False: The placebo effect does not cause symptoms to go away for no discernible cause or benefit from a given medication.
The placebo effect is what, exactly?A person's expectation that an activity will be helpful leads to the placebo effect, a positive health consequence. Independent of every specific treatment, the way a healthcare professional engages with a patient may also result in a favorable reaction.
Give an illustration of the placebo effect.Participants who take the medication see a rise in blood pressure and heart rate as well as faster reaction times. However, when the exact same individuals are given the identical drug and informed that it will help people relax and sleep, most report feeling relaxation instead.
I understand the question you are looking for is
True or False: The placebo effect is the disappearance of symptoms without any apparent reason or treatment.
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cigarette smoking can sometimes lead to development of a
cigarette smoking can sometimes lead to development of a "smoker's cough," which results from paralysis of cilia in the airways.
What do you mean by smoking?Inhaling and exhaling smoke is the act of burning plant material. Although a number of plant materials, such as marijuana and hashish, are smoked, the act is most frequently linked to tobacco when it is smoked in a cigarette, cigar, or pipe.
What results from smoking?Smoking causes emphysema and chronic bronchitis as well as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which includes cancer, heart disease, stroke, lung disorders, and diabetes. The risk of developing rheumatoid arthritis, TB, certain eye conditions, and immune system issues are all increased by smoking.
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1. The student wants to estimate the fall time for height 1. How should she do this?.
Calculate the average (0.608 s) Put the five times in order and choose the median, or middle number (0.60 s) Just report the first measurement (0.61 s) Report that the time is between 0.57 s and 0.68 s 2.
Using the formula s = (1/2)gt2 = 0.5 * 9.80665 * 82, we can find the free fall distance, which is 313.8 m. Using this calculator, you can also determine the time of fall if you know the height from which the object is falling but not its exact descent!
Each trial's longer time to fall is caused by the increasing displacement (height/distance). This can be shown by the subsequent equation. D = displacement (height/distance), vi = initial velocity, a = acceleration, and t = time are the variables in the equation d=vit+12at2.
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juan's friends ask them to participate in some activities with them. juan feels pressure to join them, even though the activities might not be in his best interest. which of these reasons might not be strengthening juan's conformity to the group?
His friends sometimes make him feel incompetent. He admires the group's status. His culture strongly encourages respect for social standards.
What is the meaning social standards?It is a rule, principle, or norm that all members of a social group adhere to and that specifies acceptable, desired, or proper attitudes and behaviour in matters pertaining to the group.Social norms may be unwritten rules and laws or they may be formalised understandings that direct how people of a society behave. A "social contract" called norms underpins a group's cooperative efforts. Having specific group norms that everyone can see can give you a framework for dealing with behaviour that might be getting in the way of your goals.In the social sciences, norms are a key idea. They are most frequently described as socially enforced expectations or rules. Both prescriptive and proscriptive norms exist.To learn more about social norms refer :
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Approximately how many sexually active teens will contract a STI before graduating from high school
One out of every three
One out of every five
One out of every seven
One out of every ten
O
5 points
Answer:
Approximately one out of every three sexually active teens will contract an STI before graduating from high school.
Explanation:
.
thurstone proposed that there are a few stable and independent mental abilities that he referred to as mental abilities.
Answer:
Thurstone proposed that there are a few stable and independent mental abilities that he referred to as: primary mental abilities.
Explanation:
A nurse is preparing to administer dabigatran to a client who has atrial fibrillation. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this medication is which of the following?
a. to convert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
b. to dissolve clots in the bloodstream
c. to slow the response of the ventricles to the fast atrial impulses
d. to reduce the risk of stroke in clients who have atrial fibrillation.
The purpose of dagigatran is to dissolve clots in the bloodstream
B. to dissolve clots in the bloodstream
What is dabigatran?Dabigatran, or Pradaxa , is an anticoagulant used to treat and prevent stroke and blood clots to prevent in people with atrial fibrillation. Specifically it is used to prevent blood clots following hip. It is used to warfarin and does not require monitoring by blood tests. It is taken by mouth.
Common side effects is bleeding and gastritis. Other side effects may include bleeding around the allergic reaction and spine such as anaphylaxis. In cases of severe bleeding, it can be reversed with the antidote, idarucizumab. Use is not recommended breastfeeding or during pregnancy. Compared to warfarin it has fewer interactions with other medications. It is a direct thrombin inhibitor.
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medical terminology ologist mean
Answer: Specialist
Explanation: I still have the 350-word sheet from the medical terminology class last year here so able to help you.
a young athlete is training for marathon, and his coach has him keeping a pace that allows him to stay below his anaerobic threshold. by avoiding anaerobic glycolysis, the pyruvate produced in the muscle does not accumulate because it is converted to which one of the following?
