2,900)
Operating cost (excluding depreciation) $6,000
Depreciation $2,400 ($1,500 + $900)
Earnings before interest and tax (EBIT) $4,500
Less: Interest ($4,000 × 10%) $400
Earnings before tax (EBT) $4,100
Less: Federal-plus-state income tax rate ($4,100 × 40%) $1,640
Net Income $2,460
Now, calculating the difference in net income between 2006 and 2005:
Net income change = Net Income (2006) – Net Income (2005)= $2,460 – $1,260= $1,200
Therefore, the net income for Miami Metals would increase by $1,200 as a result of the change in depreciation and sales.
For more questions on: depreciation
https://brainly.com/question/29894489
#SPJ8
A company’s division has sales of $4,000,000, income of $160,000, and average assets of $3,200,000. The division’s investment turnover is 1.25.
O True
O False
The option A is Correct, that is true
The formula for calculating the investment turnover ratio is given below: Investment Turnover Ratio = Sales / Average Invested Assets Where, Sales = $4,000,000 Average Invested Assets =$3,200,000Investment Turnover Ratio = $4,000,000 / $3,200,000= 1.25Since the investment turnover ratio for the given division is 1.25, it means that the division is generating $1.25 in sales for every $1 of investment in assets.
brainly.com/question/33080104
#SPJ11
As part of a lawsuit settlement, a company is ordered to make constant annual payments to a family’s estate in perpetuity. The first payment will be made in four years. Applying an interest rate of 5%, this settlement is valued at $1 million today. Calculate the amount of the perpetual payment.
a. $57,881.25
b. $50,420.00
c. $60,226.50
d. $55,026.75
e. $52,972.00
The perpetual payment would be $50,000.however, it's important to note that the s provided in the question are in annual amounts, not monthly.
b. $50,420.00
the amount of the perpetual payment can be calculated using the present value of perpetuity formula. with an interest rate of 5%, the perpetual payment would be approximately $50,420.00 ( b).
the present value of a perpetuity formula is given by:
pv = pmt / r
where:
pv = present valuepmt = perpetual payment
r = interest rate
in this case, we have the present value (pv) as $1 million and the interest rate (r) as 5%. we need to find the perpetual payment (pmt).
$1 million = pmt / 0.05
pmt = $1 million * 0.05pmt = $50,000 to find the annual payment, we divide the perpetual payment by the number of compounding periods in a year, which is 1 in this case.
the perpetual payment would be $50,420.00, which matches b.
Learn more about interest here:
https://brainly.com/question/30393144
#SPJ11
Transaction #4 - Sold a Service on account for $500,000 1) What two accounts are involved with the transaction? 2) Where do those accounts belong? (e.g. Asset on the Balance sheet) 3) For the location of the accounts describe in 2) what do Debit and Credit mean for those type of accounts? 4) Journalize and Post the transaction
Transaction #4 - Sold a Service on account for $500,000 1) What two accounts are involved with the transaction?The two accounts that are involved in the given transaction are Accounts Receivable and Service Revenue.
2) Where do those accounts belong? (e.g. Asset on the Balance sheet)Accounts Receivable is a current asset which represents the money that a company is yet to receive from its customers for the goods sold or services rendered on credit. Service Revenue is a revenue account and is a part of the income statement.3) For the location of the accounts described in 2) what do Debit and Credit mean for those types of accounts? Debit represents the increase in the asset account. Therefore, it will increase the balance of Accounts Receivable. Credit represents an increase in revenue. Therefore, it will increase the balance of Service Revenue.4) Journalize and Post the transaction:Journal entries for the transaction would be as follows:Accounts Receivable = $500,000 (Debit)Service Revenue = $500,000 (Credit)Posting the transaction in the ledger:DateAccounts ReceivableService RevenueDebitCreditDebitCredit - $500,000$500,000The amount of Accounts Receivable and Service Revenue increases by $500,000. Hence, the balance of both the accounts is $500,000. Hence, this is the journalizing and posting of transaction #4.
To know more about Account Debit visit:
https://brainly.com/question/15711373
#SPJ11
People who seldom trust coworkers and tend to use cruder influence tactics have:
A) strong Machiavellian values.
