The enzymes that link the -oxoglutarate dehydrogenase subunit to the PEP-pyruvate-AcCoA pathway, as well as , a -CoA synthetase.
Which coenzyme from the list below is required for the ketoglutarate dehydrogenase to work?The Krebs cycle enzyme alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (-KGDH), which uses thiamine pyrophosphate as a cofactor, catalyzes the non-equilibrium reaction that changes alpha-ketoglutarate, coenzyme A, and NAD+ into -CoA, NADH, and CO2.
Alpha-ketoglutarate is converted to -CoA by what enzyme?The enzyme -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
A four-carbon CoA is created in the fourth stage by an enzyme known as -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. This reaction results in the same amount of carbon dioxide and NADH as step three.
A process involving -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase transforms -ketoglutarate into CoA.
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which bones unite to form the highlighted bone?
The highlighted bone is named the sternum. The sternum, which lies in the middle of the chest, is where the ribs connect to the body.
Which joint does the humerus's highlighted bone form?The humeral head's ball and glenoid's socket connect at the glenohumeral joint. The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles' tendons make up the rotator cuff, which joins the humerus to the scapula. Muscle and bone are joined via tendon.
What develops in the indicated curvature?When a child is able to sit up on their own, the lumbar curvature that is highlighted begins to develop. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation.
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place each choice in its correct position on the typical multipolar neuron in the figure. place the anatomical names of neuron structures above the neuron. place the events that occur at the bracketed locations below the neuron.
Multipolar neurons are neurons from the central nervous system. They are composed of an ovoid cell body with several dendrites emerging from it, a long axon, and axon terminals. Graded potential occurs in the neuronal soma, while action potential occurs in the axon.
What is a multipolar neuron?
Neurons are formed in general by
A cellular body, soma,Dendrites, which are cytoplasmic extensions that receive stimuli from other cells, and An axon, which is a long formation capable of conducting the electrochemical signals.
Multipolar neurons are the ones that have a single axon and several dendrites.
Dendrites emerge from an ovoidal soma, and extend in different directions, creating a net and increasing the neuronal area to receive stimuli.
Axons are very large and covered by Schwann cells, facilitating impulse transmission.
These neurons are usually located in the central nervous system and integrate information coming from other nerve cells.
Every neuron forms connections with other neurons. These connections are known as synapsis.
As it happens in every synapsis between neurons when a presynaptic neuron sends information, a neurotransmitter is released.
Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that travel through the synaptic cleft to the junctional area of the other neuron and bind to its receptors in the postsynaptic membrane.
This binding produces a depolarization of the cell called an excitatory postsynaptic potential.
Graded potential initiates in the soma and dendrites.An action potential is initiated in the axon and spreads to the rest of the membrane depolarizing it.
In the image,
Anatomical names from the left to the right: dendrite, body cell, initial segment of the axon, axon, axon terminals.Events from the left to the right: graded potential, action potential.You can learn more about multipolar neurons at
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Give the number of protons electrons and neutrons in neutral atoms of each of the following isotopes.
Each of the above isotopes has, in turn, the following numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons:
a) : 5,5,5\s
b) : 80,80,119
c) : 29,29,34
d) : 6,6,7\s
e) : 34,34,43
It is referred to be an element if all of its atoms have a distinct number of neutrons despite having the same amount of protons.
Atomic number = amount of protons x number of electrons
Mass number minus proton count equals the amount of neutrons.
Number of protons, electrons, and neutrons calculation.
(a) Nuclear number is 5.
There are 5 protons.
There are five electrons.
Atomic weight is 10
Atomic number - proton count equals the amount of neutrons.
Neutron count is equal to 10 – 5 = 5.
(b) Atomic weight is 80.
80 is the proton count.
Electron count is 80.
Atomic weight is 199.
Atomic number - proton count equals the amount of neutrons.
Neutron count is equal to 199 − 80 = 119.
(c) Nuclear number is 29.
There are 29 protons.
There are 29 electrons.
Atomic weight: 63
the quantity of neutron.
