Super Snacking Services is a typical firm in a monopolistically competitive market. If the market is in long-run equilibrium, then the price Super Snacking Services charges for its quick and easy snacking goods:

a.
is less than average total cost.

b. is more than the average for all other firms in the market.
c.
exceeds average total cost.

d.
equals average total cost.

Answers

Answer 1

In a monopolistically competitive market, if the market is in long-run equilibrium, then the price Super Snacking Services charges for its quick and easy snacking goods will be equals to the average total cost. So, the correct option is d. 

Monopolistic competition is a kind of imperfect competition such as the competition with a large number of different companies that sell products which are very similar but not identical. The firms in monopolistically competitive markets sell differentiated products, which means that they sell similar products, but each firm has a distinct brand or differentiation that distinguishes it from its rivals.

In the long run, the profits of a firm in a monopolistically competitive market are pushed down to zero. It's because if a firm has a positive economic profit, then new companies can come into the market and attract the consumer base with more effective differentiation and lower prices, resulting in a loss of profit for the incumbent firms. Because there are no restrictions on entry or exit in monopolistically competitive markets, a firm that makes a loss will eventually leave the market.The long-run equilibrium condition for monopolistically competitive firms is that the price will equal average total cost, so the correct option is d.

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Related Questions

Use the below information to answer 1.1.1 to 1.1.4
Portfolio
return 18%
Standard deviation 22%
Beta 0.8
Market Average return
return 14%
Standard deviation 24%
Beta 1.0
The risk-free rate is 6%.
1.1.1 Sharpe ratio
1.1.2 Treynor
1.1.3 CAPM
1.1.4 Alpha

Answers

Sharpe ratio = (18% - 6%) / 22% = 0.55 . Treynor ratio = (18% - 6%) / 0.8 = 15% . Rm = market return. R = 6% + 0.8(14% - 6%) = 12.4% . The alpha of the portfolio is 3.6%.

1.1.1 Sharpe ratio Sharpe Ratio is used to determine the amount of excess return per unit of risk generated by the portfolio. It is calculated by subtracting the risk-free rate from the portfolio's return and then dividing by its standard deviation.

Sharpe ratio = (R - Rf) / σ

Where, R = portfolio return, Rf = risk-free rate, and σ = standard deviation of the portfolio.

Sharpe ratio = (18% - 6%) / 22% = 0.55

The Sharpe ratio of the portfolio is 0.55.

1.1.2 Treynor Treynor ratio measures how much excess return is generated by a portfolio per unit of market risk taken by that portfolio. It is calculated by dividing the portfolio's excess return over the risk-free rate by its beta coefficient.

Treynor ratio = (R - Rf) / β

Where, R = portfolio return, Rf = risk-free rate, and β = beta coefficient of the portfolio.

Treynor ratio = (18% - 6%) / 0.8 = 15%

The Treynor ratio of the portfolio is 15%.

1.1.3 CAPMCAPM stands for Capital Asset Pricing Model, which is a model used to determine the expected return of an asset given its risk and the risk-free rate of return. The CAPM formula is as follows:

R = Rf + β (Rm - Rf)

Where, R = expected return

, Rf = risk-free rate, β = beta coefficient,

Rm = market return. R = 6% + 0.8(14% - 6%) = 12.4%

The expected return of the portfolio according to CAPM is 12.4%

1.1.4 AlphaAlpha measures the excess return of the portfolio relative to the expected return as predicted by CAPM. If the alpha is positive, it means that the portfolio has outperformed the expected return.

Alpha = R - [Rf + β (Rm - Rf)]

Where, R = portfolio return, Rf = risk-free rate, β = beta coefficient,

Rm = market return.

Alpha = 18% - [6% + 0.8(14% - 6%)] = 3.6%

The alpha of the portfolio is 3.6%.

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Sun Instruments expects to issue new stock at $40 a share with estimated flotation costs of 8 percent of the market price. The company currently pays a $1.90 cash dividend and has a 7 percent growth rate. What are the costs of retained earnings and new common stock? Round your answers to two decimal places.
Costs of retained earnings: %
Cost of new common stock: %

Answers

the cost of new common stock is 36.00%.Hence, the costs of retained earnings and new common stock are 29.00% and 36.00%, respectively.

Costs of Retained Earnings and New Common Stock: Retained earnings refer to a company's net income that is kept in reserve rather than being distributed as a dividend. On the other hand, the cost of new common stock is the total cost of the shares issued by the company.Here, Sun Instruments expects to issue new stock at $40 a share with estimated flotation costs of 8% of the market price. The company currently pays a $1.90 cash dividend and has a 7% growth rate.Instruments Costs:Cost of Retained Earnings:The cost of retained earnings is equivalent to the required rate of return for the company's shareholders. The Gordon Growth Model formula is used to estimate the cost of retained earnings:Kre = D1 / (P0 - F) + gWhere,Kre is the cost of retained earningsD1 is the expected dividendP0 is the current market price of the stockF is the flotation cost of new sharesg is the growth rateSubstituting the given values,

Kre = 1.9(1 + 0.07) / ($40 - ($40 * 0.08)) + 0.07Kre = 10.65 / $36.80Kre = 0.29 = 29.00%

(rounded off to two decimal places)Hence, the cost of retained earnings is 29.00%.Cost of New Common Stock:The cost of new common stock can be calculated using the following formula:

Kn = (D1 / (P0 - F)) + gKn = (1.9(1 + 0.07) / ($40 - ($40 * 0.08))) + 0.07Kn = 10.65 / $36.80Kn = 0.29 + 0.07Kn = 0.36 = 36.00% (rounded off to two decimal places)

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14. For each of following relations with no repeating group, indicate (1) every determinant (separate each determinant using a ;), (2) the most appropriate primary key for the relation and (3) the violation of the lowest normal form. Minus one point for each mistake. a. Contract (ContractBudget, ContractID, ConsultantID, ConsultantName, EmployeeID, ContractDescription, EmployeeName) Assumptions: (1) A consultant can work on more than one contract; (2) An employee can work on more than one contract; and (3) A contract can only have one employee and one consultant. Determinant(s): Primary key(s): Lowest normal form violation: Instruction (StudentID, InstructorID, CourseID) Assumptions: (1) A course can be taught by many instructor (2) A student can have more than one course; (3) A student always has the same instructor for the same course; and (4) An instructor only teaches one specific course. Determinant(s): Primary key(s): Lowest normal formal form violation: StudentSport (SportID, SportFee, StudentID, StudentName) b. C. d. e. Assumptions: (1) A student can only play one sport; and (2) A sport has only one fee. Determinant(s): Primary key(s): Lowest normal form violation: Account (CustomerID, BankID, AccountType) Assumptions: (1) A customer can have more than one bank; (2) A customer can have more than one account type with a bank; and (3) A bank can offer more than one account type. eterminant(s): Primary key(s): Lowest normal form violation: Shipping (RoutNo, OriginCity, DestinationCity, Distance) Assumption: Common Sense Determinant(s): Primary key(s): Lowest normal form first violated:

Answers

In the given relations, some violations of the lowest normal form are identified:

- The relation "Contract" violates the first normal form (1NF) due to the repeating group of attributes.