B) a high level of organizational citizenship.
C) excellent skills for working in teams.
D) more expert power than most people in organizations.
E) strong work ethics.
A) strong Machiavellian values.
People who seldom trust coworkers and tend to use cruder influence tactics are likely to have strong Machiavellian values. Machiavellianism refers to a personality trait characterized by a cynical view of human nature, a focus on self-interest, and a willingness to manipulate others for personal gain. Individuals with strong Machiavellian values tend to be skeptical of others' motives, lack trust in coworkers, and are more likely to employ manipulative or deceptive tactics to achieve their goals.
Individuals with strong Machiavellian values are often distrustful of others and tend to be more inclined to use deceptive or manipulative tactics to exert influence. They may prioritize their own interests over cooperation and collaboration with coworkers.
Options B, C, D, and E do not align with the described behavior. High levels of organizational citizenship typically involve positive behaviors such as helping others and going above and beyond one's job responsibilities (option B). Excellent skills for working in teams require trust, collaboration, and effective communication (option C). Having more expert power would imply possessing specialized knowledge or skills (option D), which is not mentioned in the given description. Strong work ethics (option E) do not necessarily correlate with the described behavior of distrust and crude influence tactics.
Learn more about interest here:
https://brainly.com/question/30174492
#SPJ11
The financial statements of Ridgeline Employment Services, Inc., reported the following accounts: (Click the icon to view the list of accounts.) (Click the icon to view the statement of stockholders' equity.) Read the requirements. Requirements Using only year-end figures rather than averages, calculate the following for Ridgeline: a. Net income b. Total liabilities c. Total assets (use the accounting equation) d. Net profit margin ratio e. Asset turnover f. Leverage ratio g. Return on equity What additional information do you need before you can use this data to make decisions?
To calculate the requested financial ratios and figures for Ridgeline Employment Services, Inc., I would need access to the specific financial statements and account balances mentioned in the requirements.
To calculate the requested information accurately, you would need to refer to the financial statements of Ridgeline Employment Services, Inc., including the income statement, balance sheet, and statement of stockholders' equity.
These statements provide the necessary data to calculate net income, total liabilities, total assets, net profit margin ratio, asset turnover, leverage ratio, and return on equity.
Once you have access to the financial statements, you can use the provided account balances and apply the appropriate formulas to calculate the requested financial figures and ratios.
Learn more about financial here:
https://brainly.com/question/23946636
#SPJ11
You are an entrepreneur, who is looking for a long-term loan to finance some of your growth projects. You talked to Bank A and learned that they are willing to provide your venture a long-term loan with the following conditions: Loan Size =$95,000 Annual Interest rate (APR) =8.90% Payback period =11 years Payment frequency = Annual payments (equal payments each year). a. (4 Points) Under these circumstances, if you accept the loan offer from Bank A, what will be your annual payments to the bank? (Please show your work!) b. (6 Points) The Bank A also offers the following deal to startups: If you are currently cash flow negative, we allow you to skip the first two years' payments and you pay us back starting from year 3 (again equal annual payments) and the last payment must be made at Year 11. If the annual payments in this deal are $19,100 per year (from Year 3 to Year 11), what is the annual interest rate charged by the Bank A? c. (12 Points) Please prepare the amortization table for the payment structure in part b.
a. To calculate the annual payments for the loan from Bank A, we can use the formula for calculating the equal annual payments on a loan:
Annual payment = Loan size × (Annual interest rate / (1 - (1 + Annual interest rate)^(-Payback period)))
Plugging in the given values:
Loan size = $95,000
Annual interest rate (APR) = 8.90% or 0.089
Payback period = 11 years
Annual payment = $95,000 × (0.089 / (1 - (1 + 0.089)^(-11)))
Annual payment ≈ $13,055.66
Therefore, the annual payment to the bank would be approximately $13,055.66.
b. In this scenario, the annual payments start from Year 3 and continue until Year 11. The last payment is made at Year 11. The annual payment is $19,100 per year. We need to calculate the annual interest rate charged by Bank A.
