Both of the statements in the question above describe the reactions of the nation to the annexation of Texas.
Annexation of Texas refers to the incorporation of Texas as a state of the United States in 1845. Texas had previously been an independent country after gaining its independence from Mexico in 1836. The annexation of Texas was a contentious issue at the time, as it would upset the balance of free and slave states in the United States and could potentially lead to war with Mexico.
Some people believed that it was necessary to expand American territory and strengthen the country's economic and political power. Others were concerned about the issue of slavery, as Texas was a slave state, and the annexation would upset the balance of free and slave states in the United States. Some people also believed that the annexation would lead to war with Mexico, as Mexico still considered Texas to be a part of its territory. These concerns proved to be valid, as the annexation of Texas was one of the causes of the Mexican-American War in 1846.
The annexation of Texas was a significant event in American history, as it expanded the territory of the United States and played a role in the conflict with Mexico.
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You are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for the following types of vehicles that are stationary on the roadway:
For all emergency(such as police, fire, and ambulance) and public safety vehicles with lights flashing on them that are stationary on the roadway, everyone are required to slow down and move over.
We need to move over and provide way for vehicles that are used for public and work for their safety as the people in these vehicles may be providing a service or responding to an emergency situation, and they need to be able to do their job without the risk of being hit by a passing vehicle. Whenever we see one of such vehicles on road you should slow down and move over (if possible) to give them more space and to reduce the risk of an accident. It is an important safety measure that helps protect those working on or near the road.
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According to the laws of most of the states in the USA, drivers are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for all emergency and public safety vehicles with lights flashing.
When you see an emergency vehicle, such as an ambulance, fire truck, or police car, on the side of the road with lights flashing, you must change lanes if it is safe to do so. You should slow down and drive with extra caution when passing by, even if you can't move over to another lane. When driving, keep an eye out for flashing lights in the distance, especially on freeways and busy roads. When you see the flashing lights, look for the type of vehicle and carefully merge into another lane, leaving plenty of space for the emergency vehicle to pass by. This will assist them in arriving at their destination quickly and safely.
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true/false. small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most.
The given statement "small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most." is false as have limited jurisdiction to hear civil cases between private litigants.
Small-claims courts only have limited authority to hear civil disputes involving private parties. Small claims courts may also perform other judicial duties and may go by different names in different jurisdictions. The maximum amount of money that a small-claims court can award in judgments is typically in the tens of thousands of dollars or pounds. The plaintiff typically forfeits any right to seek an amount greater than the court can grant by filing a lawsuit in small claims court. Reducing a claim to meet the requirements of this venue may or may not be permitted by the plaintiff.
Small-claims courts typically have jurisdiction over private disputes involving small sums of money. The routine collection of small debts forms a large portion of the cases brought to small-claims courts, as well as evictions and other disputes between landlords and tenants, unless the jurisdiction is already covered by a tenancy board.
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in the civil trial process,______ are the documents by which each party sets his or her initial case before the court. voir dires demurrers discoveries pleadings
In a civil trial, pleadings are the documents by which each party sets his or her initial case before the court. Thus option d is correct.
A civil trial is a type of court proceeding in which one party tries to hold another party responsible for some harm or wrongdoing that has been done, typically through monetary compensation or other forms of relief.
The defendant, or the person being sued, has the chance to present their case in court as well. A civil trial may be heard before a judge or a jury depending on the circumstances.
Pleadings are the documents by which each party sets their initial case before the court. Pleadings generally include a complaint, an answer, and a counterclaim.
Thus, Pleadings are very important in the civil trial process because they set the stage for the rest of the trial.
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What are the guiding principles for first responders' to take when arriving at a potential crime scene?
When justices on the Sup Ct discover conflicts in the reasoning that supports their decisions, they must sometimes
a. use neither reason
b. draft a new reason to support their decision
c. use both reasons
d. choose one rationale over another
When justices on the Supreme Court discover conflicts in the reasoning that supports their decisions, they must sometimes choose one rationale over another.
The justices may face situations where they must consider multiple legal principles, precedents, and constitutional provisions that may be in conflict with each other. In such cases, they must decide which rationale to prioritize and provide a clear and consistent legal reasoning to support their decision. The justices may also need to draft a new reason to support their decision or use both reasons to explain their position. However, ultimately, they must choose and prioritize one rationale over another to justify their decision.