(Give the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in neutral atoms of each of the following isotopes:
(a) 10,5 B
(b) 199,80 Hg
(c) 63,29 Cu
(d) 13,6 C
(e) 77,34 Se)
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A trait that is found in and shared by two or more species, but is not derived from a common ancestor is known as?.
Wherein a trait turned into present inside the ancestral species it is stated to be a homologous trait. If the trait became now not a gift within the ancestral species but appeared independently in the lineages, it is known as an analogous trait that arose thru evolutionary convergence.
A synapomorphy is a shared, derived person, common among an ancestor and its descendants. A man or woman, or trait, is something observable approximately the organism.
Tendencies that get up via convergent evolution are called analogous structures they're contrasted with homologous structures, which have a not unusual starting place. the alternative to convergent evolution is 'divergent evolution wherein related species evolve extraordinary traits.
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What would happen to a cell that didn’t replicate its dna before cell division?
The cell will not proceed with the further processes.
What is equational division?
Chromosome replication and equal distribution between the two daughter cells occur during the cell division process known as mitosis. Each daughter cell has the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, making them diploid. Thus, mitosis is also referred to as equational division.
Unequal division will result if the cell didn't replicate prior to actually cell division. As a result of the checkpoints, it won't move on to the next step. The checkpoint will later start the apoptosis process, which results in programmed cell death.
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t24 human bladder carcinoma oncogene is an activated form of the normal human homologue of balb- and harvey-msv transforming genes
A transforming gene isolated from T24 human bladder carcinoma cells is closely related to the BALB murine sarcoma virus (MSV) onc gene (v-bas).
The 1.2-kbp polyadenylated transcript that this transforming gene produces, which contains v-bas-related sequences, is expressed from a 4.6 kilobase pair (kbp) area where it is localized. Moreover, higher amounts of a similar protein were found in T24 cells using antisera that are known to target the immunologically related onc gene products of the BALB- and Harvey-MSVs.
By using restriction enzymes and heteroduplex analysis, it was discovered that the T24 oncogene could not be distinguished from the v-bas normal human homologue. These findings suggest that the normal human v-bas homologue has been activated as a human transforming gene by relatively minimal genetic changes.
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which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants that will be true-breeding?
The boxes marked 1-4 correspond top plant that will be true breeding is 1 and 4 only. The correct option is A).
What is true breeding?True breeding is a sort of breeding in which the parents generate kids with the same phenotype. This signifies that both parents are homozygous for all of the traits.
Aberdeen Angus cattle are an example of real breeding. True-breeding plants have the same genetic make-up for the character(s) under investigation. Pure breeds exhibit no variation and pass down the same qualities for numerous generations after self-pollination.
Therefore, the correct option is A) 1 and 4 only.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
A) 1 and 4 only. B) 2 and 3 only. C) 1, 2, 3, and 4. D) 1 only.
Answer and match them
Answer:
Answered (?)
Explanation:
1. C
2. E (?)
3. F
4. D
5. B
6. A
I wasn't sure about E because for me I would say that means 'extinction' but that's not an answer, I tried my best and hope this helps!
Write the correct answer on the line provided.
Carmella Espinoza underwent ________ for the treatment of spider veins
Carmella Espinoza underwent sclerotherapy for the treatment of spider veins.
What are Spider veins?Spider veins are defined as tiny, red, purple and blue vessels which twist and turn that are easily visible even through the skin affecting capillaries which are the smallest blood vessels in the body that are red or blue, look like a spider web or a tree branch. These usually appear on the legs and face.
Several risks of spider veins which include:
HeredityOccupations which involve a lot of standing, for example, nurses, hair stylists, teachers, and factory workersObesityHormonal influences such as pregnancy, puberty, and menopause.The treatment which is required is sclerotherapy for the treatment of spider veins.
Thus, Carmella Espinoza underwent sclerotherapy for the treatment of spider veins.
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Which condition would be most likely to turn off this abnormally active signaling pathway?.
Conditions that may turn off abnormally active signaling pathways are the addition of a drug that prevents the final kinase from interacting with its target protein in the nucleus.