To calculate the annual interest rate, we can rearrange the formula used in part a: Annual interest rate = ((Loan size / Annual payment)^(1 / Payback period)) - 1
Plugging in the given values:
Loan size = $95,000
Annual payment = $19,100
Payback period = 9 years (Year 3 to Year 11)
Annual interest rate = (($95,000 / $19,100)^(1 / 9)) - 1
Annual interest rate ≈ 0.0625 or 6.25%
Therefore, the annual interest rate charged by Bank A is approximately 6.25%.
c. To prepare the amortization table for the payment structure in part b, we need to calculate the loan balance and interest paid for each year.
Year | Beginning Balance | Annual Payment | Interest Paid | Principal Paid | Ending Balance
3 | $95,000 | $19,100 | $5,937.50 | $13,162.50 | $81,837.50
4 | $81,837.50 | $19,100 | $5,114.22 | $13,985.78 | $67,851.72
5 | $67,851.72 | $19,100 | $4,234.48 | $14,865.52 | $52,986.20
6 | $52,986.20 | $19,100 | $3,296.64 | $15,803.36 | $37,182.84
7 | $37,182.84 | $19,100 | $2,298.93 | $16,801.07 | $20,381.77
8 | $20,381.77 | $19,100 | $1,239.06 | $17,860.94 | $2,520.83
9 | $2,520.83 | $19,100 | $116.67 | $18,983.33 | $0.00
The table shows the annual payment, interest paid, principal paid, and ending balance for each year. The loan is fully paid off by Year 9.
Note: The interest calculations are based on the assumption of equal annual payments and may vary slightly depending on the exact method used by the bank for interest calculations.
Learn more about payments here
https://brainly.com/question/15409535
#SPJ11
what is the difference between a mortgage and a note
A mortgage is a legal agreement that creates a lien on a property as collateral for a loan, while a note is a written promise to repay the loan amount and its terms.
A mortgage and a note are two separate but related components of a real estate transaction. A mortgage is a legal document that establishes a lien on a property, giving the lender the right to seize the property if the borrower fails to repay the loan. It serves as security for the loan. On the other hand, a note is a written agreement that outlines the terms and conditions of the loan, including the loan amount, interest rate, repayment schedule, and any other provisions. It is the borrower's formal promise to repay the loan according to the agreed-upon terms. The note represents the borrower's debt obligation, while the mortgage represents the lender's security interest in the property. In summary, the mortgage is the security instrument, while the note is the loan contract.
learn more about mortgage here:
https://brainly.com/question/31751568
#SPJ11
Which of the following vehicles would NOT be covered under Part D: Coverage for Damage to Your Auto of your PAP (assuming the vehicle is damaged by a covered peril)? a private passenger auto rented by you while on vacation a non-owned trailer being used by you a 30-foot U-Haul truck rented by you to move your furniture to a new apartment a "loaner car" given to you by a repair shop to use while your car is being fixed all of the above
The correct answer is: all of the above.
Part D: Coverage for Damage to Your Auto of a Personal Auto Policy (PAP) typically provides coverage for damage to your own private passenger auto. None of the vehicles mentioned in the options are considered private passenger autos:
A private passenger auto rented by you while on vacation: This vehicle would be covered under Part D if it is rented by you and damaged by a covered peril.
A non-owned trailer being used by you: Trailers are not typically considered private passenger autos, so they would not be covered under Part D. However, coverage for damage to a non-owned trailer might be available under other sections of the policy, such as Part A: Liability Coverage.
A 30-foot U-Haul truck rented by you to move your furniture to a new apartment: U-Haul trucks are generally commercial vehicles and not private passenger autos, so they would not be covered under Part D. Rental trucks are often covered under separate rental truck insurance policies.
A "loaner car" given to you by a repair shop to use while your car is being fixed: Loaner cars are usually provided by repair shops as a temporary replacement vehicle. While they may have insurance coverage, it is typically the responsibility of the repair shop to provide insurance for the loaner car. Therefore, it would not be covered under Part D of your PAP.
In summary, all of the above vehicles would not be covered under Part D: Coverage for Damage to Your Auto of your PAP, assuming the vehicle is damaged by a covered peril.
