The magnetic field of a plane-polarized electromagnetic wave moving in the z-direction is given by in SI units. What is the frequency of the wave

Answer:

Explanation:

When plastic balloon is rubbed with wool , charges are created on both balloon and silk in equal amount . Rubber balloon will acquire negative charge and silk will acquire positive charge .

Now when balloon is brought near a wall , there is induction of charge on the wall due to charge on the balloon . On the near surface of wall positive charge is produced and on the surface deep inside the wall negative charge is produced . The charge deep inside goes inside the earth but the positive charge near the surface of wall can not escape . It remains trapped by negative charge on the balloon .

hence there is mutual attraction between balloon and surface of wall is just like attraction between opposite charges . But once the ballon due to mutual attraction comes in contact with the wall , the charge on balloon and on wall neutralises each other and hence after some time the balloon falls off from the wall on the ground . It does not remain attracted to wall for ever . It happens due to neutralisation of charges on balloon and wall .

Answer:

a

    [tex]z= 2.5 \ m[/tex]

b

   [tex]z = (1 \ m , 4 \ m )[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     Their distance apart is  [tex]d = 5.00 \ m[/tex]

      The  wavelength of each source wave [tex]\lambda = 6.0 \ m[/tex]

Let the distance from source A  where the construct interference occurred be z

Generally the path difference for constructive interference is

              [tex]z - (d-z) = m \lambda[/tex]

Now given that we are considering just the straight line (i.e  points along the line connecting the two sources ) then the order of the maxima m =  0

  so

        [tex]z - (5-z) = 0[/tex]

=>     [tex]2 z - 5 = 0[/tex]

=>     [tex]z= 2.5 \ m[/tex]

Generally the path difference for destructive  interference is

           [tex]|z-(d-z)| = (2m + 1)\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]

=>         [tex]|2z - d |= (0 + 1)\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]

=>        [tex]|2z - d| =\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]|2z - 5| =\frac{6}{2}[/tex]

=>      [tex]z = \frac{5 \pm 3}{2}[/tex]

So  

      [tex]z = \frac{5 + 3}{2}[/tex]

      [tex]z = 4\ m[/tex]

and

      [tex]z = \frac{ 5 -3 }{2}[/tex]

=>   [tex]z = 1 \ m[/tex]

=>    [tex]z = (1 \ m , 4 \ m )[/tex]

Answer:

The separation of the two slits is 0.456 mm.

Explanation:

Given the wavelength of light = 519 nm

The indifference pattern = 4.6 m

Adjacent bright fringes = 5.2 mm

In the interference, the equation required is Y = mLR/d

Here, d sin theta = mL

L = wavelgnth

For bright bands, m is the  order = 1,2,3,4  

For dark bands,  m = 1.5, 2.5, 3.5, 4.5

R = Distance from slit to screen (The indifference pattern)

Y = Distance from central spot to the nth  order fringe or fringe width

Thus,  here d = mLR/Y

d = 1× 519nm × 4.6 / 5.2mm

d = 0.459 mm

Answer:

d' = 75.1 cm

Explanation:

It is given that,

The actual depth of a shallow pool is, d = 1 m

We need to find the apparent depth of the water in the pool. Let it is equal to d'.

We know that the refractive index is also defined as the ratio of real depth to the apparent depth. Let the refractive index of water is 1.33. So,

[tex]n=\dfrac{d}{d'}\\\\d'=\dfrac{d}{n}\\\\d'=\dfrac{1\ m}{1.33}\\\\d'=0.751\ m[/tex]

or

d' = 75.1 cm

So, the apparent depth is 75.1 cm.

Answer:

Electric field is zero at point 4.73 m

Explanation:

Given:

Charge place = 50 cm  = 0.50 m

change q1 = 5 µC

change q2 = 4 µC

Computation:

electric field zero calculated by:

[tex]E1 =k\frac{q1}{r^2} \\\\E2 =k\frac{q2}{R^2} \\\\[/tex]

Where electric field is zero,

First distance = x

Second distance = (x-0.50)

So,

E1 = E2

[tex]k\frac{q1}{r^2}=k\frac{q2}{R^2} \\\\[/tex]

[tex]\frac{5}{x^2}=\frac{4}{(x-50)^2} \\\\[/tex]

x = 0.263 or x = 4.73

So,

Electric field is zero at point 4.73 m

Answer:

Number of photons emit per second = 1.9 × 10²⁹  (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Frequency = 91.5 MHz

Power = 11.5 Kw = 11,500 J/s

Find:

Number of photons emit per second

Computation:

Total energy with frequency (E) = hf

Total energy with frequency (E) = 6.626×10⁻³⁴  × 91.5×10⁶

Total energy with frequency (E) = 6.06×10⁻²⁶ J

Number of photons emit per second = 11,500 / 6.06×10⁻²⁶

Number of photons emit per second = 1897.689 × 10²⁶

Number of photons emit per second = 1.9 × 10²⁹  (Approx)

In a closed system the mass is conserved, but the energy is not conserved.