The MAP kinase pathway is a series of proteins in cells that link signals from receptors on the cell surface to DNA in the cell nucleus. Signaling begins when growth factors bind to receptors on the cell surface. The final stage is when the DNA in the cell nucleus has expressed a protein and produces changes in the cell, such as cell division.
The pathway involves several proteins including the MAP kinase which engages by adding a phosphate group to adjacent proteins and acts as an on-and-off switch.
This question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Normal signaling works with a Ras protein acting downstream of a receptor kinase. You examine a cell line in which Ras is always activated even in the absence of a signaling molecule. This causes constant activation of the kinases in the MAP kinase pathway. Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely to turn off this abnormally active signaling pathway?
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During the cell cycle, the cell divides its nucleus and chromosomes during. The cytoplasm and cell membrane divide during. Before the cell can divide again, it must grow and synthesize proteins during the phase and duplicate its chromosomes during the phase.
During the mitotic (M) phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells. M phase involves two distinct division-related processes: mitosis and cytokinesis.
The fluidy substance that fills a cell's inside is called cytoplasm. Salts, water, and numerous organic compounds make up its composition. Membranes surround some intracellular organelles, such as the nucleus and mitochondria, and keep them from coming into contact with the cytoplasm. One cell (the mother) splits into two genetically identical new cells (the daughters) during the process of mitosis, a kind of cell division. In the context of the cell cycle, mitosis refers to the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.
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some substances are not normal components of urine because they are completely reabsorbed. choose the substances that satisfy this requirement under healthy conditions.
a. Filtered Plasma Proteins
b. Amino Acids
c. Glucose
d. Lactate
The substance that satisfies the requirement, under healthy conditions, is Amino Acids and glucose. The correct options are b and c.
What is urine?Urine is the wastewater that excretes from the body. Human pee is composed of 95 percent water. Minor amounts of urea (2%), creatinine (0.1%), uric acid (0.03%), chloride, sodium, potassium, sulfate, ammonium, and phosphate, as well as other ions and molecules, make up the remaining components. The filtrate contains components such as glucose, amino acids, Na+, and so on.
Therefore, the correct option is b. Amino Acids and c. Glucose.
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If RNA polymerase malfunctions,
one of the subunits of rRNA will not be transcribed from DNA.
amino acids will not be joined to their tRNA.
mRNA cannot bind to rRNA.
an mRNA will not be formed.
mRNA cannot copy itself.
If RNA polymerase malfunctions, an mRNA will not be formed.
Functions of RNA polymeraseRNA polymerase is an enzyme that functions primarily during the transcription of genes. It ensures that DNA sequences are transcribed to RNA sequences by adding complementary bases to the primer.
During transcription, genetic information on a DNA is transcribed into genetic codes in a special type of RNA known as messenger RNA or simply mRNA.
The coding strand of the double helix DNA act as the template for the transcription while RNA polymerase adds complementary RNA bases to the DNA primer which must have bonded to the DNA initially.
Thus, without the RNA polymerase enzyme working as it should, the addition of bases to the primer will not happen, and this will prevent the formation of mRNA.
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In what respect do hominins differ from all other anthropoids?
lack of a tail
bipedal posture
eyes located on the front of the face
opposable thumbs
Hominin differ from all the other arthropods in the presence of bipedal posture. Thus, the correct option is B.
What are Hominins?Hominin is the group which consists of the modern humans, extinct human species and all our immediate ancestors including the members of the genera Homo, Australopithecus, Paranthropus and Ardipithecus.
Hominins differ from that of all the other arthropods in the presence of the bipedal posture. Bipedal posture is a mode of locomotion which is found in many of the primates and birds, in which only the hind limbs are used for the purpose of walking.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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_____ provides employees with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use in their present jobs. a. Development b. Recruiting c. Networking d. Training
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Which statement is true of water's tensile strength?
(a) It results from hydrogen bonding.
(b) It helps to pull water through plants.
(c) It involves both cohesion and adhesion.