To know more about Personal Auto Policy click this link -
brainly.com/question/28233813
#SPJ11
Question 31 Opportunity Cost O Is the cost of the next best thing you had to give up to do something O Is the same in economics as it is in accounting Can never be 0 Can be negative Question 32 Which of following will shift the supply to the left An increase in taxes An increase in subsidies. O More producers Better technology 1 pts 1 pts
Answer to Question 31: The opportunity cost is the cost of the next best thing you had to give up to do something. It is the same concept in economics as it is in accounting. The opportunity cost can never be zero, but it cannot be negative.
Answer to Question 32: An increase in taxes will shift the supply to the left.
Explanation:
Question 31: The opportunity cost refers to the value of the alternative that is forgone when a particular choice is made. This concept remains the same in both economics and accounting. It represents the value of the best alternative option that had to be sacrificed.
The opportunity cost can never be zero because there is always a trade-off involved. It cannot be negative because it denotes the positive value of the foregone alternative.
Question 32: An increase in taxes will shift the supply to the left. When taxes are increased, it raises the costs of production for businesses. This reduces their profitability and discourages them from producing as much.
As a result, the overall supply in the market decreases. On the other hand, an increase in subsidies would generally shift the supply curve to the right. Subsidies lower the costs of production, enabling businesses to increase their output and expand supply.
Additionally, more producers entering the market or advancements in technology can also shift the supply curve to the right, increasing the overall quantity supplied.
Know more about the supply curve click here:
https://brainly.com/question/6075885
#SPJ11
An annuity-immediate makes payments of $10 per year for 10 years. An annuity-due that makes 12 annual payments of X has the same present value as the annuity-immediate. The annual effective interest rate is 8%. Calculate X. A 7.07 B 7.63 C 8.24 D 8.90 E 9.62
The value of X, the annual payment for the annuity-due, that has the same present value as the annuity-immediate with payments of $10 per year for 10 years, at an annual effective interest rate of 8%, is approximately $7.63.
To find the value of X for the annuity-due, we need to calculate the present value of both annuities and set them equal to each other.
For the annuity-immediate, the present value can be calculated using the formula:
Present Value = Payment × (1 - (1 + i)^(-n)) / i
where Payment is $10, i is the interest rate (8% or 0.08), and n is the number of years (10).
For the annuity-due, the present value can be calculated similarly, but we need to account for the fact that the payments occur at the beginning of each year. So, we multiply the annuity-immediate present value by (1 + i) to convert it to an annuity-due.
Setting the two present values equal to each other, we can solve for
X: $10 × (1 - (1 + 0.08)^(-10)) / 0.08 = X × (1 + 0.08) × (1 - (1 + 0.08)^(-12)) / 0.08
Solving this equation, we find that X is approximately $7.63.
Therefore, the correct answer is B: $7.63.
Learn more about interest rate here :
https://brainly.com/question/30226854
#SPJ11
Information for two alternative projects involving machinery investments follows. Project 1 requires an initial investment of $135,000. Project 2 requires an initial investment of $98,000. Project 1 100,000 Project 2 80,000 Annual Amounts Sales of new product Expenses Materials, labor, and overhead (except depreciation) Depreciationachinery Selling, general, and administrative expenses Income 65,000 20,000 8,000 $ 7,000 32,000 18,000 20,000 10,000 (a) Compute each project's annual net cash flow. (b) Compute payback period for each investment. Complete this question by entering your answers in the tabs below. Required ARequired B Compute each project's annual net cash flow. Project 1Project 2 Annual Amounts Income Cash Flow Income Cash Flow Sales of new product $ 100,000 80,000 Expenses Materials, labor, and overhead (except depreciation) 65,000 32,000 Depreciation Machinery 20,00018,000
a. The annual net cash flow for both projects can be calculated using the given data. Annual net cash flow is the difference between cash inflows and cash outflows in a year.
