Solve the problem 35×2/7=

Answer:

5X+6+3X-2 =180

8X+4. =180

8X. =180-4

8X. =176

X=22

CBD=EBF=3x-2

=66-2

=64

CBD=64

Answer:

See Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to use the Squeeze Theorem to show that:

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0}\left(x^2\sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)\right)=0[/tex]

Recall that according to the Squeeze Theorem, if:

[tex]\displaystyle g(x)\leq f(x) \leq h(x)[/tex]

And:

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x\to c}g(x) =\lim_{x\to c}h(x) = L[/tex]

Then:

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x\to c}f(x)=L[/tex]

Recall that the value of sine is always ≥ -1 and ≤ 1. Hence:

[tex]\displaystyle -1 \leq \sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right) \leq 1[/tex]

We can multiply both sides by x². Since this value is always positive, we do not need to change the signs. Hence:

[tex]\displaystyle -x^2\leq x^2\sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)\leq x^2[/tex]

Let g = -x², h = x², and f = x²sin(2 / x). We can see that:

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0}g(x) = \lim_{ x \to 0}h(x) = 0[/tex]

And since g(x) ≤ f(x) ≤ h(x), we can conclude using the Squeeze Theorem that:

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0}f(x) = \lim_{x \to 0}x^2\sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)=0[/tex]

Answer:

The y-intercept of Function A is less than the y-intercept of Function B.

Step-by-step explanation:

Function A's y-intercept would be (0, -1) and Function B's y-intercept is (0, 4). Therefore, Function A's y-intercept is less than Function B's.

Answer:

a) 3/5 < 4/5

b) In general if two fractions have the same denominator, then whichever fraction has the numerator closer to its denominator will be the largest fraction.

c)  [tex]\frac{7}{10} > \frac{9}{15}[/tex]  or  [tex]\frac{7}{10}<\frac{9}{15}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

a) 3/5 < 4/5

Flip the sign and the placement of the fraction so 3/5 is less then 4/5.

b) In general if two fractions have the same denominator, then whichever fraction has the numerator closer to its denominator will be the largest fraction.

c) We need to change the denominators to a common denominator to compare the size of the two fractions:

[tex]\frac{7}{10}[/tex] × [tex]\frac{3}{3}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{21}{30}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{9}{15}[/tex] ×  [tex]\frac{2}{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{18}{30}[/tex]

The common denominators of the two fractions is 30. Comparing the two fractions:

[tex]\frac{21}{30} >\frac{18}{30}[/tex]  or  [tex]\frac{18}{30}<\frac{21}{30}[/tex]

so we get:  [tex]\frac{7}{10} > \frac{9}{15}[/tex]  or  [tex]\frac{7}{10}<\frac{9}{15}[/tex]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

 6

Step-by-step explanation:

For 35 hours, Candice is paid ...

  ($8.50/h)(35 h) = $297.50

Any amount in excess of that is paid at $10 per hour. The amount of excess pay is ...

  $357.50 -297.50 = $60.00

Then the number of overtime hours was ...

  $60/($10/h) = 6 h

Candice worked 6 hours over 35 last week.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

36*12*6+12*24*3=3456

Answer:

3456

Step-by-step explanation:

36*12*6 + 24*12*3

just add up the two volumes

Answer:

miges fue y no me compro el celu

Step-by-step explanation:

mal migel

por culpa de brailyn reverg

Answer:

$1250.00 + (x)$4.25 =

Step-by-step explanation

So fixed costs are $1,250.00.....every dozen you bake add $4.25 to the costs, cook one dozen you have $1,250.00 plus $4.25 or a total of $1,254.25.

Cook 10 dozen and you add $45.25 = the $1,250.00 for a new total of $1,295.25.

0-10

A spinner is split into 11 different pieces so you are less likely to land on five than the other numbers.

The probability of getting 5 on spinner is 0.25.

Probability can be defined as the ratio of the number of favourable outcomes to the total number of outcomes of an event.

We know that, probability of an event = Number of favourable outcomes/Total number of outcomes.

Given that, on the spinner there are four numbers {3, 4, 5, 6}.

Number of favorable outcomes = 1

Total number of outcomes = 4

So, P(5) = 1/4

= 0.25

Therefore, the probability of getting 5 on spinner is 0.25.

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Answer:

53 million.

Step-by-step explanation:

$26.2 / total = 0.49 ($ in millions)

Then total = (26.2) ÷ 0.49 = 53.47 millions which we can round up to 53 million $

Answer:

The answer is C.

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiplying the exponents is adding them together.

Answer:

x^8

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the terms with the same base by adding their expondents

x^6+2^2

add the numbers 6+2= 8

Answer:

[tex]y < - 1[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]y < - 4 + 3[/tex]

[tex]y < - 1[/tex]

[tex] \sf \: y < - 4 + 3 \\ \sf \: y < - 1[/tex]

[tex] \sf \: Just \: add \: - 4 \: and \: 3 \: and \: you \: \\ \sf will \: get \: the \: inequality \: in \: the \: simplest \: form.[/tex]

Answer:

Larger number: 22

The smaller number: 14

HOPE THIS HELPS

Answer:

Simple interest

Step-by-step explanation:

Because its a period of 8 years

Answer:

A. -1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

The product of 7/8 and -4/21 is a.- 1/6.

In mathematics, a product is the result of multiplication, or an expression that identifies factors to be multiplied.

