According to the research, the correct word to fill the blank is fiber-rich. Several servings of fiber-rich foods (fruits, vegetables, peas and beans, whole grain cereals) should be included in the daily diet to promote a healthy digestive tract and prevent constipation.
What are fiber-rich foods?It is a food component rich in carbohydrates accessible to the microbiota with healthy characteristics present in legumes, cereals, vegetables and fruits that improve digestion.
In this sense, it is recommended to eat foods rich in fiber because they avoid constipation problems, strongly reduce cholesterol and help maintain a healthy intestine.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, several servings of fiber-rich foods is indicated for those people who want to improve their constipation and to promote a healthy digestive tract.
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choose the one best answer explaining how oxaloacetate and acetyl-coa levels are balanced to maximize flux through the citrate cycle when energy charge in the cell is low.
To balance oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA levels to maximize flux through the citrate cycle when the energy charge in cells is low, pyruvate dehydrogenase is activated by CoA but inhibited by its product Acetyl-CoA, whereas pyruvate carboxylase is activated by acetyl-CoA to produce more oxaloacetate for the reaction synthase citrate.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) is a complex of three enzymes that converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA by a process called pyruvate decarboxylation. Acetyl-CoA can then be used in the citric acid cycle to carry out cellular reactions.
Acetyl CoA formed in the oxidation of fatty acids will enter the citric acid cycle only if the breakdown of fats and carbohydrates occurs in a balanced way. Because the entry of acetyl CoA into the citric acid cycle depends on the availability of oxaloacetate for citrate formation. But the concentration of oxaloacetate will decrease if carbohydrates are not available, or their use is not as it should be. Oxaloacetate is normally formed from pyruvate.
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two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: _________
The two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: falls and motor vehicle collisions.
What is Blunt trauma?The term "blunt trauma" refers to injuries to the body caused by a violent impact, a fall, or a physical assault with a dull instrument. It is sometimes referred to as "non-penetrating trauma" or "blunt force trauma." In contrast, penetrating trauma results in an open wound when an item or surface pierces the skin. Combinations of forces, including as acceleration and deceleration (the change in speed of a moving item), shearing (the sliding and stretching of organs and tissue in relation to one another), and crushing pressure can result in blunt trauma.Contusion, abrasion, laceration, and fracture are the four main subtypes of blunt trauma. A contusion, also referred to as a bruise, is an area of skin where tiny veins and capillaries have broken. Abrasions happen when the skin's layers have beenTo learn more about Blunt trauma refer to:
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Help me out, I’m busy doing a bunch of things and I can’t do this one
The majority of epileptics lead active lives. However, for other people, the chance of an early death is higher.
What is Epilepsy ?A condition where the brain's nerve cell activity is messed up, leading to seizures.
A genetic condition or an acquired brain lesion, such as a trauma or stroke, may cause epilepsy.
A person has strange behavior, symptoms, and sensations during a seizure, which can occasionally cause unconsciousness. Between seizures, there are not many symptoms.Medications are typically used to treat epilepsy, though occasionally surgery, gadgets, or dietary changes are also used.We are aware that the risk of epilepsy-related death can be decreased by maintaining the best seizure control and living safely.To know more about Epilepsy please click here ; https://brainly.com/question/28131457
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Alcohol, marijuana, cocaine, and a wide variety of other chemical agents that alter perceptions and moods are called.
Psychoactive drugs include alcohol, cocaine, marijuana, and a wide range of other chemical compounds that affect perceptions and moods.
What are psychoactive drugs?Psychoactive drugs can be defined as compounds that, when consumed or supplied to the body, alter mental processes such as mood, perception, cognition, consciousness, and emotions. Psychoactive drugs are actually part of a larger class of psychoactive substances that also includes alcohol and caffeine. The psychoactive drug affects three brain neurotransmitters that are dopamine, serotonin, and noradrenaline or norepinephrine. When the substance reaches the brain, synaptic vesicles in neurons release the neurotransmitters. As a result, neurotransmitter activity increases.
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a doctor will likely tell you that you don't need the brca gene tests for breast cancer unless you are . group of answer choices at high risk caucasian on the very best health insurance over 70
A doctor will likely tell you that you don't need the BRCA gene tests for breast cancer unless you are at high risk. So, option a is correct.
The BRCA gene test is actually considered as the blood test that uses DNA analysis to recognize the harmful changes (mutations) in either one of the two breast cancer susceptibility genes which are named as BRCA1 and BRCA2.
People who actually inherit mutations in these genes are considered at an increased risk of developing the breast cancer and the ovarian cancer as compared to the general population.