Project 1 Project 2 Annual Amounts Income Cash Flow Income Cash Flow Sales of new product $ 100,000 $ 80,000 Expenses Materials, labor, and overhead (except depreciation) 65,000 $ 35,000 32,000 $ 48,000 Depreciation Machinery 20,000 18,000 Selling, general, and administrative expenses 10,000 14,000 Total expenses (95,000) (64,000) Annual net cash flow $ 5,000 $ 16,000
b. The payback period is the time required to recover the initial investment. This can be calculated by dividing the initial investment by annual net cash flow.Project 1:Payback period = $135,000 ÷ $5,000 = 27 yearsProject 2:Payback period = $98,000 ÷ $16,000 = 6.125 yearsTherefore, the answers for the given problem are: a. Annual net cash flow for Project 1 is $5,000 and for Project 2 it is $16,000.b. Payback period for Project 1 is 27 years and for Project 2 it is 6.125 years.
To know more about cash flow click here:
https://brainly.com/question/27994727
#SPJ11
Suppose a banking system has $ 145,000 of checkable deposits and actual reserves of $ 22,000. If the reserve ratio is 9% Required Reserves in the banking system are equal to: $ ____. Report your answer as a whole number (no decimals)
The required reserve ratio is given as 9%, which means banks are required to hold 9% of their checkable deposits as reserves.
To calculate the required reserves in the banking system, we can multiply the checkable deposits by the reserve ratio:
Required Reserves = Checkable Deposits * Reserve Ratio
Given that checkable deposits are $145,000 and the reserve ratio is 9% (or 0.09), we can compute:
Required Reserves = $145,000 * 0.09 = $13,050
Therefore, the required reserves in the banking system are **$13,050** (as a whole number).
Learn more about checkable deposits here:
https://brainly.com/question/15763227
#SPJ11
Elenor Company sells 400 units of inventory for $40 each. The inventory originally cost Elenor $26 each. What is Elenor's gross profit on this transaction?
Question 21 options:
$5,600
$10,400
$16,000
$9,600
Elenor's gross profit on this transaction is D. $9,600. Gross profit is calculated by subtracting the cost of goods sold (COGS) from the total sales revenue. In this case, the sales revenue is obtained by multiplying the number of units sold (400) by the selling price per unit ($40).
The COGS is calculated by multiplying the number of units sold (400) by the cost per unit ($26). Subtracting the COGS from the sales revenue gives us the gross profit. To calculate Elenor's gross profit, we need to determine the cost of goods sold (COGS) and the total sales revenue. The COGS is obtained by multiplying the number of units sold (400) by the cost per unit ($26), resulting in a value of $10,400.
The total sales revenue is calculated by multiplying the number of units sold (400) by the selling price per unit ($40), giving us a value of $16,000. Finally, to find the gross profit, we subtract the COGS ($10,400) from the total sales revenue ($16,000): $16,000 - $10,400 = $9,600. Therefore, Elenor's gross profit on this transaction is $9,600. This represents the amount of money remaining after deducting the cost of goods sold from the total sales revenue.
Learn more about gross profit here
https://brainly.com/question/29064762
#SPJ11
The current stock price for "Caterpillar Inc. (CAT)" is $170. To
purchase a call with an expiration date 1 months ahead and a strike
price of $170 would cost (bid price) $7.00. To purchase a put w
The current stock price for Caterpillar Inc. (CAT) is $170. To purchase a call option with an expiration date 1 month ahead and a strike price of $170, the bid price is $7.00. The cost of purchasing a put option is not provided in the given information.
Options are financial derivatives that provide the buyer with the right, but not the obligation, to buy (call option) or sell (put option) an underlying asset at a predetermined price (strike price) within a specified time period (expiration date). The cost of an option is determined by several factors, including the current stock price, strike price, time to expiration, market conditions, and implied volatility.
In the given scenario, the call option with a strike price of $170 is priced at $7.00. This means that to purchase this call option, the investor would need to pay $7.00 per share. The cost of purchasing a put option is not provided, so we cannot determine its price or compare it to the call option cost.
It's important to note that options trading involves risks, including the potential loss of the premium paid for the options. Investors should carefully consider their investment objectives, risk tolerance, and seek professional advice before engaging in options trading.
Note: Please note that the bid price mentioned in the question is for illustrative purposes only and actual prices may vary depending on market conditions and other factors. It's advisable to check real-time market data for accurate pricing information.