To find the answer, we have to study about different systems in thermodynamics.

Thus, we can conclude that, in closed system the mass is conserved, but the energy is not conserved.

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Answer:

69.58 m tall

Explanation:

Pls see attached file

It depends on what stage of the mission you're talking about.

==>  While it's sitting on the pad before launch, the forces on the rocket are balanced, so there's no net force on it.

==>  When the engines ignite, their thrust (d) is greater than the force of gravity.  So the net force on the rocket is upward, and the spacecraft accelerates upward.

==>  After the engines shut down, the net force acting on the rocket is due to Gravity (c).

. . . If the rocket has enough vertical speed, it escapes the Earth completely, and just keeps going.  

. . . If it has enough horizontal speed, it enters Earth orbit.  

. . . If it doesn't have enough vertical or horizontal speed, it falls back to Earth.    

A rocket will preserve to speed up so long as there's a resultant pressure upwards resulting from the thrust of the rocket engine.

A rocket launches whilst the pressure of thrust pushing it upwards is greater than the burden force because of gravity downwards. This unbalanced pressure reasons a rocket to accelerate upwards. A rocket will maintain to hurry up so long as there's a resultant force upwards resulting from the thrust of the rocket engine.

What's the net pressure of unbalanced?

If the forces on an item are balanced, the net pressure is zero. If the forces are unbalanced forces, the results do not cancel each difference. Any time the forces acting on an object are unbalanced, the net pressure is not 0, and the movement of the item modifications.

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Answer: 56°

Explanation:

Brewster's angle refers to the angle at the point where light of a certain polarization passes through a transparent dielectric surface and is transmitted perfectly such that no reflection is made.

The formula is;

[tex]= Tan^{-1} (\frac{n_{2} }{n_{1}} )[/tex]

[tex]= Tan^{-1} (\frac{1.5 }{1} )[/tex]

= 56.30993247

= 56°

Answer:

the analog along the diameter of the acceleration of the particle executing simple harmonic motion is the projection along the diameter of the centripetal acceleration of the particle in the circle

Answer: 0.0617

Explanation:

Given: The probability of wet weather on any given day in a city of Punjab : p=15%=0.15

Let X be a binomial variable that represents the number of days having wet weather.

Binomial probability formula : [tex]P(X=x)=^nC_xp^x(1-p)^x[/tex], where n= total outcomes, p = probability of success in each outcomes.

Here, n= 7 ( 1 week = 7 days)

The probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days:

[tex]P(X=3)^=\ ^7C_3(0.15)^3(1-0.15)^{7-3}\\\\=\dfrac{7!}{3!(7-3)!}(0.15)^3(0.85)^4\\\\=\dfrac{7\times6\times5}{3\times2}\times 0.003375\times0.52200625\approx0.0617[/tex]

Hence, the required probability =0.0617

Answer:

The projectile strikes the tower at a height of 354.824 meters.

Explanation:

The projectile experiments a parabolic motion, which consist of a horizontal motion at constant speed and a vertical uniformly accelerated motion due to gravity. The equations of motion are, respectively:

Horizontal motion

[tex]x = x_{o}+v_{o}\cdot t \cdot \cos \theta[/tex]

Vertical motion

[tex]y = y_{o} + v_{o}\cdot t \cdot \sin \theta +\frac{1}{2} \cdot g \cdot t^{2}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]x_{o}[/tex], [tex]x[/tex] - Initial and current horizontal position, measured in meters.

[tex]y_{o}[/tex], [tex]y[/tex] - Initial and current vertical position, measured in meters.

[tex]v_{o}[/tex] - Initial speed, measured in meters per second.

[tex]g[/tex] - Gravitational acceleration, measured in meters per square second.

[tex]t[/tex] - Time, measured in seconds.