- The other relations, "Instruction," "StudentSport," "Account," and "Shipping," do not have any violations and are in at least the first normal form (1NF).

Overall, it is important to identify and eliminate any violations of the lowest normal form to ensure data integrity, eliminate redundancy, and enable efficient database management. Normalization helps in achieving these goals by organizing data into well-structured relations.

a. Contract:

Determinant(s): ContractID, ConsultantID, EmployeeID

Primary key(s): ContractID

Lowest normal form violation: The violation is in the first normal form (1NF) because there is a repeating group of attributes (ConsultantID, ConsultantName, EmployeeID, EmployeeName) within the relation.

Instruction:

Determinant(s): StudentID, CourseID

Primary key(s): StudentID, CourseID

Lowest normal form violation: There is no violation of the lowest normal form in this relation.

StudentSport:

Determinant(s): StudentID

Primary key(s): StudentID

Lowest normal form violation: There is no violation of the lowest normal form in this relation.

Account:

Determinant(s): CustomerID, BankID

Primary key(s): CustomerID, BankID

Lowest normal form violation: There is no violation of the lowest normal form in this relation.

Shipping:

Determinant(s): RoutNo

Primary key(s): RoutNo

Lowest normal form violation: There is no violation of the lowest normal form in this relation.

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How does enterprise architecture support business goals and strategy?

Answers

Enterprise architecture supports business goals and strategy in the following ways:1. Aligns IT with Business Goals: Enterprise architecture provides a structured way to ensure that IT initiatives are aligned with business goals. By aligning the organization's information technology with its goals, the organization can focus its resources on achieving its objectives.

2. Better Decision Making: Enterprise architecture provides a framework for making better decisions that align with the organization's business goals. The framework provides a common language and approach for stakeholders to use when making decisions about IT investments. It helps stakeholders understand how IT decisions will impact business goals.3. Identifying Opportunities for Business Improvement: Enterprise architecture provides a systematic approach for identifying opportunities for business improvement.

By understanding how the business operates and what the business goals are, the enterprise architect can identify areas where technology can help the organization achieve its goals.4. Improved Efficiency: Enterprise architecture improves efficiency by providing a common approach to managing IT. By standardizing IT processes and technologies, the organization can reduce complexity, increase efficiency, and reduce costs.5. Ensuring Regulatory Compliance: Enterprise architecture helps ensure regulatory compliance by providing a framework for managing information. The framework provides guidance on how to manage data, systems, and processes to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements.

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Case Study Two As the revenue manager of a 400 room Hotel Seascape, you are evaluating options for allocating 150 unsold guest rooms for the first week of July (you have already sold 250 rooms). • The sales department believes they can sell 120 rooms at $190.00 per room directly (i.e., through the hotel website). Under the hotel's franchise agreement, there is a 5% fee on revenue generated from direct sales. • The front office manager believes that 135 rooms may sell if listed on the CRS at 25% off the rack rate of $240.00. Fees for using the CRS are $8.00 per each room reserved. • An IDS is willing to pay the hotel $160.00 for the 140 rooms and charge you $6.00 per room reserved. Required 1) Given this information, to which channel would you allocate the 150 rooms and why? Your decision must be supported with appropriate calculations. 2) If the first week of July is a high season period, would this change your decision? Briefly explain why or why not.

Answers

Based on the calculations, allocating the 150 unsold guest rooms through the CRS listing at a 25% discount off the rack rate would generate the highest net revenue.

During high season, it is advisable to reassess the pricing strategy, as increasing prices for direct sales through the hotel website may make it a more lucrative option compared to the CRS listing.

1) To determine the channel to allocate the 150 unsold guest rooms, we need to compare the potential revenue generated from each option. Let's evaluate the three channels:

Option 1: Direct Sales through Hotel Website:

- Price per room: $190.00

- Number of rooms sold: 120

- Revenue generated: $190.00 * 120 = $22,800.00

- 5% fee on revenue: $22,800.00 * 0.05 = $1,140.00

- Net revenue: $22,800.00 - $1,140.00 = $21,660.00

Option 2: CRS Listing at 25% off Rack Rate:

- Rack rate per room: $240.00

- Discounted rate: $240.00 - (25% * $240.00) = $180.00

- Number of rooms sold: 135

- Revenue generated: $180.00 * 135 = $24,300.00

- CRS fees: $8.00 * 135 = $1,080.00

- Net revenue: $24,300.00 - $1,080.00 = $23,220.00

Option 3: IDS Purchase:

- Price offered per room: $160.00

- Number of rooms sold: 140

- Revenue generated: $160.00 * 140 = $22,400.00

- IDS fees: $6.00 * 140 = $840.00

- Net revenue: $22,400.00 - $840.00 = $21,560.00

Based on the calculations, the option that generates the highest net revenue is Option 2: CRS Listing at 25% off Rack Rate. This option yields a net revenue of $23,220.00, which is the highest among the three channels.

2) If the first week of July is a high season period, it may change the decision. During high season, demand is typically higher, and customers may be willing to pay higher prices. In such a scenario, it would be advisable to reassess the pricing strategy for direct sales through the hotel website. Increasing the price per room may allow for higher revenue and potentially make it a more lucrative option compared to the CRS listing. However, further analysis and market research would be necessary to determine the optimal pricing strategy during the high season and whether it would affect the decision to allocate rooms through the CRS or direct sales.

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In an EOQ model, the EOQ is originally determined at 100 units. When the demand rate is doubled, the new EOQ should be adjusted to O 100÷2=50 10 × 2 = 200 100 x √√2 = 141 100 x 4 = 400

Answers

When the demand rate is doubled, the new EOQ should be adjusted to 100 x √√2 = 141.  Therefore, the correct option is: 100 x √√2 = 141.

How to solve for the new EOQ ?

The formula for calculating EOQ is: EOQ = √(2DS / H)

Where:

D = Demand

S = Ordering cost

H = Holding cost

When the demand rate is doubled, the demand variable (D) is multiplied by 2.

That means, we can rewrite the formula as: EOQ = √(2DS(2) / H).

Now, let's consider the original EOQ as 100 units.

That means we already know D, S and H. We just have to plug in these values and solve for EOQ as follows:

100 = √(2 x D x S / H)100² = 2 x D x S / HD² x H / 2S = D = 100 x H / 2S...equation 1.

Doubling the demand rate means we have a new-

D = 2 x 100 x H / 2S = 100 x H / S.

Plugging this value in the original formula:

EOQ = √(2DS(2) / H)

EOQ = √(2 x 100 x H / S x S x 2 / H)

EOQ = 100 x √√2 / 1

EOQ = 100 x √√2 / 1 = 100 x √2 / √2

= 100 x 1.41 = 141.

Therefore, the new EOQ should be adjusted to 141.

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Cole Ltd sells 45,000 units each year. The budgeted profit statement for next year is as follows:
$
$
Sales (45,000 units at $37.50)
1,687,500
Direct materials
360,000
Direct labour
270,000
Variable production overhead
180,000
Fixed production overhead
133,500
(943,500)
Gross profit
744,000
Variable selling costs
90,000
Fixed selling costs
60,000
(150,000)
Net profit
594,000
Required:
Based on the budgeted figures above, calculate:
(i) The sales revenue needed to break-even.
(ii) The margin of safety expressed as a percentage of sales revenue.
(iii) The number of units that would have to be sold to earn a profit of $28,000.