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The federal Government in the Sunshine Act is part of what?
The Sunshine Act, which the federal government is a part of, mandates that public meetings of government agencies be held, among other things.
What does the Sunshine Act of 1997 mean?The "Sunshine Act" demands transparent meetings of entities that head government agencies. "Every portion of every meeting of an agency shall be open to the public observation," according to the Sunshine Act. The collegial bodies that oversee federal government agencies are subject to this mandate.
Who oversees the Sunshine Act?This Act's clause is frequently referred to as the "Sunshine" Act or clauses. The Act must be implemented, and that responsibility falls on the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
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in which of the following ways does the british democracy differ from most other parliamentary democracies in europe?
The British democracy differs from the majority of other parliamentary democracies in Europe in that the ruling party may adopt policies with essentially no checks from other levels of government.
The Westminster Parliament represents the idea of full power to legislate on all topics, free from any restrictions from underlying principles of international law or human rights, and now also from EU legislation.
The UK is a parliamentary democracy in europe. After the passage of the First Reform Act in 1832, which gave the vote to 7% of males and reallocated house seats for fairer representation, the UK became a democracy. This was the initial reform in a series that aimed to increase the electorate.
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Correct Question:
In what ways does the british democracy differ from most other parliamentary democracies in europe?
Under the ______, courts may be called upon to decide if a state law is invalid because it conflicts with a federal law.
A. minimum rationality approach
B. exclusion clause
C. strict scrutiny approach
D. supremacy clause
E. contract clause
Under the Supremacy Clause, courts may be called upon to decide if a state law is invalid because it conflicts with a federal law.
The Supremacy Clause is a provision in the United States Constitution that establishes the authority of federal law over state law. It essentially states that if there is a conflict between federal law and state law, federal law prevails. This means that state laws that are inconsistent with federal laws can be invalidated by federal courts. The Supremacy Clause is important in maintaining a consistent legal framework across the country, and ensuring that federal laws are not undermined by conflicting state laws.
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Which of the following are the goals of corrections? (Select all that apply.)
treating offenders the way they were treated
executing offenders
protecting the rights of individuals
enabling offenders to function better in society
Protecting the rights of individuals and enabling offenders to function better in society are the goals of corrections.
The goals of corrections are multifaceted and can vary depending on the jurisdiction and the individual offender. One primary goal is to protect the rights of individuals, including those of the offender and the victim. Another goal is to enable offenders to function better in society through rehabilitation and education programs. This includes addressing the underlying issues that led to the criminal behavior, such as substance abuse or mental health problems. In some cases, the goal may be to provide punishment or retribution for the crime committed, but execution is not a common goal in most modern correctional systems. The goal is to create a safer and more just society by addressing the root causes of criminal behavior and preventing recidivism.
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how did the populist movement change the role of the federal government in american society?
The Populist movement of the late 19th century changed the role of the federal government in American society by pushing for reforms to support farmers and laborers.
This included advocating for an expansion of federal powers to regulate interstate commerce and labor. Populists believed that government intervention was needed to create an economic environment that would benefit small producers, laborers, and consumers. The Populist platform was based on their belief that the federal government had a responsibility to protect the welfare of all citizens and to reduce inequality. To achieve this goal, they proposed a number of reforms, including the direct election of U.S. Senators, the establishment of a graduated income tax, the creation of a federal currency, the regulation of railroads, and the creation of public ownership of natural resources.
The Populist movement was ultimately unsuccessful in achieving most of its goals, they proposed several important changes. It established a precedent for greater federal intervention in the economy and the protection of labor rights. The Populist platform also created the framework for the progressive movement of the early 20th century, which would ultimately lead to the creation of the modern welfare state in the United States.
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the internal revenue code and the regulations do not impose penalties on tax return preparers for which of the following?
The following are the penalties on the tax return preparers that the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations do not impose:
An honest mistake or inadvertent error made by a tax return preparer will not result in a penalty. In this case, a tax return preparer may rectify the mistake and file the correct return or refund within a specified time period.
Tax return preparers are not penalized for failing to file an amended return or refund claim after rectifying an error or mistake made in a prior return or refund claim. However, if a tax return preparer is paid for the preparation of an amended return or refund claim, the preparer may be subject to a penalty if the claim or return is incorrect.
