Answer and Explanation:
a. The calculation of the robert qualified business income is shown below:
Since robert is the sole shareholder and CEO of the ABC Inc and earned the income of $325,000 after subtracting the deduction of $100,000 salary
Also their is a dividend of $250,000
But the qualified business income should be equivalent to the net income i.e. $325,000
b. In the case when there is $200,000 so the net income would be decreased by $100,000
Now the qualified business income is
= $325,000 - $100,000
= $225,000
You are the manager for a Pizza restaurant. Currently, your restaurant pre-makes pizzas that are ordered the most to increase the number of pizzas being made on time for your customers. Over time, many customers have complained that their pizzas were cold upon delivery and not fresh, requesting refunds or remakes of their pizza. Your location is losing money from these wasteful practices, therefore, you want to create a Kanban based on the following basic principles:
1. A later process tells an earlier process when new items are required. This means that unless a customer orders a pizza, no pizzas will be made. Pull!
2. The earlier process produces what the later process needs.
3. No Items can be made without a Kanban card (order request). This allows the process to be transparent so everyone knows what is going on.
4. Defects are not passed on to the next stage.Create a Kanban board for your pizza company that delivers. You must have 4-6 columns with headings for each.
Required:
Decide what your Kanban cards will represent. Set Rules for your Kanban.
Answer:
RULES OF KANBAN BOARD
Yellow – A Slice of Pizza
• Blue – Full Pizza
• Green – Soda
• Green jumps from Queue to Pack only
• No pizza will be delivered without quality check
• Pizza will return to the backlog, if it is found with inferior quality during quality check
• A unique token number will be given for each order
• Orders with multiple pizza or a combo order will be given same unique token number
• Pizza will be prepared in the order of token number
• Token number will include initials “C” for carry out, “D” for dine in
THE ATTACHED IMAGE HAS THE REPRESENTATIONS OF KANBAN CARDS.
Orange Corporation has gathered the following data on a proposed investment project: Investment in depreciable equipment $ 520,000 Annual net cash flows $ 78,000 Life of the equipment 10 years Salvage value $ 0 Discount rate 6 % The company uses straight-line depreciation on all equipment. Assume cash flows occur uniformly throughout a year except for the initial investment. The payback period for the investment would be: Multiple Choice 1.0 years 0.2 years 4.7 years 6.7 years
Answer:
6.7 years
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows,
Investment = $520,000
Net cash flow = $78,000
Life of equipment = 10 years
So, we can calculate the payback period for investment by using following formula,
Payback period for investment = Initial Investment ÷ Net cash flow
= $520,000 ÷ $78,000
= 6.67 years or 6.7 years
Net present value LO P3
A new operating system for an existing machine is expected to cost $820,000 and have a useful life of six years. The system yields an incremental after-tax income of $240,000 each year after deducting its straight-line depreciation. The predicted salvage value of the system is $100,000.
A machine costs $560,000, has a $56,000 salvage value, is expected to last eight years, and will generate an after-tax income of $150,000 per year after straight-line depreciation.
Assume the company requires a 12% rate of return on its investments. Compute the net present value of each potential investment. (PV of $1, FV of $1, PVA of $1, and FVA of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.)
a. A new operating system for an existing machine is expected to cost $820,000 and have a useful life of six years. The system yields an incremental after-tax income of $240,000 each year after deducting its straight-line depreciation. The predicted salvage value of the system is $100,000. (Round your answers to the nearest whole dollar.)
b. A machine costs $560,000, has a $56,000 salvage value, is expected to last eight years, and will generate an after-tax income of $150,000 per year after straight-line depreciation. (Round your answers to the nearest whole dollar.)