Answers

(i) The sales revenue needed to break-even is $1,093,500.

(ii) The margin of safety expressed as a percentage of sales revenue is 35.17%.

(iii) The number of units that would have to be sold to earn a profit of $28,000 is approximately 0.04 units (more units would need to be sold).

(i) The sales revenue needed to break-even can be calculated by adding up all the costs and expenses and then adding the desired profit.

Break-even sales revenue = Total costs + Desired profit

Given:

Direct materials: $360,000

Direct labour: $270,000

Variable production overhead: $180,000

Fixed production overhead: $133,500

Variable selling costs: $90,000

Fixed selling costs: $60,000

Desired profit: $0 (break-even)

Total costs = Direct materials + Direct labour + Variable production overhead + Fixed production overhead + Variable selling costs + Fixed selling costs

Total costs = $360,000 + $270,000 + $180,000 + $133,500 + $90,000 + $60,000

Total costs = $1,093,500

Break-even sales revenue = Total costs + Desired profit

Break-even sales revenue = $1,093,500 + $0

Break-even sales revenue = $1,093,500

Therefore, the sales revenue needed to break-even is $1,093,500.

(ii) The margin of safety can be calculated by subtracting the break-even sales revenue from the actual sales revenue, and then dividing it by the actual sales revenue.

Margin of safety = (Actual sales revenue - Break-even sales revenue) / Actual sales revenue

Given:

Actual sales revenue = $1,687,500 (as per the budgeted profit statement)

Break-even sales revenue = $1,093,500 (calculated in part (i))

Margin of safety = ($1,687,500 - $1,093,500) / $1,687,500

Margin of safety = $594,000 / $1,687,500

Margin of safety = 0.3517 or 35.17% (rounded to two decimal places)

Therefore, the margin of safety expressed as a percentage of sales revenue is 35.17%.

(iii) The number of units that would have to be sold to earn a profit of $28,000 can be calculated by dividing the desired profit by the contribution margin per unit.

Contribution margin per unit = Sales price per unit - Variable cost per unit

Given:

Sales price per unit = $37.50 (as per the budgeted profit statement)

Variable cost per unit = Direct materials + Direct labour + Variable production overhead

Variable cost per unit = $360,000 + $270,000 + $180,000

Variable cost per unit = $810,000

Contribution margin per unit = $37.50 - $810,000 = -$772,500 (negative because the costs exceed the price)

To earn a profit of $28,000:

Number of units to be sold = Desired profit / Contribution margin per unit

Number of units to be sold = $28,000 / (-$772,500)

Number of units to be sold = -0.0362 or approximately -0.04 units

Since the result is negative, it means that the company would need to sell more units than currently budgeted to earn a profit of $28,000.

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Consider a market with the inverse demand function P(q) = a − bq, where a and b are positive constants. The cost function of the firm under consideration is C(q) = cq where 0

Answers

In the given market scenario, where the inverse demand function is P(q) = a - bq and the cost function is C(q) = cq (where c > 0), we need to determine the optimal level of output and price for the firm.

To find the optimal output level, we can set the marginal cost (MC) equal to the marginal revenue (MR), as profit maximization occurs when these two are equal.

The marginal cost is the derivative of the cost function, which is MC(q) = c. The marginal revenue can be calculated using the inverse demand function: MR(q) = P(q) + q * dP/dq. Taking the derivative of the inverse demand function, we have dP/dq = -b. Substituting these values into the marginal revenue equation, we get MR(q) = a - bq - bq = a - 2bq.

Now, equating MC and MR, we have c = a - 2bq. Solving for q, we find q = (a - c) / (2b).

To determine the price, we substitute the optimal output level into the inverse demand function: P(q) = a - bq. Thus, the price is P = a - b * ((a - c) / (2b)). Simplifying, we get P = (2a + c) / 2.

The optimal output level for the firm is q = (a - c) / (2b), and the corresponding price is P = (2a + c) / 2.

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The following table snows the annual average data on the employment status of the U.S. civilian noninstitutional population by age in 2016. Employed Unemployed Not in Labor Force Age (Thousands of People) (Thousands of People) (Thousands of people) 16 to 19 years 4,965 925 10,824 20 to 24 years 14,027 1,286 6,408 25 to 54 years 98,004 4,244 23,513 55 to 64 years 25,524 941 14,843 65 years and over 8,916 355 38,763 Total 151,436 7,751 94,351 Source: "Labor Force Statistics from the Current Population Survey."Bureau of Labor Statistics. What is the national unemployment rate? O 3.1% 4.9% O 8.2% O 59.3% Complete the following table by computing the unemployment rate for each age group. Age Unemployment Rate 16 to 19 years 20 to 24 years 25 to 54 years 55 to 64 years 65 years and over Which of the following groups has an unemployment rate lower than the national average unemployment rate? Check all that apply. 16 to 19 years 20 to 24 years 25 to 54 years 55 to 64 years 65 years and over

Answers

The national unemployment rate is 4.9%. The age groups with unemployment rates lower than the national average are 16 to 19 years and 20 to 24 years.

To calculate the unemployment rate, we need to divide the number of unemployed individuals by the total labor force (employed + unemployed) and multiply by 100 to express it as a percentage.

For the national unemployment rate, we sum up the number of unemployed individuals across all age groups and divide it by the total labor force:

National Unemployment Rate = (Total Unemployed / Total Labor Force) * 100

Using the given data, the total unemployed individuals are 7,751, and the total labor force is the sum of the employed and unemployed individuals, which is 151,436 + 7,751 = 159,187.

National Unemployment Rate = (7,751 / 159,187) * 100 = 4.9%

To calculate the unemployment rate for each age group, we divide the number of unemployed individuals in each age group by the total labor force in that age group:

Unemployment Rate = (Unemployed in Age Group / Total Labor Force in Age Group) * 100

For the age groups:

16 to 19 years: Unemployed = 925, Total Labor Force = 4,965 + 925 = 5,890

Unemployment Rate = (925 / 5,890) * 100 ≈ 15.7%

20 to 24 years: Unemployed = 1,286, Total Labor Force = 14,027 + 1,286 = 15,313

Unemployment Rate = (1,286 / 15,313) * 100 ≈ 8.4%

25 to 54 years: Unemployed = 4,244, Total Labor Force = 98,004 + 4,244 = 102,248

Unemployment Rate = (4,244 / 102,248) * 100 ≈ 4.2%

55 to 64 years: Unemployed = 941, Total Labor Force = 25,524 + 941 = 26,465

Unemployment Rate = (941 / 26,465) * 100 ≈ 3.6%

65 years and over: Unemployed = 355, Total Labor Force = 8,916 + 355 = 9,271

Unemployment Rate = (355 / 9,271) * 100 ≈ 3.8%

The national unemployment rate is 4.9%. The age groups with unemployment rates lower than the national average are 16 to 19 years (15.7%) and 20 to 24 years (8.4%).