The Internal Revenue Code and regulations do not require tax return preparers to register or obtain a preparer tax identification number (PTIN) if they do not file tax returns or make refund claims for compensation. The penalty for non-compliance with this requirement will not be imposed on tax return preparers who do not file tax returns or make refund claims for compensation.
The penalties on the tax return preparers that the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations impose are as follows: Failure to comply with the due diligence requirements, which include checking the validity of Social Security numbers, can result in a penalty of up to $100 per failure. The penalty for failing to sign a tax return or refund claim is $50 per failure.
The penalty for understating the tax liability on a tax return or refund claim is the greater of $1,000 or 50% of the income from the preparation of the return or refund claim. The penalty for the use of abusive tax shelters or any other illegal tax avoidance schemes is $1,000 per taxpayer per year. A taxpayer may also sue a tax return preparer for damages if the preparer engages in fraudulent or deceptive conduct in the preparation of the return or refund claim.
the internal revenue code and the regulations do not impose penalties on tax return preparers for which of the following?
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When deciding an appeal, the appellate court may take all but which of the following actions?
Reverse
Reverse and Remand
Affirm
Concur
In finding prejudicial error, the appellate court may simply reverse (overrule) the lower court. So, the correct answer is reverse and remand.
Alternately, the decision could be to reverse the lower court's decision and remand the matter for a new trial in conformity with the law as stated in the appeals court's opinion.
Reversal vs. remand: what are they?
Reverse: This indicates that the Appellate Court finds the lower court's decision to be incorrect. In this situation, the Appellate Court vacates (cancels) the lower court's judgement. Remand: This is when an appeals court orders a lower court to rehear the entirety of a case.
What are the powers of appellate court in deciding an appeal?
To: (a) finally decide a case; (b) remand a case; (c) frame the issues and refer them to trial; (d) gather more evidence or order the gathering of more evidence.
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Please answer What are some advantages and disadvantages of having so many levels of government below the federal government? Please explain:
Advantages, such as shielding us from tyranny, dispersing power, expanding citizen participation, and increasing effectiveness, as well as disadvantages, such as claiming to protect slavery and segregation.
How is federal government better than?The provincial or local governments can be given orders by the central government. Compared to unitary governments, the federal government is superior because It helps to avoid conflict; Governments share power rather than having it centralized. Under unitary government, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government. The central government can issue directives to the provincial or local governments.
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____: the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.
A political realignment is the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.
In American politics, the term "realignment" refers to the process in which a party's electoral support base undergoes a fundamental shift, resulting in long-term changes in the balance of power between the two major political parties. The electoral realignment can be attributed to a variety of factors, including demographic shifts, significant events or policy decisions, changes in political culture, and changes in party organizations' strategies.
A realignment occurs when a political party undergoes a major shift ins its political ideology and agenda, resulting in significant changes in its base of support. This shift may result in the creation of a new electoral majority, or it may result in a significant weakening or even the complete collapse of a party's former electoral coalition. As a result, the opposing party may rise to power, and a new era of political dominance may emerge.
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When talking to his investment clients, broker Adam often refers to tax shelters. This term typically means?
Explanation:
The term "tax shelter" typically refers to a legal method of reducing taxable income and, therefore, the amount of tax owed. Tax shelters can take many different forms, including investment opportunities such as individual retirement accounts (IRAs), 401(k) plans, and annuities, as well as certain types of business expenses or deductions.
Virtually all parties seeking Supreme Court review must petition the Court for a(n) _____, which commands the lower court to forward the trial records to the Court.
Virtually all parties seeking Supreme Court review must petition the Court for a(n) writ of certiorari , which commands the lower court to forward the trial records to the Court.
A writ of certiorari is a legal order issued by the Supreme Court to the lower court that requires the lower court to send the records of a case to the Supreme Court.
This allows the Supreme Court to review the case and decide whether to hear it. Generally, the Supreme Court will only issue a writ of certiorari when there is a dispute between two or more parties about an issue of law or when one party is asking the Supreme Court to review a lower court's decision.
This is because the Supreme Court only has jurisdiction over cases where there is a dispute of law. Therefore, a writ of certiorari is almost always required when a party is seeking Supreme Court review.