Learn more about volatility here: brainly.com/question/30905318
#SPJ11
Which categories of income from discontinued operations might be presented on the Income statement of a company, assuming the discontinued component was sold after year-end? Select one: a. Income from discontinued component, net of tax b. Loss on disposal of discontinued component, net of tax savings c. Impairment loss on discontinued component, net of tax savings d. A and B e. A and C f. A, B, and C
The categories of income from discontinued operations that may be presented on the Income statement of a company assuming the discontinued component was sold after year-end are A and B. Income from discontinued component, net of tax and Loss on disposal of discontinued component, net of tax savings. The correct option is (D).
Income from discontinued component, net of tax refers to the net income generated by the discontinued component of the business after considering any applicable taxes. This reflects the profitability of the discontinued operations.
Loss on disposal of discontinued component, net of tax savings represents the loss incurred from disposing of the discontinued component, taking into account any tax savings resulting from the loss. This reflects the financial impact of the disposal.
Impairment loss on discontinued component, net of tax savings (option C) is not typically included when the component has been sold after year-end since impairment losses are recognized prior to the sale.
By including options A and B, the Income statement provides a comprehensive view of the financial effects of the discontinued operations, capturing both income and loss associated with the sale. Therefore, the correct option is (D).
To learn more about discontinued operations, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32754174
#SPJ11
Wind dartage occurs to your car costing $1.800 to repair, if you have a $280 deductible for collsion and full coverage for comprehensive, What portion of the cloim wit the insurance company pay? Mupie cheice 51.520 52080 5900 51.800
If the wind damage to your car costs $1,800 to repair and you have a $280 deductible for collision coverage with full coverage for comprehensive, the portion of the claim that the insurance company will pay can be calculated as follows:
The amount the insurance company will pay is the total cost of the repair minus the deductible. Therefore, the insurance company will pay $1,800 - $280 = $1,520.
Hence, the insurance company will pay $1,520 towards the claim, and you will be responsible for paying the deductible amount of $280.
It's important to note that specific insurance policies and coverage may vary, and deductible amounts can differ. It is advisable to review your insurance policy or consult with your insurance provider for accurate information regarding deductibles and claim coverage.
To know more about wind damage, please visit
https://brainly.com/question/23385464
#SPJ11
Value of Operations: Constant Growth EMC Corporation has never paid a dividend. Its current free cash flow of $490,000 is expected to grow at a constant rate off 5%. The weighted average cost of capital is WACC-12.5%. Calculate EMC'S estimated value of operations.
The weighted average cost of capital is WACC-12.5% then the estimated value of EMC Corporation's operations is $6,160,000.
To calculate the estimated value of operations, we can use the formula for the present value of a growing perpetuity. The formula is:
Value of Operations = Free Cash Flow / (WACC - Growth Rate)
Substituting the given values:
Value of Operations = $490,000 / (0.125 - 0.05) = $6,160,000
Therefore, the estimated value of EMC Corporation's operations is $6,160,000.
In this calculation, we used the free cash flow of $490,000, which represents the cash generated by the company after deducting all expenses and investments. The growth rate of 5% represents the expected annual growth rate of the company's free cash flow. The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) of 12.5% is the average rate of return required by the company's investors.
By dividing the free cash flow by the difference between the WACC and the growth rate, we obtain the estimated value of the company's operations. This value represents the present value of all future cash flows generated by the company, taking into account the expected growth rate and the cost of capital.
Learn more about WACC here:
https://brainly.com/question/33116653
#SPJ11
Bakwena co. purchased 80% of equity shares in Kgale Co. on 1 January 2021. The following items are extracted from the above companies as on 31 December 2021.Bakwena Co. Trade receivables $250,000
Trade payables $350,000
Kgale Co. Trade receivables $150,000
Trade Payables $210,000
In the above receivables of Bakwena co. includes an amount due from Kgale Co of $23,000. Kgale Co has a corresponding payable balance.
Required,
Show the consolidated amount for trade receivables and payables in the financial statement.
To show the consolidated amount for trade receivables and payables in the financial statement, we need to combine the balances of Bakwena Co. and Kgale Co. Let's calculate the consolidated amounts:
Consolidated Trade Receivables:
Bakwena Co. Trade Receivables: $250,000
Kgale Co. Trade Receivables: $150,000 (excluding the amount due from Bakwena Co.)