Answer:
a. initial outlay = -$820,000
net cash flows years 1 - 5 = $240,000
net cash flow year 6 = $340,000
discount rate = 12%
using a financial calculator:
NPV = $217,400.87
IRR = 20.55%
b. initial outlay = -$560,000
net cash flows years 1 - 7 = $150,000
net cash flow year 8 = $206,000
discount rate = 12%
using a financial calculator:
NPV = $207,763.43
IRR = 21.65%
g Earnings per share Financial statement data for the years 20Y5 and 20Y6 for Black Bull Inc. follow: 20Y5 20Y6 Net income $1,687,000 $2,632,000 Preferred dividends $40,000 $40,000 Average number of common shares outstanding 90,000 shares 120,000 shares a. Determine the earnings per share for 20Y5 and 20Y6. Round to two decimal places. 20Y5 20Y6 Earnings per Share $fill in the blank 1 $fill in the blank 2 b. Is the change in the earnings per share from 20Y5 to 20Y6 favorable or unfavorable
Answer:
a) EPS
2005 Earnings per share=$18.3
2005 Earnings per share=$21.6
b) EPS Variance = $3.3 favorable
Explanation:
Earnings per share(EPS) is the total earnings attributable to ordinary shareholders divided by the number of units of common stock
Earnings attributable to ordinary shareholders= Net income after tax - preference dividend
Earnings per share = (Net income after tax - preference dividend)/Number of shares
2005 Earnings per share = $1,687,000- $40,000/90,000 shares=$18.3
2006 Earnings per share=($2,632,000- $40,000)/120,000 shares=$21.6
2005 Earnings per share=$18.3
2006 Earnings per share=$21.6
EPS Variance
Comparing the EPS the Earning per share in 2006 is higher than that of 2005. Hence, the variance = 21.6-18.3= $3.3 favorable
EPS Variance = $3.3 favorable
Murray Motor Company wants you to calculate its cost of common stock. During the next 12 months, the company expects to pay dividends (D1) of $1.30 per share, and the current price of its common stock is $40 per share. The expected growth rate is 5 percent. a. Compute the cost of retained earnings (Ke). (Do not round intermediate calculations. Input your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)
Modigliani and Miller's world of no taxes. Roxy Broadcasting, Inc. is currently a low-levered firm with a debt-to-equity ratio of /. The company wants to increase its leverage to / for debt to equity. If the current return on assets is % and the cost of debt is %, what are the current and the new costs of equity if Roxy operates in a world of no taxes? What is the current cost of equity if Roxy operates in a world of no taxes?
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
For Current
Total assets = Debt + Equity
= 2 + 7 9
Now
Debt ratio = Debt ÷ Total assets = 2 ÷ 9
Equity ratio = Equity ÷ Total assets = 7 ÷ 9
Return on assets = Cost of debt × Debt ratio + Cost of equity × Equity ratio
11% = 9% × 2 ÷ 9 + Cost of equity × 7 ÷ 9
Cost of equity × 7 ÷ 9 = 11% - (9% × 2 ÷ 9)
Cost of equity = ( 11% - (9% × 2 ÷ 9) ) × 9 ÷ 7
= 12%
For New
Total assets = Debt + Equity = 7 + 2 = 9
Debt ratio = Debt ÷ Total assets = 7 ÷ 9
Equity ratio = Equity ÷ Total assets = 2 ÷9
Return on assets = Cost of debt × Debt ratio + Cost of equity × Equity ratio
11% = 9% × 7 ÷ 9 + Cost of equity × 2 ÷ 9
Cost of equity × 2 ÷ 9 = 11% - (9% × 7 ÷ 9)
Cost of equity = ( 11% - (9% × 7 ÷ 9) ) × 9 ÷ 2
= 18%
The Smith family wants to relocate to a neighborhood with better schools before their three-year-old goes to kindergarten. They talked with Byron about properties he has for sale in neighborhoods they would like to live in. They also mentioned to Byron that they both work and may need someone to help with in-home care for their child. Byron gave them Taylor’s name to call about childcare. The Smiths also said they were having a hard time getting loan approval, so Byron suggested that they call Travis. Which best describes the jobs performed by Byron, Taylor, and Travis?
a) Byron is a Customer Service Representative, Taylor is a Child Care Worker, and Travis is a Loan Counselor.
b) Byron is a Real Estate Manager, Taylor is a Nanny, and Travis is a Loan Counselor.
c) Byron is a Real Estate Manager, Taylor is a Preschool Teacher, and Travis is a Customer Service Representative.
d) Byron is a Home Counselor, Taylor is a Nanny, and Travis is a Property Manager.
Answer:
the correct answer is B)
Explanation:
Given that they spoke to Byron about properties that he wants to sell, that means he is a Real Estate Manager. Taylor came up because they needed in-home care. That makes Taylor a Nanny because Nannies are professionals who take care of babies in their own homes.
Loan counselors have no other major business besides advising people on issues relating to taking up a loan. Therefore that makes Travis a loan Counselor.