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true/false. When at the zero bound, one of the policy alternatives that we discussed would be for the Fed to lower or eliminate the reserve requirement ratio
One of the policy options we explored was for the Fed to reduce or remove the reserve requirement ratio when it reached the zero bound. True.
The notion that interest rates cannot be decreased farther than zero is known as the "Zero Lower Limit." Historically, central banks have utilised monetary policy to influence the economy's interest rate in order to achieve its budgetary goal (s).
In fact, the Fed used a variety of other tactics to overcome the ZLB restriction after the crisis, including large-scale asset purchases (quantitative easing) and providing market participants with advance information on the direction of interest rates. The ZLB issue was not entirely solved by these policy improvements.
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what is the official retirement age, according to the us government?
According to the US government, the official retirement age is 67 years for those born in 1960 or later.
However, it varies for those born before 1960. In the United States, the retirement age was established with the Social Security Act of 1935. The original retirement age was set at 65 years. But with the passage of time and growing longevity, the retirement age has been adjusted. The government's aim is to ensure that retirees have enough savings to last for the rest of their lives without being dependent on the government. It is also recommended that individuals start saving for retirement as early as possible to ensure they have sufficient funds for their retirement years.
The United States government offers several retirement plans, including Social Security, which is a social insurance program funded by payroll taxes. Medicare, the government's health insurance program for seniors, is another option that individuals can choose to enroll in.
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Question 1
Blood type AB is the rarest blood type, occurring in only 4% of the population in the United States. In Australia, only 1.5% of the population has blood type AB. Suppose a random sample of 50 U.S. residents and 40 Australians is obtained. Consider the random variables described below:
X: the number of US residents (out of 50) with blood type AB.
Y: the number of Australians (out of 40) with blood type AB.
Z: the total number of individuals (out of 90) with blood type AB.
Which of the following is true about the random variables X, Y, and Z? Check all that apply.
X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04
Y is a binomial random variable with n = 30 and p = 0.015
Z is a binomial random variable with n = 90 and p = 0.055
Question 2
In Texas, 30% of parolees from prison return to prison within 3 years. Suppose 15 prisoners are released from a Texas prison on parole. Assume that whether or not one prisoner returns to prison is independent of whether any of the others return to prison. Let the random variable X be the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years. What are the values of the parameters for the binomial random variable X?
n =
p =
X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04, Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015.
The value of n is 15 and p is 0.30 of the parameters for the binomial random variable X
1. X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04
Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015
Z is not a binomial random variable, as it represents the total number of individuals with blood type AB, which is not a fixed number of trials with a constant probability of success.
2. The binomial distribution models the number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials, where each trial has the same probability of success. In this case, X represents the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years, where each parolee is either a success (returns to prison) or a failure (does not return to prison). Since each prisoner's return to prison is independent of the other prisoners' returns, we can model X as a binomial random variable with n = 15 (the number of trials) and p = 0.3 (the probability of success, or the proportion of parolees who return to prison within 3 years).
Therefore, final answer for question 1 is n = 40 and p =0.015 and for question 2 is n = 15 and p = 0.30.
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Although several events in U.S. history led to bureaucratic growth, one event stands out for leading to policy changes that dramatically increased growth in both bureaucratic agencies and personnel. That event was
The New Deal of the 1930's was the most significant event in U.S. history that stood out for leading to policy changes that dramatically increased growth in both bureaucratic agencies and personnel.
The New Deal was a series of programs and policies enacted by President Franklin D. Roosevelt in response to the Great Depression. It was a series of policy changes that enabled the growth of the federal bureaucracy and provided relief to the millions of people who had been affected by the Great Depression. It consisted of a number of programs designed to get people back to work, provide relief to the unemployed, reform the banking system, and regulate industry. The increased growth in both bureaucratic agencies and personnel was during the industrial revolution.
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Paul buys a bottle of Great Wine. He drinks it and becomes very ill. Doctors find the wine contained anti-freeze.Paul may not sue Great Wine because he assumed the risk of drinking alcohol, an inherently dangerous product. a. True
b. False
"Paul buys a bottle of Great Wine. He drinks it and becomes very ill. Doctors find the wine contained anti-freeze. Paul may not sue Great Wine because he assumed the risk of drinking alcohol, an inherently dangerous product" the statement is true.