Both (a) and (b).
(a), (b), and (c).
Answer: a, b, c
Explanation:
It results from hydrogen bonding, It helps to pull water through plants. and It involves both cohesion and adhesion.
What is Tensile strength?The amount of load or stress that a material can withstand before stretching and breaking is known as its tensile strength. Tensile strength, as its name suggests, refers to a material's resistance to tension brought on by mechanical loads.
One of the most significant and frequently measured qualities of materials used for structural purposes is their capacity to resist breaking under tensile stress.
The tensile strength is the highest tensile stress that a material can withstand before failing, though the precise definition of failure will typically depend on the kind and design of the material.
Therefore, It results from hydrogen bonding, It helps to pull water through plants. and It involves both cohesion and adhesion.
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agine that you have a sample of dna that contains a single, specific dna sequence. before you run your gel, you split your sample into two tubes. you run the dna from the first tube in lane two of your gel. you take the other tube and use an enzyme called a restriction enzyme that cuts the dna into two pieces at a specific point in the sequence. you then run this sample that was cut on the gel. which of the next three lanes (lane 3, 4, or 5) could be the same sample from lane two after it was cut into two pieces?
After being divided into two halves, the sample from lane two may still be present in lane 4, which is possible. Lane 2 is around 700 base pairs long, and lane 4 will add up to about 700 base pairs as well, despite the restriction enzyme that divides the DNA into two parts.
What is gel electrophoresis?
A laboratory technique called gel electrophoresis is used to divide combinations of DNA, RNA, or proteins based on their molecular sizes. In gel electrophoresis, the molecules that need to be separated are forced through a gel that has tiny holes by an electrical field.It involves an electrical field, specifically one that is applied such that the gel has a positive charge on one end and a negative charge on the other. Negatively charged molecules like DNA and RNA will be drawn to the positively charged end of the gel. However, because proteins lack a negative charge, they must first be combined with sodium dodecyl sulfate, a detergent, in order to separate them using this method. The proteins are given a linear structure and a negative charge during this process, enabling them to move toward the gel's positive end and be separated. Finally, after utilizing it to separate the DNA, RNA, or protein molecules, bands representing of different molecular sizePrinciple of gel electrophoresis:
Since DNA is negatively charged, it will move toward the positively charged electrode when an electric current is supplied to the gel. The DNA fragments are organized in size order because shorter DNA strands travel through the gel more quickly than longer ones.
Steps in gel electrophoresis:
Pouring the gel first, getting your samples ready, the gel must be loaded, run, stained, exposed to an electric field while doing so.Hence all about the gel electrophoresis.
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Cells that have absorbed melanin to distribute pigmentation to other cells are located in what layer of the skin?.
Answer:
k
Explanation:
which hormone aids in regulating intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption
Answer:
Parathyroid hormone regulates calcium levels in the blood, largely by increasing the levels when they are too low. It does this through its actions on the kidneys, bones and intestine: Bones – parathyroid hormone stimulates the release of calcium from large calcium stores in the bones into the bloodstream.
The hormone that aids in regulating intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption is Adrenal glucocorticoids. The correct option is a.
What are Adrenal glucocorticoids?The adrenal cortex creates steroid hormones known as glucocorticoids. They have pleiotropic actions and significantly support the preservation of homeostasis at rest and in response to stress.
By increasing or lowering protein metabolism, adrenal glucocorticoids assist in controlling intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption.
Your adrenal glands create the glucocorticoid hormone cortisol, which is then released into the body. Hormones are substances that communicate with your organs, skin, muscles, and other tissues through your blood to coordinate various bodily functions. These signals advise your body on what to do and when.
Therefore, the correct option is a, Adrenal glucocorticoids.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
Adrenal glucocorticoids
Testosterone.
Melatonin.
Cortisol.
1. What 3 codons oct as termination signals?
2. What codon means start?
5
Use the model to answer the following question.
Which type of change caused the new combination of traits in Gametes B and C?
The new combination is an alteration in the number of sugars in DNA.