The BRCA gene test is actually offered to those who are more threatened to have an inherited mutation based on the personal or any family history of breast cancer or ovarian cancer. BRCA gene test gives the estimation about the breast cancer or ovarian cancer.
Hence, option a is correct.
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(Complete question) is:
a doctor will likely tell you that you don't need the brca gene tests for breast cancer unless you are _______ Group of answer choices
a)at high risk
b)male
c) on the very best health insurance over 70
d)wealthy
huntington's disease is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder that can affect both men and women. imagine a couple has had seven children, and later in life, the husband develops huntington's disease. he is tested and it is discovered he is heterozygous for the disease allele, hh. the wife is also genetically tested for the huntington's disease allele, and her test results show she is unaffected, hh
Answer:
a) probability that the first child of this couple will have Huntington's disease is 1/2 = 50%
b) probability that any six of the seven children will have Huntington's disease is 0.05468 ( 5.468% )
Step-by-step explanation:
a)Given that;Hh ( diseased father) and hh (normal)
H h
h Hh hh
h Hh hh
therefore Hh ⇒ 2 and hh ⇒ 2
so here we can see that chances of getting Huntington's disease is 1 : 1
so probability that the first child of this couple will have Huntington's disease is 1/2 = 50%b)
probability that 6 out of the 7 children will have Huntington's disease;
we use the expression: <P> = (n! / (S! × t!)) × p^S × q^t
where n! is total number of children factorial
S! is diseased number of children factorial
t! is healthy number of children factorial
p is probability of diseased children
q is probability of healthy children
so we substitute: <P> = (7! / (6! × 1!)) × 1/2^6 × 1/2^1
= (7 × 6! / (6! × 1!)) × 1/2⁶ × 1/2
= 7 × 1/64 × 1/2
= 0.05468
probability that any six of the seven children will have Huntington's disease is 0.05468 ( 5.468% )
Factors that aid venous return include all EXCEPT
O pressure changes in the thorax
O urinary output
O venous valves
O activity of skeletal muscles
Factors that aid venous return include pressure changes in the thorax, venous valves, and activity of the skeletal muscles except urinary output. Thus, the correct option is B.
What is Venous return?
Venous return is the rate of back flow of blood to the heart. It normally limits the cardiac output. Superposition of the cardiac function curve and venous return curve is used in hemodynamic model. The main driver force in venous return is the blood flowing back to the heart which is driven by the pressure difference between the mean systemic filling pressure and right atrial pressure (RAP).
Venous return can be facilitated by a number of different factors, such as inspiration, increased total blood volume, the cardiac suction effect, the presence of venous valves and the skeletal muscle pump.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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False positives for the presence of nitrites can happen if the specimen is ________ for too long.
Answer:
at room temperature
Explanation:
You are assigned to a 21-year-old primipara, who is 36 hours post-birth and breastfeeding her healthy newborn son. During your assessment, you note that there is a small reddened area on the right side of the left areola. Based on this assessment finding, which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A. Instruct the woman to change feeding position from cradle hold to football hold.
B. Instruct the woman to air-dry her nipples for 15 minutes after each feeding.
C. Instruct the woman to apply a lanolin cream to the area after each feeding.
D. Instruct the woman to feed from only the right breast for 24 hours.
C. Instruct the woman to apply a lanolin cream to the area after each feeding.
If you notice a small inflamed patch on the right side of the left areola, you should instruct the mother to switch from cradle hold to football hold.
The football or clutch hold are further choices. If you have large breasts or are recuperating from a caesarean section, this position can be a suitable fit for you. With your elbow bent, hold your infant close by. Supporting your infant's head with an open hand, turn him or her toward your breast. Due to its capacity to relieve strain on the mothers' belly, the football hold position is the most comfortable nursing position following caesarean section. The mother may be able to direct her infant more successfully in this position since she can see the baby's mouth and nose more clearly.
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final diagnosis: acute bronchitis, with bronchospasm, due to rhinovirus the correct code(s) for this case is/are
Final diagnosis: acute bronchitis with bronchospasm brought on by a rhinovirus; J20 is the proper code(s) in this case. Code J44 is used to report chronic obstructive pulmonary illness.
J31 is used to report chronic purulent rhinitis. Discharge Summary: Final diagnosis: acute rhinovirus-induced bronchospasm and bronchitis J20 is the proper code in this circumstance. a condition where the bronchial tube's (the tube that transports air to and from the lungs) lining is irritated as chronic disease. Breathlessness, a mucus-filled cough, and a slight fever are all results of this. A chest cold is another name for acute bronchitis. Most acute bronchitis symptoms continue for up to two weeks. Some people's coughs can persist for as long as 8 weeks. Long-lasting chronic bronchitis.