The time spent for the projectile to strike the tower is obtained from first equation:

[tex]t = \frac{x-x_{o}}{v_{o}\cdot \cos \theta}[/tex]

If [tex]x = 600\,m[/tex], [tex]x_{o} = 0\,m[/tex], [tex]v_{o} = 120\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex] and [tex]\theta = \frac{\pi}{4}[/tex], then:

[tex]t = \frac{600\,m-0\,m}{\left(120\,\frac{m}{s} \right)\cdot \cos \frac{\pi}{4} }[/tex]

[tex]t \approx 7.071\,s[/tex]

Now, the height at which the projectile strikes the tower is: ([tex]y_{o} = 0\,m[/tex], [tex]t \approx 7.071\,s[/tex], [tex]v_{o} = 120\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex] and [tex]g = -9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex])

[tex]y = 0\,m + \left(120\,\frac{m}{s} \right)\cdot (7.071\,s)\cdot \sin \frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{1}{2}\cdot \left(-9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right) \cdot (7.071\,s)^{2}[/tex]

[tex]y \approx 354.824\,m[/tex]

The projectile strikes the tower at a height of 354.824 meters.

Answer:

The electric field strength needed is 4 x 10⁵ N/C

Explanation:

Given;

magnitude of magnetic field, B = 0.1 T

velocity of the charge, v = 4 x 10⁶ m/s

The velocity of the charge when there is a balance in the magnetic and electric force is given by;

[tex]v = \frac{E}{B}[/tex]

where;

v is the velocity of the charge

E is the electric field strength

B is the magnetic field strength

The electric field strength needed is calculated as;

E = vB

E = 4 x 10⁶ x 0.1

E = 4 x 10⁵ N/C

Therefore, the electric field strength needed is 4 x 10⁵ N/C

Answer:

Impedance increases for frequencies below resonance and decreases for the frequencies above resonance

Explanation:

See attached file

Explanation:

Explanation:

The De-Broglie wavelength is given by :

[tex]\lambda=\dfrac{h}{p}[/tex]

h is Planck's constant

p is momentum

In this case, an electron and a proton both moving at nonrelativistic speeds have the same de Broglie wavelength. Mass of electron and proton is different. It means their velocity and energy are different.

Only momentum is the factor that remains same for both particles i.e. momentum.

Answer:

The net force is directed downwards.

Explanation:

Since the magnet is falling much more faster than it would unaided, then there is a net force that is accelerating the magnet downwards. We know that acceleration is due to a force acting on a mass, and in this case, the magnet is the mass. Also, the acceleration is always in the direction of the force producing it, which means that the net force on the magnet is vertically downwards.

Answer:

L = Pt/M

Explanation:

Power, P= Q/t = mL/t

​

we know that, (Q=m×l)

Now ⇒l= Pt/M

​

Thus l= Pt/M

​

Answer:

Number of turns of wire(N) = 3,036 turns (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Diameter = 13 Cm

emf = 5.6 v

Note:

The given question is incomplete, unknown information is as follow.

Magnetic field increases = 0.25 T in 1.8 (Second)

Find:

Number of turns of wire(N)

Computation:

radius (r) = 13 / 2 = 6.5 cm = 0.065 m

Area = πr²

Area = (22/7)(0.065)(0.065)

Area = 0.013278 m²

So,

emf = (N)(A)(dB / dt)

5.6 = (N)(0.013278)(0.25 / 1.8)

5.6 = (N)(0.013278)(0.1389)

N = 3,036.35899

Number of turns of wire(N) = 3,036 turns (Approx)

Answer:

 v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s

Explanation:

This is an exercise of conservation of the momentum, for this we must define a system formed by the two balls, so that the forces during the collision have internal and the momentum is conserved

initial. Before the crash

      p₀ = m v₁₀

final. After the crash

      [tex]p_{f}[/tex] = m [tex]v_{1f}[/tex] + m v_{2f}

Recall that velocities are a vector so it has x and y components

       p₀ = p_{f}

we write this equation for each axis

X axis

       m v₁₀ = m v_{1fx} + m v_{2fx}

Y Axis  

       0 = -m v_{1fy} + m v_{2fy}

the exercise tells us the initial velocity v₁₀ = 1.83 m / s, the final velocity v_{2f} = 1.15, let's use trigonometry to find its components

      sin 23.3 = v_{2fy} / v_{2f}

      cos 23.3 = v_{2fx} / v_{2f}

      v_{2fy} = v_{2f} sin 23.3

      v_{2fx} = v_{2f} cos 23.3

we substitute in the momentum conservation equation

       m v₁₀ = m v_{1f} cos θ + m v_{2f} cos 23.3

       0 = - m v_{1f} sin θ + m v_{2f} sin 23.3

      1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.15 cos 23.3

       0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 1.15 sin 23.3

      1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.0562

        0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 0.4549

     v_{1f} sin θ = 0.4549

     v_{1f}  cos θ = -0.7738

we divide these two equations

      tan θ = - 0.5878

      θ = tan-1 (-0.5878)