The new combination is an alteration in the chemical composition of a gene.
The new combination is a change in the chromosome composition due to crossing-over.
The new combination is a change in the chromosome number due to nondisjunction.
The new combination is a change in the chromosome composition due to crossing-over, which caused the new combination of traits in gametes B and C (Option C).
What is the process of recombination or crossing over?The process of recombination or crossing over refers to the change of genetic material between non-sister chromatids during prophase I, which increases the genetic variation of the resulting gametes.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the process of recombination or crossing over is able to increase the genetic variation of the germinal cells.
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which of the following are characteristics of at least some members of the supergroup alveolata? multiple select question. flagella or cilia secondary or tertiary plastids pseudopodia saclike, membranous vesicles at the cell periphery cellulose plates kinetoplasts within a large mitochondrion
Characteristics of at least some members of the supergroup Alveolata are:
- secondary or tertiary plastids
- saclike, membranous vesicles at the cell periphery
- flagella or cilia
- cellulose plates
In the field of science, Alveolata can be described as a group of protists that are monophyletic or supergroups. Some members of the supergroup Alveolata have secondary or tertiary plastids.
Some of the alveolata also have the ability to move via flagella or cilia. These are hair like projections that help in movement.
Cellulose plates, which means that the cellulose is divided into plates is also an essential feature in some of the Alveolata supergroups.
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Select the scenarios that can result in active immunity.
bone marrow transplant
antibodies cross the placenta
immunization with a vaccine
infection with a pathogen
plasma transfusions to treat Ebola virus infection
The scenarios that can result in active immunity are infection with a pathogen and immunization with a vaccine.
What do immunity—both active and passive—mean?Immunity includes two types: active and passive. Active immunity is when our own immune system protects us from a pathogen. We acquire passive immunity to a virus when we gain immunity from another person.
When the immune system produces antibodies to disease after being exposed to the disease organism, this is known as active immunity. Natural or vaccine-induced immunity can be used to build up active immunity.
Individuals who are undergoing passive immunotherapy, also known as passive immunization, receive antibodies from a source other than their own body. Short-term immunity from infection is provided through passive immunity.
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Which of the following statements are true about an IV set up? a. Line markings indicate how much fluid has infused into the patient. b. The injection port provides needle-less entry into the IV tubing. c. The IV bag includes information about the type and volume of IV solution d. The slide clamp compresses the tubing to allow IV flow rate to be increased or decreased e. The line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0"
The correct statements about the IV set are:
Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?
It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.
Features of IV set:
Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml. Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free materialHence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements
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The correct statements about the IV set are: option a, c and e.
Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.
Features of IV set:
Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml.Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free materialHence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements
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Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation
replicates DNA
transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation
transfers DNA vertically, to new cells
transcribes DNA to RNA
Answer: B
Explanation:
Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. So, the correct option is B.
What is Conjugation?Bacterial conjugation is defined as the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact or a bridge-like connection between two cells that occurs through a pilus. It is a parasexual mode of reproduction in bacteria.
The donor bacterium contains a DNA sequence known as a fertility factor or F-factor that allows the donor to produce a thin, tubelike structure called a pilus, which the donor uses to contact the recipient. does for. The pilus then draws the two bacteria together in which the donor bacterium transfers genetic material to the recipient bacterium.
Thus, Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. So, the correct option is B.
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outline the process of transcription in the nucleus including the
Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three steps of transcription that are depicted here. Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three stages of transcription.
What are the four steps in the transcription process?The process of copying DNA to create a complementary strand of RNA is called transcription. After that, RNA is translated to become proteins. Initiation, promoter removal, elongation, and termination are the four main phases of transcription.
In what transcription does the nucleus engage?Transcription takes place in the cell's nucleus since the genes are bound there, but the mRNA transcript needs to be delivered to the cytoplasm. In prokaryotes, which include bacteria and archaea, transcription takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell since these organisms lack organelles and membrane-bound nuclei.
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concept map connective tissues
Connective tissues are tissues that supports, protects, and gives structure to other tissues and organs in the body. All other types of tissues in the body are supported by connective tissues, which joins or divides them.