Cheers
An analysis of stockholders' equity of Hahn Corporation as of January 1, 2020, is as follows: Common stock, par value $20; authorized 100,000 shares; issued and outstanding 90,000 shares $1,800,000 Additional Paid-in capital 900,000 Retained earnings 760,000 Total $3,460,000 During 2020, the company entered into the following transactions: Acquired 2,500 shares of its stock for $75,000. Sold 2,000 treasury shares at $35 per share. Sold the remaining treasury shares at $20 per share. Assuming no other equity transactions occurred during 2020, what should Hahn report at December 31, 2020, as total additional paid-in capital?
Answer:
$905,000
Explanation:
Calculation to determine what should Hahn report at December 31, 2020, as total additional paid-in capital
Total Additional Paid-in capital=$900,000 + (2,000 × $5) –[(2,500-2,000)× $10]
Total Additional Paid-in capital=$900,000 + (2,000 × $5) – (500 × $10)
Total Additional Paid-in capital=$900,000 + $10,000-$5,000
Total Additional Paid-in capital = $905,000
Therefore The amount that Hahn should report at December 31, 2020, as total additional paid-in capital is $905,000
"Minimum wage laws cause unemployment because the legal minimum wage is set" 9) A) above the market wage, causing labor demand to be greater than labor supply. B) below the market wage, causing labor demand to be greater than labor supply. C) too low. D) below the market wage, causing labor demand to be less than labor supply. E) above the market wage, causing labor demand to be less than labor supply.
Answer: E) above the market wage, causing labor demand to be less than labor supply.
Explanation:
Minimum wage simply refers to the lowest wage that employers can pay their workers. Minimum wage is a form of price floor which means that it's typically higher than the equilibrium or market wage.
In this case, since it's higher than the market wage, there'll be an increase in the supply of labor as those that are unemployed will be willing to work duw to the increase in the wage rate.
On the other hand, there'll be a reduction in the demand for labor as employers typically will want to reduce cost and won't be interested in employing more workers.
Therefore, the correct option is E
When converting net income to net cash provided (used) by operating activities under the indirect method increases in accounts receivable and increases in accrued liabilities are deducted. decreases in accounts payable and decreases in inventory are deducted. decreases in accounts receivable and increases in prepaid expenses are added. decreases in inventory and increases in accrued liabilities are added.
Answer:
Decrease in inventory and increases in accrued liabilities are added.
Explanation:
The following information pertains to Lightning Inc., at the end of December: Credit Sales $ 20,000 Accounts Payable 10,000 Accounts Receivable 11,800 Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts 400 credit Cash Sales 20,000 Lightning uses the aging method and estimates it will not collect 7% of accounts receivable not yet due, 20% of receivables up to 30 days past due, and 46% of receivables greater than 30 days past due. The accounts receivable balance of $11,800 consists of $7,500 not yet due, $2,300 up to 30 days past due, and $2,000 greater than 30 days past due. What is the appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense
Answer:
The appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense is $3,345.20.
Explanation:
The appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense can be calculated as follows:
Bad debt expense = (Percentage of accounts receivable not yet due it will not collect * Accounts receivable not yet due) + (Percentage of receivables up to 30 days past due it will not collect * Amount of receivables up to 30 days past due) + (Parentage of receivables of receivables greater than 30 days past due it will not collect * Amount of receivables greater than 30 days past due) - Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (credit) ……………………… (1)
Substituting the relevant values into equation (1), we have:
Bad debt expense = (7% * $7,500) + (20% + $2,300) + (46% * $2,000) - $400 = $3,345.20
Therefore, the appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense is $3,345.20.