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1–B.) Show a situation where this farmer is making economic profits. Explain what is likely to
happen in this market as a result of this condition. Assume that this one farmer is one of many
farmers making an economic profit and the high prices that lead to the economic profit has a very
strong influence on potential market participants.

Answers

One situation where the farmer is making economic profits is where the price of the product is high in the market due to either increased demand or decreased supply. In this situation, the farmer is making an economic profit because the revenue received from the sale of the product is greater than the costs incurred in producing it.

For instance, if the price of maize increases due to an increased demand for maize products such as animal feed, the farmer producing maize will earn an economic profit.

When one farmer is making an economic profit, other farmers will likely enter the market to share in the profits. This is because potential market participants will see the high returns earned by the farmer and seek to benefit from the same returns. As a result, the increased competition will result in a higher supply of the product, leading to a decrease in the price of the product in the market.

When the price decreases, the farmers will incur normal profits, which are equal to the opportunity cost of production. Normal profits occur when the revenue earned from the sale of the product is equal to the costs incurred in producing it, including the opportunity cost of production. Thus, the high prices that lead to the economic profit will be short-lived as more farmers enter the market, increasing the supply and decreasing the price of the product.

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nearly two-thirds of the states have enacted criminal codes based on the uniform criminal code (ucc).

Answers

The Uniform Criminal Code (UCC) is a comprehensive document that was developed in order to provide states with a basic structure for their criminal law. Nearly two-thirds of the states have enacted criminal codes based on the UCC. These codes are designed to provide a consistent framework for criminal law across the country

Nearly two-thirds of the states have enacted criminal codes based on the Uniform Criminal Code. These codes are designed to provide a consistent framework for criminal law across the country. This helps to ensure that people are treated fairly and that the law is applied consistently regardless of where they live. The Uniform Criminal Code (UCC) is a comprehensive document that was developed in order to provide states with a basic structure for their criminal law. The UCC was created in order to make it easier for states to adopt common criminal codes, and to provide a uniform framework for criminal law across the country. The UCC is a model code that has been developed by the American Law Institute. It is designed to provide a framework for criminal law that is consistent across the country. The UCC is not a law in and of itself, but rather a model code that states can adopt in whole or in part. There are a number of benefits to using the UCC as a basis for criminal law. First, it helps to ensure that people are treated fairly and that the law is applied consistently. This is important because people should not be subject to different standards of justice depending on where they live. Second, the UCC helps to promote legal clarity and consistency. By providing a consistent framework for criminal law, the UCC helps to ensure that people understand the law and can comply with it more easily. Finally, the UCC helps to promote efficiency in the criminal justice system. By providing a uniform framework for criminal law, the UCC helps to reduce the time and resources required to prosecute criminals. This helps to ensure that justice is served more quickly and effectively.

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Discuss the benefits and potential challenges of of using electronic procurement cards
2. Discuss three potential procurement objectives

Answers

Using electronic procurement cards (e-procurement cards) offers several benefits, including increased efficiency, enhanced financial control, and improved supplier relationships. However, there are also potential challenges associated with their use, such as security risks and the need for proper training and monitoring. Additionally, three potential procurement objectives include cost savings, supplier diversification, and sustainability.

Electronic procurement cards provide numerous benefits to organizations. Firstly, they improve efficiency by streamlining the procurement process. E-procurement cards enable quick and convenient purchasing, eliminating the need for paper-based requisitions and approvals. This saves time and enables faster order fulfillment. Secondly, e-procurement cards enhance financial control by allowing organizations to set spending limits and track expenses in real-time. This helps prevent overspending and enables better budget management. Lastly, e-procurement cards can strengthen supplier relationships. They provide organizations with detailed transaction data, enabling better negotiation and collaboration with suppliers, leading to potential discounts and improved service.

However, there are challenges associated with e-procurement cards. One major challenge is security risks. The use of electronic cards introduces the potential for unauthorized use, fraud, or data breaches. Organizations must implement robust security measures, such as encryption and user authentication, to mitigate these risks. Another challenge is the need for proper training and monitoring. Users need to be trained on the appropriate use of e-procurement cards to ensure compliance with procurement policies and guidelines. Regular monitoring and audits are also necessary to detect any misuse or fraudulent activities.

When it comes to procurement objectives, organizations often aim for cost savings as a primary objective. By leveraging strategic sourcing, negotiation, and supplier evaluation, organizations can optimize costs and achieve savings in their procurement processes. Supplier diversification is another objective, which involves reducing dependency on a single supplier by engaging with multiple suppliers. This promotes competition, reduces risk, and enhances the organization's bargaining power. Additionally, sustainability has become a significant procurement objective in recent years. Organizations strive to source products and services from environmentally and socially responsible suppliers, aligning with their sustainability goals and values.

By setting and pursuing these procurement objectives, organizations can improve their procurement practices, achieve cost efficiencies, mitigate risks, and contribute to sustainable and ethical sourcing practices.

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Define bull market and bear market. Explain the following technical indicators and discuss their buy signal: (a) bond default spread (b) exponential moving average (c) stochastic.

Answers

A bull market is characterized by rising prices and positive sentiment, while a bear market has declining prices and negative sentiment; the buy signals for the bond default spread, exponential moving average, and stochastic are a narrowing spread, price crossing above the EMA, and stochastic crossing above the oversold level, respectively.

A bull market is a financial market characterized by rising prices and positive investor sentiment, typically accompanied by optimism and a belief that upward price trends will continue. It is associated with increasing buying activity and often represents a strong economy.

(a) Bond default spread: The bond default spread is the difference in yields between a government bond and a corporate bond. A widening bond default spread indicates increased credit risk and investor concerns about the potential for corporate bond defaults. A buy signal in this context would occur when the bond default spread narrows, signaling reduced credit risk and increased investor confidence in corporate bonds.

(b) Exponential moving average (EMA): The exponential moving average is a technical indicator that calculates the average price of a security over a specific period, giving more weight to recent prices. A buy signal occurs when the security's price crosses above its EMA, indicating a potential upward trend and suggesting it may be a good time to buy the security.

(c) Stochastic: Stochastic is a momentum indicator used to identify overbought and oversold conditions in a security. It compares the security's closing price to its price range over a specified period. A buy signal is generated when the stochastic oscillator crosses above the oversold level (typically below 20), indicating a potential upward reversal and suggesting a buying opportunity.

It's important to note that technical indicators provide insights into market trends and potential buy or sell signals, but they should be used in conjunction with other analysis tools and considerations to make informed investment decisions.

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he free market economic system has both benefits and problems. Discuss the key market imperfections that exist and in particular highlight the imperfections that the Australian Government should have a role in addressing. Include reasons as to why the Australian Government should address these imperfections.

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The free market economic system, while providing numerous benefits, also faces certain imperfections or market failures that can hinder its efficient functioning. In the Australian context, there are several market imperfections that the government should address.

Let's discuss some of these key imperfections and the reasons why the Australian Government should intervene:

Externalities: Externalities occur when the actions of producers or consumers impose costs or benefits on others who are not directly involved in the transaction. For example, pollution from industrial activities can impose costs on society in terms of environmental degradation and health effects. The government should intervene to address negative externalities through regulations, taxes, or subsidies to incentivize environmentally friendly practices and internalize the costs.