Now the given numbers are,

7/8 and -4/21

now taking 7/8 and since 8= 4*2

so, 7/8 = 7/(4*2)

Again taking -4/28 and since 28 = 7*4

so, -4/21 = -4/(7*3)

hence the product of 7/8 and -4/21 is given as,

7/8*(-4/21) = 7/(4*2) x -4/(7*3)

taking alike terms together we get,

7/8*(-4/28) = (7/7)(4/4)(-1/2*3)

⇒ 7/8*(-4/28) = -1/6

Hence the correct option is a.-1/6

Therefore,The product of 7/8 and -4/21 is a.- 1/6.

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Answer: Hello the system of equations and other data required are missing attached below are the missing data

answer :

attached below

Step-by-step explanation:

1st system of equations ( top left ) = Image number 8

system of equation ( Image 10 ) = Image 4

system of equation ( Image 9 ) = Image 6

system of equations ( Image 7 ) = Image 2

attached below is a pictorial representation of the solution

Answer:

p would be up top on the negative side (left)

q would be at the bottom on the positive side (right)

Answer:

Height = 10 yd

Step-by-step explanation:

GIVEN :-

TO FIND :-

GENERAL FORMULAE TO BE USED IN THIS QUESTION :-

For a triangle with base 'b' & height 'h' , its area = [tex]\frac{1}{2} \times b \times h[/tex]

SOLUTION :-

[tex]Area = \frac{1}{2} \times Base \times Height[/tex]

[tex]=> 32 = \frac{6.4h}{2}[/tex]

[tex]=> 6.4h = 32 \times 2 = 64[/tex]

[tex]=> h = \frac{64}{6.4} = 10\: yd[/tex]

Answer:

To find your distance apart, you can convert 15 minutes to seconds because that is what the rate is given in.

15 mins x 60 seconds = 900 seconds.

Step-by-step explanation:

In 900 seconds, there are 900/8=112.5 groups of 8 seconds. This means there are 112.5 groups of 108 feet.

112.5 x 108 = 12150 feet

12150 feet/5280 feet is approximately 2.3 miles.

For your friend you take 900/6 = 150 groups of 6 seconds.

150 x 63 = 9540 feet

9540 feet/5280 feet = 1.79 miles

1.79 miles + 2.3 miles = 2.09 miles

You and your friend are about 2.09 miles apart after 15 minutes.

B). If you go 2.3 miles every 15 minutes, that means you travel about 0.77 miles every 5 minutes. If you travel 20 more minutes (40-15-5) that would be 0.77x 4=3.07 miles more

3.07 + 2.3 = 5.37 miles after 40 minutes (you).

Your friend travels 1.79 in 15 minutes, so 1.79/3 = 0.6 miles every 5 minutes

0.6 x 5 (5 x 5 = 25 minutes)= 3 miles

1.79 + 3 miles= 4.79 miles (friend)

4.79 + 5.37 = 10.16 miles

You and your friend are about 10.16 miles apart after 40 minutes.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1 in 5 = 1/5 = 20% that he wins

Probability that he will NOT win

= 1 - 20%

= 100% -20%

= 80%

Answer:

80%

Step-by-step explanation:

percentage of winning

1/5×100%=20%

percentage of not winning

100%_20%=80%

Answer:

43.2 meters

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the length of one piece of ribbon by 8 to determine the total length

5.4 * 8 =43.2 meters

Answer:

x = 5.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Reference angle (θ) = 24°

Opposite side to the reference angle = x

Adjacent side = 12

Apply TOA, which is:

Tan θ = Opp/Adj

Plug in the values

Tan 24° = x/12

12*Tan 24° = x

5.34274422 = x

x = 5.3 (approximated to one decimal place)

Answer:

P(a pair with matching cards in different suits) = 1/52

Step-by-step explanation:

We are told that there are 4 suites and each suit has 13 different cards. This is a total of 52 cards.

Thus;

Probability of selecting one card of a particular suit = 13/52 = 1/4

If we now want to select a matching card of another suit without replacing the first one, then, we now have; 52 - 13 = 39 cards. Now, there are only 3 matching cards of the 3 remaining suits that is same as the first card drawn.

Thus; probability = 3/39 = 1/13

Thus;

P(a pair with matching cards in different suits) = 1/4 × 1/13

P(a pair with matching cards in different suits) = 1/52

Answer:

78/2=39°

Step-by-step explanation:

thx for the points

Answer:

cosB = 2√6 / 7

Step-by-step explanation:

use the pythagorean theorem to find the missing side

a² + b² = c²

a² + 5² = 7²

a² + 25 = 49

a² = 24

a = √24

a = 2√6

--------------------------

cosB = adj/hyp

cosB = 2√6 / 7

Answer:

d = √85

Step-by-step explanation:

d^2 = (X2 - X1)^2 + (Y2 - Y1)^2

= (2 - 0)^2 + (6 + 3)^2

= 4 + 81

d = √85

Answer:

17 1/7 I think

Step-by-step explanation:

x=17.1

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{x}{30} + \frac{x}{40} = 1 \\ \frac{3x + 4x}{120} = 1 \\ \frac{7x}{120} = 1 \\ \frac{7x}{120} = 1 \\ 7x = 120 \\ x = \frac{120}{7} \\ x =17.1 [/tex]

Answer:

19/3

Step-by-step explanation:

1 2/3 = (1*3 + 2)/3 = 5/3

3 4/5 = (5*3 + 4)/5 = (15 + 4)/5 = 19/5

5/3 * 19/5 = 19/3    The 5s cancel.

The simplest form is not obvious to me. I think the answer above is in simplest form, and I will put that below the answer above. But 6 1/3 is also possible.

Answer:

4 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

1 [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] × 3 [tex]\frac{4}{5}[/tex] =

[tex]\frac{5}{3}[/tex] × [tex]\frac{19}{5}[/tex] =

[tex]\frac{95}{15}[/tex] = 4 [tex]\frac{5}{15}[/tex] = 4 1/3