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a medical assistant is preparing to administer an intramusuclar injection to a child who weights 50 lb
22.7 the weight of the child in kg. when a medical assistant is preparing to administer an intramusuclar injection to a child who weights 50 lb.
A material is injected into a muscle during an intramuscular injection, often known as IM. It is one of various strategies for administering drugs via parenteral infusion in medicine. The shoulder, hip, and thigh are only three examples of potential sites for intramuscular injection. Before administering an injection on themselves, those who must do so should acquaint themselves with the procedure and get help from their doctor. Medical personnel known as medical assistant support doctors in hospitals and clinics. It usually takes between nine months and two years for the majority of aspirants to become medical assistants, while the precise length of time might vary. Graduating from high school, enrolling in medical assistant training, and earning certifications are all necessary stages to become a medical assistant.
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prior to the recent discovery that alzheimer's disease can be detected from cerebrospinal fluid withdrawn via spinal tap, true confirmation of the presence of the disease could only be made after
Yes, it is true that only cerebrospinal fluid fluid obtained from a spinal tap might be used to prove the diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease.
Amyloid and tau protein aggregates, which are aberrant in nature, are the hallmark of Alzheimer's disease. A lumbar puncture can reveal whether the brain is impacted by Alzheimer's disease since these modifications are mirrored in the amounts of proteins in the cerebrospinal fluid. Repeated scans can reveal how the brain evolves over time. Although it cannot provide a precise diagnosis, evidence of shrinkage may help with an Alzheimer's or other neurodegenerative dementia diagnosis. a week ago. As a result of amyloid build up in the brain, the CSF has undergone changes that include a 50% reduction in Ab42 and an increase in p-Tau and total Tau (t-Tau). The amount of neuro degeneration is thought to be reflected by increases in both forms of Tau, with p-Tau being a more precise marker for Alzheimer's disease.
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if an identical twin has schizophrenia, the co-twin's chances of being similarly afflicted are in 10 if they shared a placenta.
If an identical twin has schizophrenia, chances the co-twin's of being similarly afflicted are in 10 if they shared a placenta are then there's a 30-50% danger that the alternative dual may have it as well.
Identical twins much more likely to expand schizophrenia than non-equal. They determined that after evaluating equal dual research, that they'd a concordance fee of 40% whilst non-equal twins had 7.4%. equal twins, if a dual develops schizophrenia, the alternative dual has a 1 in 2 danger of growing it, too.
This is proper even supposing they may be raised separately. In non-equal twins, who've distinctive genetic make-ups, while a dual develops schizophrenia, the alternative simplest has a 1 in eight danger of growing the condition.
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assume the mpc is 0.8. assuming only the multiplier effect matters, a decrease in government purchases of $100 billion will shift the aggregate demand curve to the group of answer choices
A $100 billion reduction in government purchases shifts the aggregate demand curve to the left by about $500 billion.
What is MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume)?In economics, marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is defined as the percentage of wage increases that consumers spend on goods and services rather than saving. Customers can also save some extra money. These trends are not mere observations. They serve as the basis for the marginal propensity to save (MPS) and the marginal propensity to spend.
The marginal propensity to consume is calculated by dividing the change in consumption by the change in income. For example, if a person's spending increases by 90% for every new dollar earned, the formula would be 0.9/1 = 0.9.
With an MPC of 0.65 and a $20 billion decrease in government purchases, this is:
= Purchase / (1 - MPC)
= 100 billion / (1 - 0.8)
= 500 billion
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Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct?
A. Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs.
B. Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm.
C. Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims.
D. Laryngospasm following submersion in water makes rescue breathing difficult.
The correct statement about drowning is laryngospasm following submersion in water rescue breathing difficult.
what is drowning?
When the mouth and nose are submerged in liquid, it results in asphyxia known as drowning.
Laryngospasm, a reflex contraction of the vocal cords, is a common symptom of dry drowning. It prevents water from entering the lungs but can also impair proper air intake through the windpipe. If untreated, laryngospasm, which can happen minutes to hours after the first water inhalation, might be fatal.
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why do you think dr. walker suspected the milk as the source of infection? imagine that you are working for johnson dairy. describe three practices (during or after production) that would help limit the chance of contamination in their milk?
There is no context given, but most likely, after detecting Campylobacter Jujeni in the sample, Dr. Walker assumed the milk was the source of the infection.