Market Power and Monopolies: In some industries, firms may have significant market power, leading to reduced competition and potential exploitation of consumers. Monopolies or oligopolies can limit consumer choices, result in higher prices, and hinder innovation. The government can regulate such industries to ensure fair competition, prevent abuse of market power, and protect consumer welfare.

Public Goods: Public goods are non-excludable and non-rivalrous in consumption, meaning that individuals cannot be excluded from benefiting, and one person's consumption does not diminish the availability for others. Examples include national defense, public infrastructure, and basic research. Due to the non-excludability, private markets may underprovide public goods, as firms have no incentive to produce them. The government should step in to provide and finance public goods for the benefit of society.

Information Asymmetry: Information asymmetry occurs when one party in a transaction has more information than the other, leading to market inefficiencies. For instance, in financial markets, borrowers may have more information about their creditworthiness than lenders. The government can address this by implementing regulations to ensure transparency, enforce disclosure requirements, and protect consumers from fraudulent or misleading practices.

Income Inequality and Social Safety Nets: The free market system can lead to unequal distribution of income and wealth, resulting in social disparities and potential social unrest. The government should address income inequality through progressive taxation, welfare programs, and social safety nets to ensure a more equitable distribution of resources and provide a safety net for vulnerable individuals and communities.

The Australian Government should address these market imperfections for several reasons:

Enhancing Efficiency: Addressing market imperfections can lead to more efficient resource allocation, improved market competition, and higher overall economic efficiency.

Ensuring Fairness and Equity: Government intervention can promote fairness by preventing exploitation, reducing income inequality, and ensuring the provision of essential public goods and services.

Safeguarding Public Interest: The government has a responsibility to protect the public interest by addressing externalities, ensuring consumer protection, and maintaining the stability and integrity of the market system.

Promoting Long-Term Sustainability: Government intervention can contribute to sustainable development by addressing environmental challenges, promoting responsible business practices, and supporting innovation and research in critical areas.

While the free market economic system offers numerous benefits, it is not immune to imperfections or market failures. The Australian Government should play a role in addressing market imperfections, such as externalities, market power, information asymmetry, provision of public goods, income inequality, and social safety nets. By intervening strategically, the government can promote efficiency, fairness, and the long-term sustainability of the Australian economy while safeguarding the public interest.

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Case study ( Competitors and strategy of Shopee in Vietnam)

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Shopee maintains its competitive edge by focusing on user experience, offering competitive prices, providing a wide range of products, and leveraging social media and influencer marketing.

In Vietnam's competitive e-commerce market, Shopee faces strong competition from other major players like Lazada and Tiki. To differentiate itself and attract customers, Shopee adopts several strategies. Firstly, it prioritizes user experience by providing a user-friendly platform, seamless payment options, and efficient delivery services. Secondly, Shopee offers competitive prices and frequently runs promotions and discounts to entice customers. Thirdly, the platform emphasizes a wide range of products, including fashion, electronics, and groceries, to cater to diverse customer preferences.

Moreover, Shopee leverages social media and influencer marketing to engage with its target audience. It actively collaborates with popular influencers and utilizes social media platforms to promote its products and engage with customers. Additionally, Shopee organizes events like Shopee Mall and Shopee Super Sale to drive customer traffic and boost sales.

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Apple cider is produced in a perfectly competitive market. Firms are identical and all have the short run cost function
C(q) = 50+ 50q+q²
Assume that there are 10 firms in this industry. The market demand for cider is
D(p) = 400 - p
(a) What is the short run equilibrium price?
(b) What would be the deadweight loss if the price was mandated to be p = 120?

Answers

a) The short run equilibrium price is  approximately $-4.76.

b) The deadweight loss if the price was mandated to be p = 120, in this case would be 180 units of cider.

(a) To determine the short-run equilibrium price in a perfectly competitive market, we need to find the market quantity demanded and supplied at the point where the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied.

In a perfectly competitive market, the short-run equilibrium occurs when the market price (p) is equal to the marginal cost (MC) of the firms.

Given that each firm's cost function is C(q) = 50 + 50q + q², we can find the marginal cost function by taking the derivative of the cost function with respect to quantity (q):

MC(q) = dC(q)/dq = 50 + 2q

Since all firms in the market are identical, the industry's supply curve is the sum of the marginal cost curves of each firm, multiplied by the number of firms. Therefore, the industry's supply curve is:

Market Supply: Qs = 10 * MC(q) = 10 * (50 + 2q)

The market quantity demanded (Qd) can be obtained from the market demand function: D(p) = 400 - p. Rearranging this equation to solve for quantity (Qd):

Qd = 400 - p

Setting Qs equal to Qd and solving for quantity (q):

10 * (50 + 2q) = 400 - p

500 + 20q = 400 - p

20q + p = 100

Since the equilibrium occurs when Qs = Qd, we can substitute the value of q obtained from the equation above into either the supply or demand equation to find the equilibrium price. Using the demand equation:

Qd = 400 - p

10 * (50 + 2q) = 400 - p

10 * (50 + 2(100 - p)) = 400 - p

500 + 20p = 400 - p

21p = -100

p = -100/21

The equilibrium price is approximately $-4.76.

(b) To calculate the deadweight loss if the price was mandated to be p = 120, we need to compare the quantity demanded and supplied at this mandated price with the equilibrium quantity.

At a mandated price of p = 120, we can substitute this value into the demand equation to find the quantity demanded (Qd):

Qd = 400 - p

Qd = 400 - 120

Qd = 280

To find the quantity supplied (Qs) at this mandated price, we substitute p = 120 into the market supply equation:

Qs = 10 * (50 + 2q)

Qs = 10 * (50 + 2(100 - p))

Qs = 10 * (50 + 2(100 - 120))

Qs = 10 * (50 + 2(-20))

Qs = 10 * (50 - 40)

Qs = 100

The deadweight loss can be calculated as the difference between the quantity demanded and the quantity supplied at the mandated price:

Deadweight Loss = Qd - Qs

Deadweight Loss = 280 - 100

Deadweight Loss = 180

The deadweight loss in this case would be 180 units of cider.

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On April 1, Barry called Sam on the telephone and offered to purchase Sam’s house in Brooklyn for $300,000, with a down payment to be made by Barry of 10 percent of the purchase price. They also agreed to schedule the closing for May 1. Sam accepted the telephone offer immediately and the next day, received and deposited Barry’s down payment check for $30,000. On April 1, Barry also called Judy, who owns a retail furniture store in Queens, and ordered new furniture, for $1500, to be delivered to Barry’s new house and paid for on May 2. On April 25, Barry changed his mind about both of his decisions. He notified Sam and Judy that he did not intend to go through with either contract. In the following two lawsuits, Barry pleads the statute of frauds as his defense. In an action by Sam against Barry for breach of contract, judgment for whom? Explain fully. In an action by Judy against Barry for breach of contract, judgment for whom? Explain fully

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In the case between Sam and Barry, the judgment would likely be in favor of Sam. This is because the statute of frauds, which requires certain contracts to be in writing to be enforceable, does not apply to the sale of real estate if there has been part performance, such as the acceptance of the down payment and the immediate acceptance of the offer by Sam. In the case between Judy and Barry, the judgment would likely be in favor of Judy. While the statute of frauds may apply to the purchase of furniture, there are exceptions when the goods have been specially manufactured for the buyer and are not suitable for sale to others. In this case, the furniture was ordered specifically for Barry's new house, and therefore, the statute of frauds defense may not be valid.