When oxygen is not a limited resource, the TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation convert pyruvate to acetyl CoA to produce energy.
What is anaerobic glycolysis?
As each glucose molecule yields two ATP, glycolysis offers a direct method of generating energy in the absence of oxygen. Anaerobic glycolysis is the term used to describe the process of breaking down glucose without the presence of oxygen. [1]
Both anaerobic and aerobic conditions can result in glycolysis. Pyruvate enters the citric acid cycle under aerobic conditions and proceeds through oxidative phosphorylation, which results in the net synthesis of 32 ATP molecules. Pyruvate is converted to lactate in anaerobic conditions by anaerobic glycolysis.
The main pathway for the metabolism of glucose takes place in the cytosol of every cell and is known as glycolysis. Depending on the availability of oxygen, it may happen either aerobically or anaerobically.
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jamal, at age 6, is already an excellent athlete, fast runner, and accomplished gymnast. he has excellent .
Gross motor skills are the abilities required to coordinate the body's muscles during powerful motions like crawling, walking, jumping, running, and more.
What is A List of Gross Motor Skills?In their early years of development, children learn to coordinate their massive body muscles.Examples of typical gross motor skills include the following: catching and throwing a ball while learning to walkWalking back and forth, climbing a ladder, riding a tricycle, balancing while walking along a low wall, and putting a tennis ball over the net.Below are some illustrations of gross motor skills for children of different ages, from newborns to those in elementary or primary school.There is a list of common gross motor exercises that children of different ages can complete.As each child develops at their own rate and may reach some milestones earlier or later, this is only a guideline.Children naturally develop their gross motor abilities via play, but it is also possible to design movement activities that give them lots of opportunity to explore movement and develop their bodies.The best gross motor exercises are listed below. They are simple and will give kids lots of practice developing their stronger muscles.Allowing kids to use a few, carefully selected gross motor toys, such as balls, scooters, and skipping ropes, is also beneficial.The most important factor is to allow children a lot of playtime. Babies need lots of time on the floor to explore movement, and older children need lots of time for unstructured indoor and outdoor play.Here are some examples for toddlers, preschoolers, and children in elementary schoolThe Complete Question is,
Jamal, at age 6, is already an excellent athlete, fast runner, and accomplished gymnast. He has excellent ________. a) gross motor skills b) fine motor skills c) reaction time d) hand-eye coordination
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Which statement indicates that a client with diabetes mellitus understands proper foot care?
A) "I'll schedule an appointment with my physician if my feet start to ache."
B) "I'll rotate insulin injection sites from my left foot to my right foot." C) "I'll go barefoot around the house to avoid pressure areas on my feet."
D) "I'll wear cotton socks with well-fitting shoes."
" I'll wear cotton socks with well-fitting shoes " is suggests that a client with diabetes mellitus understands proper foot care.
What causes diabetes mellitus?Diabetes mellitus is a group of disorders that modify how the body uses blood sugar (glucose).The cells that make up the muscles and tissues depend heavily on glucose for energy, and the brain also uses it as its main fuel source. The main cause of diabetes varies by kind.Diabetes insipidus is an uncommon illness that has nothing to do with the pancreas or blood sugar.Diabetes mellitus is taken from the Greek term diabetes, meaning siphon - to pass through and the Latin word mellitus meaning sweet. A survey of the history suggests that the term "diabetes" was first used by Apollonius of Memphis approximately 250 to 300 BC.There is currently no treatment for type 2 diabetes, but our researchers are working on a groundbreaking weight management trial to assist people in putting their condition into remission.To learn more about diabetes mellitus refer to:
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Sofia has heard that buying vitamins is a waste of money because the body cannot store them. What is the best response to this statement?.
The best answer to this is that this is more accurate for water-soluble vitamins than for fat-soluble vitamins.
It varies. If you use vitamins improperly, they are a waste of money. Additionally, if you use vitamins properly, they are the deal of a lifetime.
When compared to generic supplements that include questionable substances that your body doesn't need, vitamins may appear to be a waste of money. On the other hand, vitamins and minerals are essential for your health. Without them, your body will stop functioning. That does imply death.
Vitamins can either be fat or water-soluble. Moisture vitamins (B, C) cannot be stored by the body, thus any extra you consume from dietary sources is excreted. This means that water-soluble vitamins cannot be consumed in excess.
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The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
Reports of increased appetite
Reports of increased appetite and weight loss are diagnosed with hyperthyroidism.
What does the term hypothyrodism refer to?