Campylobacter Jejuni is a kind of bacteria that is regularly found in milk. Ingestion of infected, raw, or undercooked chicken, as well as unpasteurized milk and other dairy products, is the most prevalent way Campylobacter Jejuni is transmitted.
As a worker at Johnson Dairy, what are the three practices that would help limit the contamination in the milk?Campylobacter Jejuni is a frequent pathogen in the dairy business. Consumption of raw milk, in particular, increases the chance of contracting this pathogen. Undiagnosed mastitis in cows and poorly sterilized equipment could also be issues.
To limit the possibility of contamination, the following practices should be conducted:
Equipment must be cleaned on a regular basis, and cows should be tested for disease on a regular basis.Dairy products marketed without pasteurization must be tested for microorganisms on a regular basis.Any abnormal findings must be reported as soon as possible.Learn more about pathogen here: brainly.com/question/10500193
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FILL IN THE BLANK. codes for glossectomy procedures are assigned from the___heading of the cpt digestive system subsection.
Codes for glossectomy operations are allocated under the CPT digestive tract subsection's Tongue & Floor of Mouth category.
However, these codes must be recorded together along with CPT code 43020 (Esophagotomy, cervical method, with removal of foreign body) or CPT code 43045 when removing a foreign body (Esophagotomy, thoracic method, with removal of foreign body). The codes for combined adenoidectomy and tonsillectomy (42820-42821) reveal another coding trap that you must stay clear of. Use the combination tonsillectomy/adenoidectomy codes if the surgeon conducts an adenoidectomy and a tonsillectomy concurrently operations . When different endoscopic techniques are used to complete the same surgery, only the successful endoscopic operations should be reported. When urethral catheter is carried out independently of another operation, urethral catheter codes (51701-51702) are recorded.
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The clinician is seeing a toddler for a follow-up visit. The chart indicates that the previous examiner noted an innocent murmur. You should suspect a possible pathological murmur if the examination reveals the following
A. Murmur is grade I-II/IV
B, Murmur changes with the toddler's position. C. Murmur is musical in quality. D. Murmur is diastolic.
The clinician should suspect a possible pathological murmur in the toddler, as his/her previous examiner noted an innocent murmur, if the examination reveals the murmur is diastolic. Hence, the correct answer is D.
Pathological murmurs have a sound level of 3rd grade or above, a diastolic murmur, or an increase in severity as the patient stands. All children who have any of these symptoms should see a pediatric cardiologist. Heart murmurs are noises produced by choppy and rapid blood flow through the heart, such as swishing and whooshing. A stethoscope can be used to listen to the heart murmur. When the heart valves close, a typical heartbeat generates two noises that sound like "lubb-dupp" that often written as "lub-DUP".
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Which of the following is an example of composting?
A. creating mulch from yard and food scraps
B. using animal ding as a fuel source
C. recycling steel replace dependence on iron ore
D. purchasing products that have less packaging
E. using less toxic materials the build products
Creating mulch from yard and food scraps and using animal ding as a fuel source are the example of composting.
What is the process of composting?Composting is the natural, in controlled conditions occurring 'rotting' or breakdown of organic waste by microbes. After being composted, raw organic materials including agricultural leftovers, animal waste, food waste, some municipal wastes, and acceptable industrial wastes become more suited for use as fertilizing resources in the soil.An abundant supply of organic materials is compost. In order to maintain soil fertility and, by extension, sustainable agricultural output, soil organic matter is crucial. In addition to being a source of plant nutrition, it enhances the physico-chemical and biological qualities of the soil. These enhancements make the soil:( I) more resilient to pressures including drought, illness, and toxicity (ii) aids the crop in better nutrient uptake; (iii) thanks to active microbial activity, has a capacity for active nutrient cycling.Learn more about composting refer to :
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proof is the percentage of alcohol in a drink by volume, so 40 proof means 40% alcohol
The proof is the percentage of alcohol in a drink by volume, so 40 proof means 40% alcohol is false.
Is alcohol by a volume equivalent to proof?Alcohol-by-volume and proof are the two primary measures used to describe a beverage's alcohol level. A spirit's proof is simply twice its alcohol by volume in the US. Accordingly, a bottle of 151-proof rum has a 75.5% abv, compared to 45% in a bottle of 90-proof bourbon.