The statute of frauds is a legal doctrine that requires certain contracts to be in writing to be enforceable. It aims to prevent fraudulent or false claims by requiring written evidence of the agreement. However, there are exceptions to the statute of frauds, such as part performance and specially manufactured goods.

In the case between Sam and Barry, the acceptance of the down payment and the immediate acceptance of the offer by Sam constitute part performance. Part performance refers to actions taken by the parties that indicate their intention to fulfill the contract. As a result, the statute of frauds defense may not be valid, and Sam could seek judgment for breach of contract against Barry.

In the case between Judy and Barry, the purchase of furniture falls under the sale of goods, which is subject to the statute of frauds. However, an exception to the statute applies when the goods are specially manufactured for the buyer and are not suitable for sale to others.

Since Judy's furniture was ordered specifically for Barry's new house, it can be argued that the furniture is not suitable for sale to others, and therefore, the statute of frauds defense may not be valid. Judy could seek judgment for breach of contract against Barry.

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what should be the primary purpose of the talent management process?

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The primary purpose of the talent management process is to identify, attract, develop, and retain the best employees in an organization.

It is a set of practices that involve the recruitment, selection, and training of employees to meet the strategic objectives of the organization and improve the performance of employees. There are several reasons why talent management is important. The first reason is that it helps organizations to identify the skills and knowledge required to perform specific jobs. This helps organizations to recruit employees who are a good fit for the job. The second reason is that it helps organizations to develop employees' skills and knowledge. By providing training and development opportunities, employees can become more skilled and productive.

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What is associate thinking?
What is Myers Briggs?
What is Jung’s 8 Cognitive process?

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Associate thinking, also known as associative thinking, is a cognitive process that involves connecting and linking ideas, concepts, or information based on similarities, relationships, or patterns. It is the ability to form associations between different elements and draw conclusions or generate new ideas through these connections. Associate thinking allows individuals to recognize patterns, make connections, and generate insights by linking related concepts.

The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is a widely used personality assessment tool developed by Katherine Briggs and her daughter Isabel Myers. It is based on the theories of Swiss psychologist Carl Jung. The MBTI assesses individuals based on four dichotomies: extraversion (E) vs. introversion (I), sensing (S) vs. intuition (N), thinking (T) vs. feeling (F), and judging (J) vs. perceiving (P). These preferences are combined to create sixteen different personality types, providing insights into an individual's preferences, strengths, and potential areas for growth.

Jung's eight cognitive processes, also referred to as the eight mental functions, are fundamental ways in which individuals perceive and process information. These cognitive processes include extraverted thinking (Te), introverted thinking (Ti), extraverted feeling (Fe), introverted feeling (Fi), extraverted sensing (Se), introverted sensing (Si), extraverted intuition (Ne), and introverted intuition (Ni). Each cognitive process represents a different way of gathering information, making decisions, and orienting oneself to the world.

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19. (Comprehensive problem) Over the past few​
years, Microsoft founder Bill​ Gates' net worth has fluctuated
between​ $20 billion and​ $130 billion. In early​ 2006, it was
about​ $26

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If the "current natives" seek a 4 percent yearly return on the initial purchase price of $24, Bill must pay $395.52 for Manhattan Island 387 years later.

The calculation is as follows:

Calculation of the cost of Manhattan Island for Bill -

The initial cost was $24

Return on investment purchase price - 4% yearly return

Duration: 387 years

Simple interest calculation: The total amount due is equal to $24 multiplied by (1 + 4 100 387).

FV - Final value is used here.

P is the primary sum.

yearly interest rate is r.

time in years, t = $395.52

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If the effect of an improvement in consumer preferences is greater than an increase in factor prices for a particular good X, we can expect a. Equilibrium price and quantities to rise O
b. The outcome cannot be determined with certainty c. Equilibrium price and quantities to fall d. Equilibrium price will fall, quantities will rise e. Equilibrium price will rise, quantities will fall

Answers

If the effect of an improvement in consumer preferences is greater than an increase in factor prices for a particular good X, we can expect Equilibrium price and quantities to rise.

When we see the effect of an improvement in consumer preferences is greater than an increase in factor prices for a particular good X, then it means that the consumer preference is high and it directly affects the demand for a good X and it will raise the demand for good X.

This increase in demand leads to an increase in the equilibrium price and quantities. In this case, suppliers will supply more good X to meet the demand of the consumer, and it will raise the supply of good X in the market. The equilibrium price will rise as there is an increase in demand and the equilibrium quantity will rise as the quantity supplied is increased to meet the demand. Hence, the correct answer is option A. Equilibrium price and quantities to rise.

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Virtual team leaders need to follow the same protocols for team success as their F2F counterparts by helping the team to do the following.
Define the goal and be sure there is team consensus.
Virtual team members should all be involved in developing the goal as a way to enhance their ownership and successful attainment of the goal.
Define members' roles.
Develop schedules (including meeting schedules), timelines, and due dates.
Establish processes and protocols.
Determine report out and feedback process.
Agree on the technology that will be used for team communication and establish that everyone is comfortable with it and skilled at using it.
Maintain a sense of dynamic interaction with the team to eliminate any issues with procrastination that might arise due to geographic isolation.

Answers

Virtual team leaders play a crucial role in ensuring the success of their teams by following similar protocols as face-to-face (F2F) counterparts.

To achieve this, they need to focus on the following key aspects: Goal Definition and Consensus: Virtual team leaders should actively involve all team members in defining the team's goal. This participation fosters a sense of ownership and increases the likelihood of successful goal attainment.

Role Definition: Clearly defining members' roles within the virtual team helps establish individual responsibilities and promotes effective collaboration. This clarity avoids confusion and ensures smooth teamwork.

Schedules and Timelines: Virtual team leaders need to develop schedules, timelines, and due dates to provide structure and direction to the team's activities. This helps in managing time effectively and meeting project milestones.

Processes and Protocols: Establishing clear processes and protocols for team communication, decision-making, and problem-solving is essential for virtual teams. These guidelines ensure consistency and enable efficient coordination.

Reporting and Feedback: Determining the reporting and feedback process allows virtual team leaders to track progress, identify issues, and provide necessary support. Regular feedback and communication help maintain accountability and drive improvement.

Technology Selection: Agreement on the technology to be used for team communication is vital. Virtual team leaders should ensure that everyone is comfortable and skilled in utilizing the chosen tools to facilitate effective collaboration and seamless communication.

Dynamic Interaction: Virtual team leaders should foster a sense of dynamic interaction to counteract potential issues with procrastination caused by geographic isolation. Regular engagement, motivation, and team-building activities are essential to maintain team cohesion and productivity.