The Foundational 15 (Static) [LO13-2, LO13-3, LO13-4, LO13-5, LO13-6] Skip to question [The following information applies to the questions displayed below.] Cane Company manufactures two products called Alpha and Beta that sell for $120 and $80, respectively. Each product uses only one type of raw material that costs $6 per pound. The company has the capacity to annually produce 100,000 units of each product. Its average cost per unit for each product at this level of activity are given below: Alpha Beta Direct materials $ 30 $ 12 Direct labor 20 15 Variable manufacturing overhead 7 5 Traceable fixed manufacturing overhead 16 18 Variable selling expenses 12 8 Common fixed expenses 15 10 Total cost per unit $ 100 $ 68 The company considers its traceable fixed manufacturing overhead to be avoidable, whereas its common fixed expenses are unavoidable and have been allocated to products based on sales dollars. Foundational 13-1 (Static) Required: 1. What is the total amount of traceable fixed manufacturing overhead for each of the two products
Answer:
Cane Company
Total traceable fixed manufacturing overhead:
Alpha = $1,600,000
Beta = $1,800,000
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Alpha Beta
Selling price per unit $120 $80
Direct materials $ 30 $ 12
Direct labor 20 15
Variable manufacturing overhead 7 5
Traceable fixed manufacturing overhead 16 18
Variable selling expenses 12 8
Common fixed expenses 15 10
Total cost per unit $ 100 $ 68
Total traceable fixed manufacturing overhead:
Alpha = $1,600,000 ($16 * 100,000)
Beta = $1,800,000 ($18 * 100,000)
Labeau Products, Ltd., of Perth, Australia, has $21,000 to invest. The company is trying to decide between two alternative uses for the funds as follows:
Invest in Invest in
Project X Project Y
Investment required $ 21,000 $ 21,000
Annual cash inflows $ 8,000
Single cash inflow at the end of 6 years $50,000
Life of the project 6 years 6 years
The company’s discount rate is 18%.
Required:
Determine the net present values. (Any cash outflows should be indicated by a minus sign.
Answer:
Project X = $6,980.82
Project Y = - $2,478.42
Explanation:
The Present value is the price today of future cash flows and is calculated as follows :
Project X
($21,000) CF 0
$8,000 CF 1
$8,000 CF 2
$8,000 CF 3
$8,000 CF 4
$8,000 CF 5
$8,000 CF 6
I/YR = 18%
Therefore, NPV is $6,980.82
Project Y
($21,000) CF 0
$0 CF 1
$0 CF 2
$0 CF 3
$0 CF 4
$0 CF 5
$50,000 CF 6
I/YR = 18%
Therefore, NPV is - $2,478.42
Super Clinics offers one service that has the following annual cost and utilization estimates: Variable cost per visit $ 10 Annual direct fixed costs $50,000 Allocation of overhead costs $20,000 Expected utilization 1,000 visits What price per visit must be set if the clinic wants to make an annual profit of $10,000 on the service? A. $ 70 B. $ 80 C. $ 90 D. $100 E. $110
Answer:
C. $ 90
Explanation:
Number of visits = 1,000
Variable cost = $10 × 1,000 = $10,000
Fixed cost = $50,000
Overhead cost = $20,000
Required profit = $10,000
So,Total Cost = Variable Cost+ Fixed Cost+ Overhead Cost
= $10,000 + $50,000 + $20,000
= $80,000
Now, Price per Visit = (Total Cost+ Required Profit) ÷ Number of visits
= ($80,000 + $10,000) ÷ 1,000
= $90,000 ÷ 1,000
= $90
One thousand adults live in Milltown. Every day, they all leave work at 4:30 p.m., arrive home at exactly 5:00 p.m., and go to bed at 9:00 p.m. Three fundraisers, Alpha, Beta, and Charlie, have targeted Milltown's population. To get a donation, they must call Milltown's residents after they get home from work but before they go to bed. Because the charities raising the funds are identical, the first to call a willing donor will get the donation. Beta's manager has decided that the best time to call is 7:00 p.m. because it is exactly halfway between 5:00 p.m. and bedtime. Which of the following is true?
a. Alpha and Charlie will also make calls at 7:00 p.m.
b. Beta's manager did not choose wisely.
c. Alpha and Charlie will divide up the rest of the market, with one choosing to call at 6:00 p.m. and the other at 8:00 p.m.
d. Beta is certain to generate the most donations.
Answer:
b. Beta's manager did not choose wisely.
Explanation:
If you know that you are competing with identical charities, calling later will only result in fewer donations. The calls should start at 5 PM, and probably the three fundraisers will start calling at the same time. The only advantage that they can have depends on reaching the adults first, so the time of the calls is important.
oneycutt Co. is comparing two different capital structures. Plan I would result in 39,000 shares of stock and $108,000 in debt. Plan II would result in 33,000 shares of stock and $324,000 in debt. The interest rate on the debt is 7 percent. a. Ignoring taxes, compare both of these plans to an all-equity plan assuming that EBIT will be $160,000. The all-equity plan would result in 42,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the EPS for each of these plans
Answer:
All equity plan:
EPS = $160,000 / 42,000 = $3.81
Plan I:
EPS = [$160,000 - ($108,000 x 7%)] / 39,000 = $152,440 / 39,000 = $3.91
Plan II:
EPS = [$160,000 - ($324,000 x 7%)] / 33,000 = $137,320 / 33,000 = $4.16
Plan II is better since the resulting EPS is higher than the other alternatives.