       θ = -30.45º

we substitute in one of the two and find the final velocity of the incident ball

        v_{1f} cos (-30.45) = - 0.7738

        v_{1f} = -0.7738 / cos 30.45

        v_{1f} = -0.8976 m / s

the component and this speed is

       v_{1fy} = v1f sin θ

       v_{1fy} = 0.8976 sin (30.45)

       v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s

Yeah

All they are all correct

Answer:

2 m/s

Explanation:

The electromagnetic flow-metre work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The induced voltage is given as

[tex]E = Blv[/tex]

where [tex]E[/tex] is the induced voltage = 2.88 mV = 2.88 x 10^-3 V

[tex]l[/tex] is the distance between the electrodes in this field which is equivalent to the diameter of the tube = 1.2 cm = 1.2 x 10^-2 m

[tex]v[/tex] is the velocity of the fluid through the field = ?

[tex]B[/tex] is the magnetic field = 0.120 T

substituting, we have

2.88 x 10^-3 = 0.120 x 1.2 x 10^-2 x [tex]v[/tex]

2.88 x 10^-3 = 1.44 x 10^-3 x [tex]v[/tex]

[tex]v[/tex] = 2.88/1.44 = 2 m/s

Answer:

we see it is a linear relationship.

Explanation:

The magnetic flux is u solenoid is

      B = μ₀ N/L   I

where N is the number of loops, L the length and I the current

By applying this expression to our case we have that the current is the same in all cases and we can assume the constant length. Consequently we see that the magnitude of the magnetic field decreases with the number of loops

      B = (μ₀ I / L)  N

the amount between paracentesis constant, in the case of 4 loop the field is worth

      B = cte 4

N       B

4       4 cte

3       3 cte

2       2 cte

1        1 cte

as we see it is a linear relationship.

In addition, this effect for such a small number of turns the direction of the field that is parallel to the normal of the lines will oscillate,

Answer:

0.7707

Explanation:

From Snell's law,

n(1) * sin θ1 = n(2) * sinθ2

Where n(1) = refractive index of air = 1.0003

θ1 = angle of incidence

n(2) = refractive index of second substance

θ2 = angle of refraction

The angle of reflection through the unknown substance is the same as the angle of incidence of air. Thus this means that θ1 = 29°

=> 1.0003 * sin29 = n(2) * sin39

n(2) = (1.0003 * sin29) / sin39

n(2) = 0.7707

Explanation:

The index of refraction n of the substance is 0.7707

Here we know that

n(1) * sin θ1 = n(2) * sinθ2

here

n(1) = refractive index of air = 1.0003

θ1 = angle of incidence

n(2) = refractive index of second substance

θ2 = angle of refraction

The angle of reflection should be via the unknown substance that represent the same as the angle of incidence of air.

So,

θ1 = 29°

1.0003 * sin29 = n(2) * sin39

n(2) = (1.0003 * sin29) / sin39

n(2) = 0.7707

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Answer:

Explanation:

Formula for calculating the relationship between  the electromotive force (emf), current and number of turns of a coil in a transformer is expressed as shown:

[tex]\dfrac{V_s}{V_p} = \dfrac{N_s}{N_p} = \dfrac{I_p}{I_s}[/tex]  where;

Vs and Vp are the emf in the secondary and primary coil respectively

Ns and Np are the number if turns in the secondary and primary coil respectively

Ip and Is are the currents in the secondary and primary coil respectively

Since the are all equal to each other, then we can equate any teo of the expression as shown;

[tex]\dfrac{N_s}{N_p} = \dfrac{I_p}{I_s}[/tex]

Given parameters

Np = 500-turns

Ns = 2000-turns

Is = 3.0Amp

Required

Current in the primary coil (Ip)

Using the relationship [tex]\dfrac{N_s}{N_p} = \dfrac{I_p}{I_s}[/tex]

[tex]I_p = \dfrac{N_sI_s}{N_p}[/tex]

[tex]I_p = \dfrac{2000*3}{500} \\\\I_p = \frac{6000}{500}\\ \\I_p = 12A\\[/tex]

Hence the current in the primary coil is 12Amp

Answer:

The time of short pulse of light beam is [tex]2.37\times10^{-9}\ sec[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

A beam of light from a laser illuminates a glass.

Suppose, the length of piece is [tex]L=25.21\times10^{-2}\ m[/tex]

Index of refraction is 2.83.