In this case, it is true that Paul may not sue Great Wine because he assumed the risk of drinking alcohol, an inherently dangerous product. Although the bottle of Great Wine contained anti-freeze, which was the cause of Paul's illness, he still drank the wine voluntarily and as such assumed the risk that comes with drinking alcohol. The consumption of alcohol is considered an inherently dangerous product, as it is widely known to have risks associated with it such as addiction, health issues, and many others. Therefore, Paul can not sue Great Wine for his illness as he assumed the risk of drinking alcohol.Learn more about anti-freeze: https://brainly.com/question/1382943
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the law prohibits anyone under the age of 18 from using any type of wireless device while driving, except in an emergency situation.True or false
In the United States, the answer is partially true. In most states, there are laws restricting the use of wireless devices while driving, especially for young and inexperienced drivers. However, these laws can vary from state to state, and not all states specifically prohibit the use of wireless devices by drivers under the age of 18.
It is important to note that these laws are intended to improve road safety, as the use of wireless devices while driving can significantly increase the risk of accidents. Driver distraction is one of the leading causes of traffic accidents, and the use of wireless devices can increase distraction and the likelihood of accidents.
In summary, in the United States, many laws restrict the use of wireless devices while driving, especially for young and inexperienced drivers. While not all states specifically prohibit the use of wireless devices by drivers under the age of 18, many laws are designed to improve traffic safety and reduce the risk of accidents caused by driver distraction.
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It is true that the law prohibits anyone under the age of 18 from using any type of wireless device while driving, except in an emergency situation.
According to the law it is illegal for anyone under the age of 18 to use any type of wireless device while driving. This also includes talking on the phone, texting, or surfing the internet. Some states have laws that specifically prohibit texting while driving regardless of age. It would be an only exception in case it is an emergency situation, such as calling 911. If anyone use any type of wireless device while driving, sometimes it may lead to dangerous situations like accidents where they put themselves and others also in danger.
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QUESTION 2 "So, the Advocate Dali Mpofu is correct, we can afford free education for all South African children. But where I come from, I do not jubilate at free education, I want to revisit the curriculum; I want to know which publishing companies benefit from the education of our children, where they come from and what their philosophy of education is". Moss Mashamaite (2014). (a) Discuss the above extract with reference to Freire's views on education. (6)
According to the above extract Freire's views on education can be summed up as-
For Freire, education is never neutral. All education is political – either educating to support and maintain the status quo or helping to critique and change reality. Problem-posing education does not and cannot serve the interests of the oppressor.
Education mean today?Education is defined as a cycle of learning that helps a person acquire and understand more complex stuff. According to the training they have received, the knowledge that has been had about a person provides an example of thought and behavior.
The renowned definition of education?Education is an intentional process with certain goals in mind, such as information transmission or the development of abilities and moral character. The growth of comprehension, reason, compassion, and honesty are only a few examples of these objectives.
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Subsidiary sources include writings and commentaries by legal-----------
a.
activists
b.
entities
c.
profession
d.
scholars
Subsidiary sources include writings and commentaries by legal Activists or by publicist, who have great exposure among people.
Therefore, answer is option a. Activists.
Do laws have definitions?Law is a discipline and profession that deals with a community's accepted norms, practices, and standards of conduct. A governing authority is responsible for enforcing the body of regulations.
What is it, and what does it serve?Every members of a community must do by the laws that are done. Laws safeguard our rights as citizens and safeguard our general safety against violations by individuals, groups, and even the government. We have laws to assist ensure our overall safety.
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according to your notes, which of the folowing factors influence the nature of public policy in a state
Public policy refers to the course of action adopted by a government to address a specific issue or problem faced by society.
The nature of public policy in a state is influenced by several factors, including:
Political Ideology: The political ideology of a government plays a crucial role in shaping public policy. The left-leaning governments tend to focus more on social welfare policies, while right-leaning governments tend to focus more on free-market policies.
Public Opinion: The public opinion on a particular issue can shape the direction of public policy. Governments are more likely to act on issues that are considered important to the majority of the population.
Economic Conditions: Economic conditions, such as inflation, unemployment, and GDP growth, can influence the nature of public policy. Governments are more likely to implement policies that address economic challenges.