The risk-free rate of return is 9.0%, the expected rate of return on the market portfolio is 14%, and the stock of Xyrong Corporation has a beta coefficient of 2.0. Xyrong pays out 50% of its earnings in dividends, and the latest earnings announced were $20 per share. Dividends were just paid and are expected to be paid annually. You expect that Xyrong will earn an ROE of 18% per year on all reinvested earnings forever
a. What is the intrinsic value of a share of Xyrong stock? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.) Intrinsic valueS
b-1. If the market price of a share is currently $108, and you expect the market price to be equal to the intrinsic value one year from now, calculate the price of the share after one year from now. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
Price
b-2. What is your expected one-year holding-period return on Xyrong stock? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
Expected one-year holding-period return
Answer:
$109
$118.81
18.26%
Explanation:
Intrinsic value can be determined using the constant growth dividend model
according to the constant dividend growth model
price = d1 / (r - g)
d1 = next dividend to be paid
r = cost of equity
g = growth rate
dividend, growth rate and cost of equity are not given and they have to be calculated
growth rate = retention rate x ROE
Retention rate = 1 - payout ratio = 1 - 0.5 = 0.5 = 50%
0.5 x 18% = 9%
According to the capital asset price model: cost of equity = risk free + beta x (market rate of return - risk free rate of return)
9% + 2x (14% - 9%) = 19%
dividend = payout ratio x earnings per share
0.5 x $20 = $10
Intrinsic value = [tex]\frac{10( 1 + 0.09)}{0.19 - 0.09}[/tex] = $109
Stock price in a year
[tex]\frac{10(1 + 0.9)^{2} }{0.19 - 0.09}[/tex] = 118.81
(dividend return + price return)
price return is the return on investment as a result of appreciation or depreciation of share price
Dividend return is the return on investment from dividend earned
price return = price at the end of the year - price at the beginning of the year
Computing Straight-Line and Double-Declining-Balance Depreciation
On January 2, 2016, Dechow Company purchases a machine to help manufacture a part for one of its key products. The machine cost $306,180 and is estimated to have a useful life of six years, with an expected salvage value of $32,760.
Compute each year's depreciation expense for 2016 and 2017 for each of the following depreciation methods.
a. Straight-line.
b. Double-declining balance.
Answer:
a.
2016 = $45,570
2017 = $45,570
b.
2016 = $102,080
2017 = $68,014
Explanation:
Straight line method
Straight line method charges a fixed amount of depreciation
Depreciation Charge = (Cost - Salvage Value) ÷ Estimated useful life
2016
Depreciation Charge = $45,570
2017
Depreciation Charge = $45,570
Double declining method
Double declining method charges a higher amount of depreciation at the early years and less in the later years
Depreciation Charge = 2 x SLDP x BVSLDP
2016
Depreciation Charge = 2 x 16.67 % x $306,180 = $102,080
2017
Depreciation Charge = 2 x 16.67 % x ($306,180 - $102,080) = $68,014
Mackenzie Company has a price of $38 and will issue a dividend of $ 2.00 next year. It has a beta of 1.3, the risk-free rate is 5.2%, and the market risk premium is estimated to be 4.9%. a. Estimate the equity cost of capital for Mackenzie. b. Under the CGDM, at what rate do you need to expect Mackenzie's dividends to grow to get the same equity cost of capital as in part (a)?
Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation of the equity cost of capital is shown below:
As we know that
Expected rate of return = Risk free rate + Risk Premium × Beta
= 5.20% + 4.90% × 1.30
= 11.57%
b. Now the rate at which the dividend should be grow is
Value of the stock = Expected dividend ÷ (cost of equity - growth rate)
$38 = $2 ÷ (11.57% - growth rate)
so, the growth rate is 6.31%
Skyler Manufacturing recorded operating data for its shoe division for the year. Sales $4,500,000 Contribution margin 500,000 Controllable fixed costs 200,000 Average total operating assets 900,000 How much is controllable margin for the year
Answer:
Controllable margin= $300,000
Controllable margin in %= 33.3%
Explanation:
Controllable margin is sales revenue less controllable variable costs and fixed cost.