We need to calculate the speed of light pulse in glass

Using formula of speed

[tex]v=\dfrac{c}{\mu}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]v=\dfrac{3\times10^{8}}{2.83}[/tex]

[tex]v=1.06\times10^{8}\ m/s[/tex]

We need to calculate the time of short pulse of light beam

Using formula of velocity

[tex]v=\dfrac{d}{t}[/tex]

[tex]t=\dfrac{d}{v}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]t=\dfrac{25.21\times10^{-2}}{1.06\times10^{8}}[/tex]

[tex]t=2.37\times10^{-9}\ sec[/tex]

Hence, The time of short pulse of light beam is [tex]2.37\times10^{-9}\ sec[/tex]

Answer:

364days

Explanation:

Pls see attached file

Explanation:

The moon will take 112.7 days to make one revolution around the planet.

The period of the satellite around any planet only depends upon the distance between the planet's center and satellite and also depends upon the planet's mass.

Given, the distance from the moon's center to the planet's surface,

h = 2.165 × 10⁵ km,

The radius of the planet, r = 4175 km  

The mass of the planet = 6.70 × 10²² kg

The total distance between the moon's center to the planet's center:

a = r +h = 2.165 × 10⁵ + 4175

a = 216500 + 4175

a = 220675

a = 2.26750 × 10⁸ m

The period of the planet can be calculated as:

[tex]T =2\pi \sqrt{\frac{a^3}{Gm} }[/tex]

[tex]T =2\3\times 3.14 \sqrt{\frac{(2.20675 \times 10^8)^3}{(6.67\times 10^{-11}).(6.70\times 10^{22})} }[/tex]

T = 9738253.26 s

T = 112.7 days

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Answer:

The  angular acceleration is  [tex]\alpha = 3.235 \ rad/s ^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The moment of inertia is  [tex]I = 0.034\ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

     The  net torque is  [tex]\tau = 0.11\ N \cdot m[/tex]

Generally the net torque is mathematically represented as

           [tex]\tau = I * \alpha[/tex]

Where [tex]\alpha[/tex] is the angular acceleration so  

        [tex]\alpha = \frac{\tau }{I}[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]\alpha = \frac{0.1 1}{ 0.034}[/tex]

        [tex]\alpha = 3.235 \ rad/s ^2[/tex]

Answer:

The final pressure of the monoatomic ideal gas is 8.406 × 10⁶ pascals.

Explanation:

When a container is rigid, the process is supposed to be isochoric, that is, at constant volume. Then, the equation of state for ideal gases can be simplified into the following expression:

[tex]\frac{P_{1}}{T_{1}} = \frac{P_{2}}{T_{2}}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]P_{1}[/tex], [tex]P_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final pressures, measured in pascals.

[tex]T_{1}[/tex], [tex]T_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final temperatures, measured in Kelvins.

In addtion, the specific heat at constant volume for monoatomic ideal gases, measured in joules per mole-Kelvin is given by:

[tex]\bar c_{v} = \frac{3}{2}\cdot R_{u}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]R_{u}[/tex] - Ideal gas constant, measured by pascal-cubic meters per mole-Kelvin.

If [tex]R_{u} = 8.314\,\frac{Pa\cdot m^{3}}{mol\cdot K}[/tex], then:

[tex]\bar c_{v} = \frac{3}{2}\cdot \left(8.314\,\frac{Pa\cdot m^{2}}{mol\cdot K} \right)[/tex]

[tex]\bar c_{v} = 12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K}[/tex]

And change in heat energy ([tex]Q[/tex]), measured by joules, by:

[tex]Q = n\cdot \bar c_{v}\cdot (T_{2}-T_{1})[/tex]

Where:

[tex]n[/tex] - Molar quantity, measured in moles.

The final temperature of the monoatomic ideal gas is now cleared:

[tex]T_{2} = T_{1} + \frac{Q}{n\cdot \bar c_{v}}[/tex]

Given that [tex]T_{1} = 300\,K[/tex], [tex]Q = 6000\,J[/tex], [tex]n = 4\,mol[/tex] and [tex]\bar c_{v} = 12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K}[/tex], the final temperature is:

[tex]T_{2} = 300\,K + \frac{6000\,J}{(4\,mol)\cdot \left(12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K} \right)}[/tex]

[tex]T_{2} = 420.279\,K[/tex]

The final pressure of the system is calculated by the following relationship:

[tex]P_{2} = \left(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}\right) \cdot P_{1}[/tex]

If [tex]T_{1} = 300\,K[/tex], [tex]T_{2} = 420.279\,K[/tex] and [tex]P_{1} = 6.00\times 10^{4}\,Pa[/tex], the final pressure is:

[tex]P_{2} = \left(\frac{420.279\,K}{300\,K} \right)\cdot (6.00\times 10^{4}\,Pa)[/tex]

[tex]P_{2} = 8.406\times 10^{4}\,Pa[/tex]

The final pressure of the monoatomic ideal gas is 8.406 × 10⁶ pascals.