The amount of alcohol in a beverage is measured as a percentage of the total weight of the beverage and is known as alcohol by weight (ABW). In the US, where alcohol proof is regarded as having twice the quantity of alcohol by volume, this method of determining alcohol content is therefore primarily employed (ABV). Alcoholic beverage weight values and the Bureau of Alcohol are frequently cited in United States.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. ___ age is an individual's adaptive capacities compared with those of other individuals of the same chronological age.
The ability to adjust to new situations in comparison to people of a similar chronological age is what is meant by psychological age. The study of the mind and behavior's is known as psychology.
Studying conscious and unconscious phenomena, such as thoughts and feelings, is part of psychological age. It is an academic field with a colossal extent that merges the social and natural sciences. psychological age work to comprehend the brain's emergent characteristics, which ties their field to neuroscience. Chronological age is the period of time from a person's birth to a specific date. Chronological quotation units include years, months, weeks, days, etc. Because biological age takes into account a variety of biological and physiological development factors, such as genetics, lifestyle, and nutrition, it differs from chronological age.
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progression allows for improvements in cardiorespiratory fitness while avoiding stagnation in training
Progression allows for improvements in cardiorespiratory fitness while avoiding stagnation in training is: one of six FITT-VP principles. The principles consist of frequency, intensity, time, type, volume, and progression.
What are FITT-VP principles?FITT-VP is an evidence-based recommendation used as a guide for the workout plan. These principles stand for:
Frequency. The best frequency of doing a cardiorespiratory exercise is 3 to 5 days.Intensity. The recommended intensity is based on the age, oxygen uptake reserve, and perceived exertion charts.Time. It is best to do the exercise for approximately 30 minutes 5 days a week. Type. The type of exercise is up to the client.Volume. This exercise can be used to estimate total energy expenditure using METs.Progression. It depends on the client’s health, fitness, and the goals of the program. It allows improvements while avoiding stagnation.Learn more FITT-VP principle here https://brainly.com/question/27962157
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Health risks associated with a small-for-gestational-age infant (SGA) include all of the following, EXCEPT:- infant mortality.- stillbirth.- increased risk for hypertension as an adult.- increased risk for cancer as an adult.- increased risk for diabetes as an adult.
Health risks associated with a small-for-gestational-age infant (SGA) include all of the following are - increased risk for cancer as an adult.
The common age at prognosis is 10 overall (a long time zero to 19), 6 years antique for children (elderly zero to 14), and 17 years antique for adolescents (elderly 15 to 19), at the same time as adults' common age for most cancers prognosis is 66. Childhood most cancers isn't one disease - there are extra than 12 fundamental forms of pediatric cancers and over a hundred subtypes.
Infants born with fetal increase restrict small for gestational age (FGR SGA) are at multiplied threat of short- and long-time period headaches and death. Conditions consisting of maternal hypertension, kidney disease, infections, malnutrition, smoking, and substance abuse boom the threat of getting an FGR SGA infant.
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a percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a fractured disk
The answer to the statement " a percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a fractured disc " is false.
The correct answer choice is option b.
What is meant by percutaneous diskectomy?A percutaneous diskectomy simply refers to that surgical or medical procedure which is performed in order to remove a herniated disc. This purpose of this procedure is to get relief for the patient suffering the health condition which occur as a result this disc irritating the nerve fibers. This goes to say that when there is an irritation in the nerve structure of the body, a fractured disc is not removed but a herniated disc.
That being said, it is a health condition which needs proper medical attention by a qualified medical personnel in order to improve the condition.
In conclusion, it can be deduced from the explanation given above that a percutaneous diskectomy is a surgical procedure.
Complete question:
A percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a fractured disk.
a. True
b. False
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When examining the hematological system of patient remember the three key cell line with a major malady that could result from there disarrangment or rearrangement based on
1) morphology?
2) component?
When examining the hematological system of patient remember the three key cell line with a major malady that could result from there disarrangement or rearrangement based on option 1) morphology.
What is hematological system?
Blood and bone marrow are components of the haematological system. All tissues receive oxygen and nutrition from the blood, which also eliminates waste and carries hormones, immune cells, blood cells, and immune-system components throughout the body.
Due to its obvious benefits in delivering more physiologically appropriate information and more predictive data for in vivo studies, three-dimensional (3D) cell culture techniques have attracted growing interest in drug development and tissue engineering.
Degenerative alterations, changes, and alterations are the three main categories of pathogenic events that affect cell morphology.
Therefore, A crucial tool in laboratory haematology is blood cell morphology. The shape of erythrocytes suggests potential aetiopathogenetic events in a number of primary and secondary hemopathologies. Red cell morphology continues to be a fundamental component of haematological evaluation, despite developments in medical technology and laboratory automation.
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