Controllable margin= Sales revenue - controllable variable cost - controllable fixed costs
Controllable margin= contribution margin - fixed costs
= 500,000 - 200,000= 300,000
Controllable margin in %= 300,000/900,000 × 100 =33.3%
Controllable margin in %= 33.3
Snowy Mountain Financial Advisors is a network of branches providing investing and financial advising services. It discloses that it uses a balanced scorecard with the following six performance measures.
Required:
Link the measures to the perspective number(s) of the balanced scorecard.
Perspective
1. Financial
2. Customer
3. Learning and growth
4. Internal business processed
Procedure Measure Prespective number
Market share
Regulatory compliance
New cutomer refresh from existing customer
Order errors
Brach profit
Answer:
Financial : market share and Branch profit Customer : New customer referrals from existing customer Learning and Growth : Not available on the score card Internal business processed : Regulatory compliance, Order errorsExplanation:
Linking the measures to the perspective number(s) of the balanced scorecard
Financial : market share and Branch profit Customer : New customer referrals from existing customer Learning and Growth : Not available on the score card Internal business processed : Regulatory compliance, Order errorsThe Market share is simply a portion of the general market that is been controlled by a product or organization
New customer referrals form existing customers is one way a company can get new and returning customers to patronize them
Regulatory compliance and order errors is been handled by the management of the business
Norris Company has the following capital structure: Common stock, $1 par, 100,000 shares issued and outstanding. On October 1, 2020, the company declared a 5% common stock dividend when the market price of the common stock was $15 per share. The stock dividend will be distributed on October 15, 2020, to stockholders on record on October 10, 2020. Upon declaration of the stock dividend, Norris Company would record:
Answer: Debit to retained earnings of $75000
Explanation:
Based on the information given, the stock dividend will be:
= 100,000 shares x 5%
= 100000 × 0.05
= 5,000 shares.
Since the market price is $15 per share, then the retained earnings will be:
= $15 × 5000
= $75000
Stock dividend distributable will be:
= 5,000 x $1
= $5000
Paid in capital in excess of par = $75000 - $5000 = $70000
The journal entry will be:
Debit Retained earnings $75000
Credit Stock dividend distributable $5,000
Credit Paid in capital in excess of par $70000
Calculate amortization expense
In early January, Burger Mania acquired 100% of the common stock of the Crispy Taco restaurant chain. The purchase price allocation included the following items: $4 million, patent; $5 million, trademark considered to have an indefinite useful life; and $6 million, goodwill. Burger Mania's policy is to amortize intangible assets with finite useful lives using the straight-line method, no residual value, and a five-year service life.
What is the total amount of amortization expense that would appear in Burger Mania's income statement for the first year ended December 31 related to these items? (Enter your answers in dollars, not in millions.
Answer: $800,000
Explanation:
The total amount of amortization expense that would appear in Burger Mania's income statement for the first year ended December 31 related to these items will be:
Ammortization value = Patent value / Useful life
= $4,000,000 / 5
= $800,000
Therefore, the ammortization value is $800,000 per year.
Fultz Company has accumulated the following budget data for the year 2017. 1 Sales: 31,450 units, unit selling price $85. Cost of one unit of finished goods: direct materials 1 pound at $5 per J pound, direct labor 3 hours at $13 per hour, and manufacturing overhead $6 per direct labor hour, j Inventories (raw materials only): beginning, 10,290 pounds; ending, 15,250 pounds. Selling and administrative expenses: $170,000; interest expense: $30,000. Income taxes: 30% of income before income taxes.
Prepare a schedule showing the computation of cost of goods sold for 2017.
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Computation of Cost of goods sold
Direct materials
Direct labor
Manufacturing overheads
Total cost
On January 8, 2012, Speedway Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $65,000. Before placing the truck in service, Speedway spent $4,000 painting it, $2,500 replacing tires, and $8,000 overhauling the engine. The truck should remain in service for five years and have a residual value of $6,000. The truck’s annual mileage is expected to be 22,000 miles in each of the first four years and 12,000 miles in the fifth year—100,000 miles in total. In deciding which depreciation method to use, David Greer, the general manager, requests a depreciation schedule for each of the depreciation methods (straight-line, units-of-production, and double-declining-balance).