By following these protocols, virtual team leaders can create a conducive environment that maximizes team performance, collaboration, and goal achievement, ultimately leading to the success of the virtual team.

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A Limited is a company that sells office furniture in the Cape Town region. As the sales of A Limited are increasing the company needed more storage space for the furniture and moved its furniture out of a warehouse property that it owns in Bellville, into a larger property on 30 June 2018. This Bellville property that it owned was then leased out on 30 June 2018 to an unrelated party under a non-cancellable operating lease. A Limited bought the warehouse property in Bellville on 1 January 2013 for R6 000 000. The land was valued at R2 000 000 and the building was valued at R4 000 000. The estimated useful life of the warehouse building was estimated to be 25 years and the residual value was estimated to be R1 000 000. On 31 December 2016 A Limited decided to revaluc land and buildings for the first time and the fair value of the land was R3 000 000 and the fair value of the warchouse building was R3 000 000.

Answers

Based on the information provided, A Limited is a company that sells office furniture and owns a warehouse property in Bellville.

However, due to the increasing sales and the need for more storage space, the company decided to move its furniture out of the Bellville property and lease it to an unrelated party under a non-cancellable operating lease.

The Bellville property was purchased by A Limited on January 1, 2013, for R6,000,000. The land portion of the property was valued at R2,000,000, and the building portion was valued at R4,000,000. The estimated useful life of the warehouse building was determined to be 25 years, with a residual value of R1,000,000.

On December 31, 2016, A Limited decided to revalue the land and buildings for the first time. The fair value of the land was determined to be R3,000,000, and the fair value of the warehouse building was also R3,000,000.

This information suggests that A Limited made a strategic decision to lease out the Bellville property to generate rental income while utilizing a larger property for its own furniture storage needs. The revaluation of the property in 2016 indicates a potential increase in its market value, which could positively impact the company's financial position.

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Ethics and corruption is increasingly important in the construction sector. You are requested to discuss the issues involved in ensuring the highest ethical standards, from the perspective of a UK based cost management professional services company planning to open a regional office in Abu Dhabi, to operate in the Middle East and Sub-Saharan Africa

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As the construction sector grows, the importance of ethics and corruption control becomes increasingly important. Ethics is a critical aspect of any construction company, particularly those that want to operate in different parts of the world, such as the Middle East and Sub-Saharan Africa.

The United Arab Emirates has enacted strict legislation against corruption in the construction sector, and businesses that operate in the region must adhere to these regulations to avoid legal consequences. The construction industry is subject to various risks, including environmental challenges, economic and legal challenges, and risk management. However, businesses can establish internal control mechanisms to ensure compliance with ethical regulations.

The following measures may be taken to ensure compliance: • Companies should establish clear ethical standards and rules, ensuring that all employees are aware of them. • The introduction of comprehensive training programs for employees to ensure they understand the ethical policies. • Companies can establish an anonymous reporting mechanism for employees to report any unethical practices without fear of retaliation. • The establishment of policies and procedures to ensure that the company complies with ethical regulations. • Employing external auditors to conduct regular inspections of the company's operations to ensure compliance. Companies must have appropriate procedures in place to manage risk and guarantee ethical standards compliance. To expand operations into the Middle East and Sub-Saharan Africa, cost management professional services companies must work closely with regulatory authorities and consider various internal control mechanisms.

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Discuss the need to select an 'appropriate' quality system for a given environment and compare and contrast the needs of engineering and service industries in terms of their application of quality systems and the critical factors needed for success.

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Selecting an appropriate quality system is crucial for achieving success in any given environment. The choice of quality system should align with the specific requirements, characteristics, and objectives of the industry or organization.

Engineering industries typically require robust quality systems that focus on product design, manufacturing processes, and adherence to technical specifications. Quality systems such as ISO 9001 provide a structured approach to quality management, emphasizing standardization, process control, and continuous improvement. The critical factors for success in engineering industries include precise specifications, adherence to regulations and safety standards, rigorous testing and inspection procedures, and efficient supply chain management. In contrast, service industries emphasize customer satisfaction and experience. Quality systems like Six Sigma and Total Quality Management (TQM) are commonly applied in service sectors. These systems focus on understanding customer needs, enhancing service delivery processes, and maintaining consistency in service quality. Critical success factors for service industries include customer feedback and engagement, effective communication, employee training and empowerment, service customization, and continuous evaluation and improvement of service delivery processes.

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According with the EU regulation, how much is the minimum invested capital for an hedge fund?
A) 50,000€
B) 100,000€
C) 250,000€
D) 500,000€

Answers

According to EU regulations, the minimum invested capital required for a hedge fund is typically set at 500,000€. Therefore, the correct option is:

D) 500,000€

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Explain in detail the differences between internal and external metrics and provide an example of each as it relates to the hospitality industry. Choose a hospitality operation (hotel, airline, cruise line, restaurant, private clubs, etc.) and show an example of an internal metrics as well as an example of an external metrics.

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Internal metrics and external metrics are two distinct types of metrics that have varying applications. Internal metrics deal with organizational development and performance, while external metrics measure outside forces that affect the organization, and its stakeholders.

In this context, the hospitality industry encompasses hotels, airlines, cruise lines, restaurants, private clubs, and other related sectors.Examples of internal metrics in the hospitality industryInternal metrics in the hospitality industry focus on the organization's performance and effectiveness. This may include metrics such as employee productivity, operational efficiency, service quality, and employee satisfaction. For example, hotels may use internal metrics to evaluate employee engagement, determine customer satisfaction, and the efficiency of the hotel's operational structure. Other examples of internal metrics in the hospitality industry include employee turnover rates, profitability, and labor costs.A hotel could use internal metrics to measure its operational efficiency. This could include employee productivity, the time it takes to complete tasks, and the effectiveness of the staff in handling customer inquiries and complaints. The hotel could also use internal metrics to track customer satisfaction by conducting surveys or tracking customer feedback. An example of an internal metric for a hotel could be the number of customers who return within six months of their last visit.Examples of external metrics in the hospitality industryExternal metrics in the hospitality industry are metrics that measure the organization's performance relative to its environment. These metrics include factors such as economic indicators, market trends, industry benchmarks, and customer preferences. For example, hotels may use external metrics to evaluate customer demand, analyze market trends, and predict future trends. Other examples of external metrics in the hospitality industry include occupancy rates, revenue per available room, and market share

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Due To The Stock Market Booms, The Real GDP Of Marvel Economy Raises By USD800 Billion. Suppose That The MPC (Or Marginal Propensity To Consume) Is 0.75. A. If It Is Assumed That There Are No Crowding-Out Effect And Investment Accelerator In The Economy, What Should The Government Do If It Wants To Avoid The Overheating By Offsetting The Increase In Real Due to the stock market booms, the real GDP of Marvel economy raises by USD800 billion. Suppose that the MPC (or marginal propensity to consume) is 0.75. a. If it is assumed that there are no crowding-out effect and investment accelerator in the economy, what should the government do if it wants to avoid the overheating by offsetting the increase in real GDP? Show also what happen to the Aggregate Demand graphically. b. With the same assumption as at point (a), if the government of Marvel decides to cut its spending, calculate the multiplier number and the required amount of government spending cut to offset the increase in real GDP. c. If crowding-out effect occurs, explain graphically the conditions in point (b). Will the amount of government spending cut in point (b) be still adequate to offset the rise in real GDP? Explain.