Like all tissue types, it is made up of cells encased in a space of liquid known as the extracellular matrix (ECM). In contrast to other types of tissue, connective tissue's cells are loosely rather than densely packed within the ECM.
Types of connective tissueTwo distinct forms of connective tissue are distinguished based on the cells present and the ECM structure.
Connective tissue proper; further broken down into loose and dense connective tissues.Specialised connective tissue; adipose tissues, cartilage, bone, blood, and reticular.learn more about connective tissues here;
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Covalent modification generally turns off genes by attracting proteins that bind to methylated cytosines and block gene transcription.
a) DNA Methylation
b) miRNA
c) RNAi
d) tRNA
The correct option among the following was DNA Methylation.
define DNA Methylation ?
A biological process called DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to the DNA molecule. Without altering the sequence, methylation can modify the activity of a DNA region. DNA methylation often suppresses gene transcription when it occurs at a gene promoter. DNA methylation plays an important role in a variety of critical processes in mammals, including ageing, cancer, X-chromosome inactivation, genomic imprinting, and transposable element suppression.
Adenine and cytosine are the two nucleobases on which natural, enzymatic DNA methylation occurs as of 2016. N6-methyladenine[1], 5-methylcytosine[2], and N4-methylcytosine are the modified bases. [3]
The DNA nucleotide cytosine is methylated to create 5-methylcytosine at position 5 on the pyrimidine ring. This is the same place that separates thymine from the homologous RNA base uracil, which has no methyl group. 5-Methylcytosine undergoes spontaneous deamination and is changed into thymine. A T:G mismatch emerges from this. If A is substituted for G, the original C:G pair becomes a T:A pair, thus altering a base and producing a mutation. Repair mechanisms then fix it back to the original C:G pair.
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Which organelles are found in an animal cell?check all that apply. Endoplasmic reticulumcentriolescell wallvacuoleslysosomesmitochondriachloroplastscell membrane.
The organelles present in an animal cell are-endoplasmic reticulum, centrioles, vacuoles, lysosomes, mitochondria, and cell membrane.
The endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane. It facilitates the production of chemical compounds as well as their transport into and out of the nucleus.
During meiosis and mitosis, centrioles are crucial to cell division.
Vacuoles play a key role in the storage of waste materials and aid in regulating the pH of the cell.
The waste molecules are broken down into simpler substances by lysosomes.
The mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell because they contribute to the production of ATP, which the cell uses as energy for a variety of tasks.
The cell's protective barrier is the cell membrane. It controls how things get into and out of the cell.
The complete question is:
Which organelles are found in an animal cell? check all that apply.
(A). Endoplasmic reticulum
(B). Centrioles
(C). Cell wall
(D). Vacuoles
(E). Lysosomes
(F). Mitochondrial
(G). Chloroplasts
(H). Cell membrane
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FILL IN THE BLANK. if energy levels are low in a cell, the cytosolic concentration of___will be high and___will be turned on.
If energy levels are low in a cell, the cytosolic concentration of ATP will be high and glycolysis will be turned on.
Define ATP.
All living species' cells include the energy-conveying chemical adenosine triphosphate (ATP). The chemical energy generated by the breakdown of food molecules is captured by ATP and then released to power other cellular functions.
By dissolving glucose into two compounds with three carbons each, the cytoplasmic pathway of glycolysis produces energy. Hexokinase, an enzyme, aids in the process of phosphorylation, which traps glucose. In this reaction, ATP is used, and the end product, glucose-6-P, inhibits hexokinase. The ten steps of glycolysis are divided into five preparatory steps and five pay-off steps. The rate-limiting enzyme is phosphofructokinase.
High-energy substances like 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate and phosphoenolpyruvate catalyze the substrate-level phosphorylation that produces ATP .All of the body's cells use glycolysis to produce energy. Pyruvate in aerobic environments and lactate in anaerobic environments are the end products of glycolysis. For additional energy production, pyruvate enters the Krebs cycle.
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