Hypothyroidism is a condition that occurs when the thyroid gland is underactive and the body cannot produce enough thyroid hormones to satisfy its demands.The thyroid is a little gland at the front of the neck that resembles a butterfly.
What are the symptoms of hypothyrodism?
When the thyroid does not produce and release enough thyroid hormone into your circulation, it is known as hypothyroidism. The body's metabolism slows as a result. Hypothyroidism, also known as an underactive thyroid, can make you exhausted, put on weight, and have trouble with cold weather. Hormone replacement therapy is the primary method of treatment for hypothyroidism. The main symptoms of hypothyrodism are
Increased aptitatecold sensitivityconstipation.Anxietyslow movementsmuscle lossmuscle cramps.Hence, the findings of a nurse's are weight loss and increased appetite.
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which of the following is NOT significantly affected by the menstrual cycle?
a. memory
b. sight
c. weight
d. anxiety
The statement that is not significantly affected by the menstrual cycle is:
memory.
So option A is correct.
What is menstrual cycle?The menstrual cycle is described as a series of natural changes in hormone production and the structures of the uterus and ovaries of the female reproductive system that make pregnancy possible.
Factors such as sight, weight and anxiety significantly affects the menstrual cycle.
A recent study finds that contrary to popular belief, having your period doesn't negatively affect your thinking and memory but Bloating, cramps and a sense of fatigue may be common for many women during their menstrual cycle.
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1. Which of the following is the FIFTH step of CPR?
Call 9-1-1
Check for breathing
Open the victim's airway
Provide mouth-to-mouth breathing
2. Which of the following are the common causes of choking?
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating slowly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing after eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and not drinking before or during meals
3. Which of the following is the correct order when you witness a victim needing CPR?
Check the scene, check the victim, call 911, and start compressions immediately
Check the scene, call 911, check the victim, and start compressions immediately
Call 911, check the scene, check the victim, and start compressions immediately
Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately
4. What is the main function of the circulatory system?
Carbon dioxide leaving the body
Moving blood between the heart and lungs
Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood
Filtering the air as it enters the body
5. Which of the following is the 4th leading cause of injury related deaths?
Car accident
Plane crash
Choking
Falling
6. Which of the following is the SIXTH step of using an AED?
Press the shock button
Attach the AED pads
Open the victim's shirt and wipe the chest dry
Tell everyone to "stand clear"
7. To administer back blows, what position should the person be in?
Bent forward at the waist
Standing straight up
Bent forward at the knees
Laying down
8. Which part of your hand should be used to administer back blows?
Fist
Heel
Palm
Wrist
9. At what rate per minute should compressions be administered?
100
150
200
250
10. Which of the following makes up 1 CPR Cycle?
30 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths
30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
100 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
100 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths
11. Which of the following is the lower respiratory system responsible for?
Secreting a mucus that filters, warms, and cleanses the air
Heart getting blood out to every cell in the body
Getting oxygen to the cells of the body
Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood
12. When using an AED, after the shock is delivered when should CPR resume?
Wait 30 seconds
Wait 1 minutes
Immediately
Do not continue CPR
13. Which of the following are considered to be signs of a heart attack?
Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the jaw, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the abdomen, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the abdomen, and pain when swallowing
14. When possible, what is the preferred method of CPR?
Compression-only
Single-person
Two-person
Rescue-breath-only
15. Compression-only CPR should only be used on which of the following types of victims?
Under the age of 8
Victims you witness collapse
Victims you do not witness collapse
Collapsed from choking
This prompt has to do with the biological systems related to Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
1) The FIFTH step of CPR is: Open the victim's airway (Option 3)
2) The common causes of choking are: "eating too quickly" and "laughing while eating" (Option B and C)
3) The correct order when you witness a person who needs CPR is "Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately" (Option D)
4) The main function of the circulatory system is: "Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood" (Option C)
5) The 4th leading cause of injury-related deaths is falling (Option D)
6) The SIXTH step of using an AED is: "Tell everyone to "stand clear" (Option D)
7) To administer back blows, the position the person should be in is: " Standing straight up" (Option B)
8) The part of your hand should be used to administer back blows is: "palm" (Option C)
9) The rate per minute at which compressions be administered is: 100 compressions minute (Option A)
10) One CPR cycle is given as "30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths" (Option B)
11) The lower respiratory system is responsible for "Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood" (Option C)
12) When using an AED, after the shock is delivered CPR resume immediately (Option C)
13) The option that is considered to be signs of a heart attack are: "Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain" (Option A)
14) When possible, the preferred method of CPR is: "Compression-only" (Option A)
15) Compression-only CPR should only be used on: "Victims you witness collapse" (Option B)
What is Cardiopulmonary resuscitation?Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency procedure that combines chest compressions with artificial ventilation in an attempt to manually preserve intact cognitive abilities until further measures are taken to restore sudden blood circulation and breathing in a person who has gone into cardiac arrest.