Requirements
1. Prepare a depreciation schedule for each depreciation method, showing asset cost, depreciation expense, accumulated depreciation, and asset book value.
2. Speedway prepares financial statements using the depreciation method that reports the highest net income in the early years of asset use. For income tax purposes, the company uses the depreciation method that minimizes income taxes in the early years. Consider the first year that Speedway uses the truck. Identify the depreciation methods that meet the general manager’s objectives, assuming the income tax authorities permit the use of any of the methods.
Answer:
Speedway Delivery Service
1. Depreciation Schedules:
Depreciation Schedule (Straight-line Method)
Date Cost Value Depreciation Accumulated Net Book
Expense Depreciation Value
December 31, 2012 $79,500 $14,700 $14,700 $64,800
December 31, 2013 $79,500 $14,700 $29,400 $50,100
December 31, 2014 $79,500 $14,700 $44,100 $35,400
December 31, 2015 $79,500 $14,700 $58,800 $20,700
December 31, 2016 $79,500 $14,700 $73,500 $6,000
Depreciation Schedule (Units-of-production Method)
Date Cost Value Depreciation Accumulated Net Book
Expense Depreciation Value
December 31, 2012 $79,500 $16,170 $16,170 $63,330
December 31, 2013 $79,500 $16,170 $32,340 $47,160
December 31, 2014 $79,500 $16,170 $48,510 $30,990
December 31, 2015 $79,500 $16,170 $64,680 $14,820
December 31, 2016 $79,500 $8,820 $73,500 $6,000
Depreciation Schedule (Double-declining-balance Method)
Date Cost Value Depreciation Accumulated Net Book
Expense Depreciation Value
December 31, 2012 $79,500 $31,800 $31,800 $47,700
December 31, 2013 $79,500 $19,080 $50,880 $28,620
December 31, 2014 $79,500 $11,448 $62,328 $17,172
December 31, 2015 $79,500 $6,869 $69,197 $10,303
December 31, 2016 $79,500 $4,303 $73,500 $6,000
2. The straight-line method reports the highest net income in the early years while the double-declining-balance method minimizes the income taxes in the early years.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
January 8, 2012:
Purchase of a delivery truck = $65,000
Cost of painting the truck = 4,000
Cost of replacing the tires = 2,500
Cost of overhauling the engine 8,000
Total costs = $79,500
Residual value = 6,000
Depreciable amount = $73,500
Estimated useful life = 5 years
Straight-line depreciation Method:
Annual depreciation expense = $14,700 ($73,500/5)
Units-of-production Method:
Depreciation rate per mile = $0.735 ($73,500/100,000)
For 22,000 miles, depreciation expense = $16,170 ($0.735 * 22,000)
For 12 ,000 miles, depreciation expense = $8,820 ($0.735 * 12,000)
Double-declining-balance method:
Depreciation rate = 100/5 * 2 = 40%
First year's depreciation expense = $31,800 ($79,500 * 40%)
Declined balance = $47,700 ($79,500 - $31,800)
Second year's depreciation expense = $19,080 ($47,700 * 40%)
Declined balance = $28,620 ($47,700 - $19,080)
Third year's depreciation expense = $11,448 ($28,620 * 40%)
Declined balance = $17,172 ($28,620 - $11,448)
Fourth year's depreciation expense = $6,869 ($17,172 * 40%)
Declined balance = $10,303 ($17,172 - $6,869)
Fifth year's depreciation expense = $4,303 ($10,303 - $6,000)
You do not start saving money until age 46. On your 46th birthday you dutifully invest $10,000 each year until you finish your deposits when you reach the age of 65 (you make the last deposit on your 65th birthday). The annual interest rate is 8% that you earn on your deposits. Your brother starts saving $10,000 a year on his 36th birthday but stops making deposits after 10 years. He then withdraws the compounded sum when he reaches age 65. How much more money will your brother have than you at age 65?
Answer:
$217,600
Explanation:
The computation of the more money is shown below:
As we know that
The Future value of the annuity is
= P × { (1+r)^n - 1} ÷ r
= $10,000 × (1+.08)^20 - 1) ÷ 0.08
= $457,619.64
For 36 years to 46 years,
FV = $10,000 × (1+.08)^10 - 1) ÷ 0.08
= $144,865.62
Now
FV = PV(1+r)^n
= $144,865.62× (1+.08)^20
= $675,212.47
Now the more amount would be
= $675,212.47 - $457,619.64
= $217592.83
= $217,600
Hoda is creating a report in Access using the Report Wizard. Which option is not available for adding fields using the wizard?