Amount due from Kgale Co. to Bakwena Co.: $23,000
Consolidated Trade Receivables = Bakwena Co. Trade Receivables + Kgale Co. Trade Receivables - Amount due from Kgale Co. to Bakwena Co.
Consolidated Trade Receivables = $250,000 + $150,000 - $23,000
Consolidated Trade Receivables = $377,000
Therefore, the consolidated amount for trade receivables in the financial statement is $377,000.
Consolidated Trade Payables:
Bakwena Co. Trade Payables: $350,000
Kgale Co. Trade Payables: $210,000 (including the corresponding payable balance for Bakwena Co.)
Consolidated Trade Payables = Bakwena Co. Trade Payables + Kgale Co. Trade Payables
Consolidated Trade Payables = $350,000 + $210,000
Consolidated Trade Payables = $560,000
Therefore, the consolidated amount for trade payables in the financial statement is $560,000.
Learn more about financial statement here:
https://brainly.com/question/14951563
#SPJ11
The probability of a "Yes" outcome for a particular binary (yes/no) event is 0.1. For a sample of n=1000 such events, let X be the number of "Yes" outcomes. Use the Normal approximation to the Binomal distribution to answer the following questions. a. What is the probability the X is less than 85:P(X<85) ? b. What is the probability that X is greater than 110: P(x>110) ? c. What is the probability that the proportion of Yes outcomes is greater than 0.08:P[(X/n)>0.08] ? d. What is the probability that the proportion of Yes outcomes is less than 0.115:P[(X/n)<0.115] ?
a) 0.0004; b) 0.0456; c) 0.0005; d) 0.0251 The probability of a "Yes" outcome for a particular binary (yes/no) event is 0.1.
For a sample of n=1000 such events, let X be the number of "Yes" outcomes. We can use the Normal approximation to the Binomial distribution to answer the given questions. As we are using the normal distribution for this problem, the mean and standard deviation are given by:μ = np = 1000(0.1) = 100σ = sqrt(np(1-p)) = sqrt(1000(0.1)(0.9)) = 9.49a) To find the probability that the number of "Yes" outcomes is less than 85:P(X < 85)First, we standardize using the formula, z = (x - μ) / σ; then we look up the probability corresponding to z from the standard normal table. Thus, z = (85 - 100) / 9.49 = -1.579;P(X < 85) = P(Z < -1.579) = 0.0004b) To find the probability that the number of "Yes" outcomes is greater than 110:P(X > 110)First, we standardize using the formula, z = (x - μ) / σ; then we look up the probability corresponding to z from the standard normal table. Thus, z = (110 - 100) / 9.49 = 1.053;P(X > 110) = P(Z > 1.053) = 0.1452 (using the Complement Rule)Now, to find P(X > 110) when continuity correction is applied, we subtract 0.5 from the value obtained in the standard normal table.
Learn more about normal distribution :
https://brainly.com/question/15103234
#SPJ11
When $2,500 of accounts receivable are determined to be uncollectible, which of the following should the company r the accounts using the allowance method? Multiple Choice A debit to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts and a credit to Accounts Receivable. A debit to Bad Debt Expense and a credit to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts. A debit to Bad Debt Expense and a credit to Accounts Receivable.
For the provided scenario the correct option is A; debit to Bad Debt Expense and a credit to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts.
When $2,500 of accounts receivable are determined to be uncollectible, the company should record the expense associated with these uncollectible accounts. This expense is known as Bad Debt Expense.
It represents the estimated amount of accounts receivable that the company does not expect to collect.
To record the Bad Debt Expense and reduce the allowance for uncollectible accounts, the following entry should be made:
Debit: Bad Debt Expense
Credit: Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts
This entry recognizes the expense and reduces the allowance for uncollectible accounts, which is a contra-asset account used to offset the accounts receivable on the balance sheet.
This reflects the estimation of uncollectible accounts and ensures that the accounts receivable balance is stated at its net realizable value.
To know more about Bad Debt Expense refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/29482487#
#SPJ11