International Factors: International factors, such as globalization, trade agreements, and diplomatic relations, can shape public policy. Governments must consider how their policies will affect their relationship with other countries.
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How do factors such as political ideology, socio-economic conditions, interest groups and lobbying, public opinion, and international influences impact the development and implementation of public policy in a state?
valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort. valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice T/F
The statement "valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort, valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice" is true because it is considered an unfair labor practice under the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA).
The correct answer is true.
The NLRA is a federal law that protects employees' rights to organize and engage in concerted activity to improve their wages, benefits, and working conditions. This includes the right to form or join a union, bargain collectively with their employer, and engage in other concerted activities for mutual aid and protection.
Valley Mart's statement that employees would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort is considered an unfair labor practice under the NLRA because it is a form of interference, restraint, or coercion that can intimidate employees and chill the exercise of their protected rights.
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Under common law, which of the following was true in regard to arson?a. Negligence was sufficient to establish arsonb. Criminal intent was not necessaryc. The requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completelyd. You could commit arson
Under common law, criminal intent was not necessary in regard to arson. Arson is the criminal act of intentionally and requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completely under common law. Arson was established if the damage or destruction of the property was caused by fire.
Additionally, common law arson was a crime that required actual, malicious intent to set fire to a structure or property. A person could not be convicted of unlawfully setting fire to buildings or other property. Criminal intent was not necessary under the common law of arson. Criminal intent was the foundation for the most serious charges in most criminal cases under the common law, but arson was an exception.
Negligence was insufficient to establish arson under the common law of arson. The arson if they didn't intend to start a fire or cause harm. Common law is a body of law that has been established through legal decisions made by judges over the centuries. The doctrine of precedent is used in common law. The doctrine of precedent, also known as stare decisis, requires that lower courts must follow the decisions of higher courts that have dealt with similar cases in the past.
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Which of the following laws or agencies protects the public from the consequences of risky accounting practices? a.) Title VII. b.) Federal Trade Commission.
The agency that protects the public from the consequences of risky accounting practices is the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).
What is SEC?The SEC, or the Securities and Exchange Commission, was established in 1934 to protect investors from fraudulent or deceptive acts or practices in the securities markets. It's a government agency whose goal is to promote stability and protect the public by ensuring that businesses conduct themselves fairly and transparently.
The SEC safeguards investors, maintains fair, orderly, and efficient markets, and facilitates capital formation by imposing and enforcing regulations. Securities offerings, securities exchanges, and other activities that involve securities come under the SEC's jurisdiction.
Legal issues such as insider trading, misrepresentation, and unregistered securities sales are dealt with by the SEC, which enforces the Securities Act of 1933 and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. The SEC oversees stock exchanges, investment advisors, and financial firms, ensuring that they adhere to financial reporting standards and ethical practices.
The SEC conducts investigations and penalizes companies that do not comply with its rules and regulations. The agency may also suspend trading on stock exchanges and take other measures to safeguard investors from fraudulent activity.
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Which of the following scenarios illustrates how social media has changed the way presidents relate to the public?
A president announcing a major policy initiative via the Internet rather than calling a press conference
The president's budget, State of the Union address, and messages about the need for legislation are all given to Congress in writing form as presidential messages.
What are three formal presidential powers, at the very least?According to the Constitution, the president has the authority to issue executive orders, sign or veto bills, command the armed forces, solicit the written advice of their Cabinet, call or adjourn Congress, grant reprieves and pardons, and welcome ambassadors.
What three express presidential powers are there?Identify international nations. Grant forgiveness. Submit candidates for the Cabinet, the Supreme Court, and other powerful positions. name ambassadors.
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Which federal law requires handicapped access to stadiums?American Liberty ActAmericans with Disabilities ActSafe Movement ActConstruction Modification Act
Answer:
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) is the federal law that requires handicapped access to stadiums.
Explanation:
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) is the federal law that requires handicapped access to stadiums. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) is a civil rights law that prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in all aspects of public life, including transportation, employment, and public accommodations such as stadiums. The Americans with Disabilities Act requires that public accommodations, including stadiums, be accessible to people with disabilities and provide equal access to all patrons. This includes, among other things, providing accessible seating areas, accessible routes of travel, and accessible restroom facilities.