Tables
Queries
Reports
All are available options.
Answer:
Report is not available
Explanation:
From the given options, only the Reports is not an available option for adding fields using the wizard.
To create a report using the wizard, you have to navigate through
Create -> Reports Group -> Report Wizard
The attached image will be displayed after clicking the report wizard.
See that the available options to select are (Tables/Queries).
Hence, (c) is true
Suppose Nike, Inc. reported the following plant assets and intangible assets for the year ended May 31, 2022 (in millions): other plant assets $935.0, land $220.0, patents and trademarks (at cost) $510.0, machinery and equipment $2,160.0, buildings $980.0, goodwill (at cost) $210.0, accumulated amortization $50.0, and accumulated depreciation $2,200. Prepare a partial balance sheet for Nike for these items.
Answer:
NIKE, INC.
Partial Balance Sheet as of May 31, 2022
(in millions)
Property, Plant and Equipment
Land $220.0
Buildings $980.0
Machinery and Equipment $2160.0
Other Plant Assets $935.0
Less: Accumulated Depreciation $2200.0 $1875.0
Total Property, Plant and Equipment $2095.0
Intangible Assets:
Goodwill $210.0
Patents and Trademarks $510.0
Less: Accumulated Amortization $50.0 $460.0
Total Intangible Assets $670.0
Review each of the following independent sets of conditions. For each condition, calculate the (1) sample rate of deviation, and use the AICPA sample evaluation tables to identify the (2) upper limit rate of deviation, and (3) allowance for sampling risk (n = sample size, d = deviations. ROO = risk of overreliance). (Round your answers to 1 decimal place.)
a. n = 100. d = 8. ROO = 5%.
b. n = 100. d = 4. ROO = 5%.
c. n = 100. d = 8. ROO = 10%.
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
a. n = 100. d = 8. ROO = 5%.
i. Sample rate of deviation will be:
= Number of Deviations / Sample size
= 8/100
= 8%
ii. Upper limit rate of deviation = 14%
iii. Allowance for sampling risk will be:
= Upper Limit Rate of Deviation - Sample rate of devaition
= 14% - 8%
= 6%
b. n = 100. d = 4. ROO = 5%.
i. Sample rate of deviation will be:
= Number of Deviations / Sample size
= 4/100
= 4%
ii. Upper limit rate of deviation = 9%
iii. Allowance for sampling risk will be:
= Upper Limit Rate of Deviation - Sample rate of devaition
= 9% - 4%
= 5%
c. n = 100. d = 8. ROO = 10%.
i. Sample rate of deviation will be:
= Number of Deviations / Sample size
= 8/100
= 8%
ii. Upper limit rate of deviation = 12.7%
iii. Allowance for sampling risk will be:
= Upper Limit Rate of Deviation - Sample rate of devaition
= 12.7% - 8%
= 4.7%
Adamson Corporation is considering four average-risk projects with the following costs and rates of return:
Project Cost Expected Rate of Return
1 $2,000 16.00%
2 3,000 15.00
3 5,000 13.75
4 2,000 12.50
The company estimates that it can issue debt at a rate of rd = 10%, and its tax rate is 30%. It can issue preferred stock that pays a constant dividend of $5 per year at $48 per share. Also, its common stock currently sells for $33 per share; the next expected dividend, D1, is $4.00; and the dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5% per year. The target capital structure consists of 75% common stock, 15% debt, and 10% preferred stock.
Required:
a. What is the cost of each of the capital components?
b. What is Adamson's WACC?
Answer:
a. Cost of debt = Interest * (1 - Tax rate)
= 10%*(1 - 0.30)
= 7%
Cost of preferred stock = Dividend/ Issue price
= 5/48
= 10.42%
Cost of common stock (Cost of retained earnings) = (D1/P0) + g
= (4/33) + 0.07
= 0.12 + 0.07
= 0.19
= 19%
b. Fund Cost Weight Cost * Weight
Debt 7% 0.15 1.05%
Preferred stock 10.42% 0.10 1.042%
Retained earnings 19% 0.75 14.25%
WACC 16.342%