Answers

a. To offset the increase in real GDP and avoid overheating, the government should implement contractionary fiscal policy measures.

In this case, since there are no crowding-out effects and investment accelerator, the government can use fiscal policy tools such as reducing government spending or increasing taxes.

Graphically, the impact on the aggregate demand (AD) can be shown as a leftward shift of the AD curve. The initial increase in real GDP due to the stock market booms is represented by an outward shift of the AD curve. To offset this increase, the government needs to reduce aggregate demand. By reducing government spending or increasing taxes, the AD curve will shift to the left, bringing the economy back to its initial equilibrium level of real GDP.

b. The multiplier effect determines the impact of changes in government spending on the overall economy. The formula for the multiplier is given by 1/(1-MPC), where MPC is the marginal propensity to consume. In this case, the MPC is 0.75, so the multiplier would be 1/(1-0.75) = 4.

To offset the increase in real GDP of USD 800 billion, the government needs to implement contractionary fiscal policy by reducing government spending. The required amount of government spending cut can be calculated by dividing the increase in real GDP by the multiplier.

Amount of government spending cut = Increase in real GDP / Multiplier

Amount of government spending cut = USD 800 billion / 4 = USD 200 billion

Therefore, the government would need to cut its spending by USD 200 billion to offset the increase in real GDP.

c. If crowding-out effects occur, it means that increased government spending crowds out private investment in the economy. Graphically, this is represented by a decrease in private investment (I) as government spending (G) increases.

In this scenario, if crowding-out effects occur, the amount of government spending cut calculated in point (b) may not be adequate to offset the rise in real GDP. The decrease in government spending may lead to a decrease in aggregate demand, but the decrease in private investment could partially or fully offset the intended contractionary effect.

In such a case, the required amount of government spending cut to fully offset the rise in real GDP would be higher than the calculated amount in point (b). The exact amount would depend on the magnitude of the crowding-out effect and the responsiveness of private investment to changes in government spending.

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Colgate Total toothpaste is positioned as the brand that addresses all aspects of oral health. Such positioning is very important from a business point of view. How does positioning help in deciding on a marketing strategy? What are the differences between using "attribute or benefit" and "quality and price" as positioning strategy?

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Positioning is a critical part of any marketing strategy because it defines the product's place in the market. Positioning is the technique of describing a product's features and benefits in relation to other products in the market. It's the act of communicating to consumers what sets a product apart from the competition.



Positioning is a strategic component of a product's marketing plan. It's essential to differentiate a product from its competitors. A brand's positioning may be based on features, benefits, or other value propositions. Positioning plays a vital role in deciding on a marketing strategy because it serves as a roadmap for product development and promotion. The goal of positioning is to establish a clear and attractive image of the brand that will appeal to the target audience. The positioning statement should be simple and concise and communicate the benefits of the brand to the customer.Colloidal Total toothpaste has positioned itself as the brand that addresses all aspects of oral health. This positioning strategy is vital from a business point of view because it provides a clear message to the consumer about the benefits of Colgate Total. The product's unique selling point is that it helps prevent not only cavities but also gum disease, bad breath, plaque, and tooth sensitivity. This gives the consumer a clear idea of the product's benefits, making it easier to promote and sell the product. The marketing strategy for Colgate Total can focus on educating consumers about the benefits of the product, such as gum health, plaque control, and cavity protection.Differences between using "attribute or benefit" and "quality and price" as positioning strategy:The two main positioning strategies are "attribute or benefit" and "quality and price." Attribute or benefit positioning focuses on the product's unique features and benefits. This type of positioning seeks to differentiate a product from its competitors by highlighting its distinct features. Quality and price positioning focuses on communicating the value of the product in relation to its price. It emphasizes the product's quality over its price or the affordability of the product over its competitors. The major differences between these two strategies are:

Attribute or benefit positioning:

It focuses on unique features and benefits.
It is used to differentiate a product from its competitors.
It communicates the product's unique value proposition.
It focuses on the benefits that the product offers to the consumer.
It emphasizes why the product is better than its competitors.

Quality and price positioning:

It focuses on value proposition.
It communicates the product's value in relation to its price.
It emphasizes the affordability of the product over its competitors.
It focuses on the quality of the product in relation to its price.
It emphasizes why the product offers a better value for the money.

Positioning plays an essential role in deciding on a marketing strategy because it helps to differentiate the product from its competitors. A brand's positioning may be based on features, benefits, or other value propositions. The two primary positioning strategies are attribute or benefit positioning and quality and price positioning. Attribute or benefit positioning focuses on the product's unique features and benefits, while quality and price positioning focuses on communicating the value of the product in relation to its price. It is essential to have a clear positioning statement that communicates the benefits of the brand to the customer.

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These two events occurred in the same city toward the end of calendar year 2022: • City employees earned $89,250 during the last week of December 2022, but were not paid until early January 2023.
• A city sanitation vehicle accidentally sideswiped a parked car in December 2022. The city acknowledges that it was at fault, and its attorneys believe it will need to pay $10,500 to settle the claim. However, the city is slow in settling claims, so it probably won't pay the claim until early 2024. Based on these two events, how much should the city report as expenditures in its financial statements for the year ended December 31, 2022? Select one: a. $89,250 b. $99,750 c. $10,500 d. $0

Answers

The amount that the city should report as expenditures in its financial statements for the year ended December 31, 2022, is $89,250

Expenditures are classified as expenses. An expense is defined as an outflow of resources in order to produce income, reduce liabilities, or enhance the worth of an asset. It occurs when there is a reduction in an asset or an increase in a liability. Therefore, the amount that the city should report as expenditures in its financial statements for the year ended December 31, 2022, is $89,250. The city acknowledges that it was at fault, and its attorneys believe it will need to pay $10,500 to settle the claim. However, the city is slow in settling claims, so it probably won't pay the claim until early 2024. Although the city may report a liability in its financial statements for the year ended December 31, 2022, the city should not report the $10,500 as an expenditure for 2022 because it will not be paid until 2024. Therefore, the correct answer is $89,250.

An expense is defined as an outflow of resources in order to produce income, reduce liabilities, or enhance the worth of an asset. It occurs when there is a reduction in an asset or an increase in a liability. Expenditures are classified as expenses.In this question, the amount that the city should report as expenditures in its financial statements for the year ended December 31, 2022, is $89,250. The reason for this is that city employees earned $89,250 during the last week of December 2022, even though they were not paid until early January 2023. Thus, $89,250 is an expense of the city that was incurred in December 2022, regardless of when it was paid.The city sanitation vehicle accidentally sideswiped a parked car in December 2022. The city acknowledges that it was at fault, and its attorneys believe it will need to pay $10,500 to settle the claim. However, the city is slow in settling claims, so it probably won't pay the claim until early 2024. Although the city may report a liability in its financial statements for the year ended December 31, 2022, the city should not report the $10,500 as an expenditure for 2022 because it will not be paid until 2024. Therefore, the correct answer is $89,250.

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