CPR, especially if given soon after a cardiac arrest, has been shown to increase or triple a person's chances of survival. Approximately 90% of persons who have an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest die.
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a two-factor study with two levels of factor a and three levels of factor b uses a separate group of n
The effect of one independent variable depends on the level of the second independent variable. A two-factor study with two-factor A levels and three-factor B levels uses a separate group of n = 5 participants for each treatment condition.
There is always the possibility of two main effects and one interaction. You can always compare the means of each main effect and interaction. There are key effects or interactions when the appropriate agents are different. They can have different df values, but they all have the same denominator.
The sampled population must be normally or nearly normally distributed. The samples must be independent. The variances of the populations must be equal. If the p-value is less than your significance level you can reject the null hypothesis. The difference between the two variances is statistically significant.
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A medical student makes a transverse cut of a cadaver's leg. The two resulting sections could be referred to as the superior and inferior sections anterior and posterior sections left and right sections frontal and sagittal sections.
A medical student makes a transverse cut of a cadaver's leg. The two resulting sections could be referred to as the superior and inferior sections.
A cadaver, also called a corpse, is a deceased person's body that is used by medical professionals, students, and other researchers to study anatomy, locate illness areas, ascertain the causes of death, and provide tissue for repairing defects in living people. In order to further their studies, medical school students study and dissect corpses. Archaeologists and art students are among the other people who study cadavers.
When referring to body components that are at one end of the body, the terms superior and inferior sections (cranial and caudal) are employed. The head (cranial) is where superior structures are located, while the feet are where inferior (caudal) structures are located. makes a distinction between the superior (upper) and inferior sections (lower) parts of the body. plane of sagittal. horizontal line that separates the body's right and left sides.
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a nurse provides instructions to a client with hypocalcemia about the foods high in calcium. list three (3) foods the client should consume.
The three foods that a client with hypocalcemia should consume are Yogurt, Sardines and Cheese.
What is hypocalcemia?Hypocalcemia is defined as the medical condition that occurs when there is decrease in blood calcium levels.
Hypocalcemia can be caused by the following:
Low parathyroid hormone output.Inadequate oral intake.Excessive wound drainage.Celiac’s & Crohn’s Disease cause malabsorption of calcium in the GI track andAcute Pancreatitis.The clinical manifestations that can be seen in patients with hypocalcemia include the following:
ConfusionReflexes hyperactiveArrhythmias (prolonged QT interval and ST interval) andMuscle spasms.The nursing intervention should include a meal plan that contains food and food products that are high in calcium content.
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A nurse provides instructions to a client with hypocalcemia about the foods high in calcium therefore three foods the client should consume include the following below:
MilkCheeseYoghurtWho is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent various forms of complications and in sever cases death.
Dairy products such as yoghurt, cheese etc have a high percentage of calcium and is therefore the best set of food to be taken when a person has the medical condition known as hypocalcemia.
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Apply your knowledge of bacterial pathogenesis and the symptoms of RMSF to predict the order of events that occur during RMSF.
A fever, headache, and rash are the most common symptoms of RMSF illness.
Explain about the RMSF?A tick bite from an infected animal can cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF), a bacterial illness. Antibiotic therapy can successfully treat RMSF. On the other hand, severe side effects, such as nerve damage, might develop if left untreated Loss of hearing.
Lyme illness and RMSF are similar Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Lyme disease are two distinct illnesses, despite the fact that they are both contracted by tick bites. The kind of bacteria responsible for the diseases makes the most difference.
Acute, sudden-onset disease with a day-by-day progression is RMSF. A tick bite or exposure should result in an incubation period of roughly 7 to 14 days. Even though non-febrile clinical consequences may linger, the illness typically lasts less than two weeks without treatment.
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which of the following is not one of the five common areas of concern for all psychotherapies? group of answer choices a) disturbed thoughts b) biomedical disturbances c) disturbed emotions d) disturbed sleep
Disturbed sleep is not one of the five common areas of concern for all psychotherapies.
Psychotherapy, also known as "talk therapy," is a way to help people with a wide range of mental and emotional problems. Psychotherapy can help a person get rid of or control bothersome symptoms so they can function better, feel better, and heal faster.
Psychotherapy can help with problems like being unable to deal with day-to-day life, the effects of trauma, illness, or loss (like the death of a loved one), and mental disorders like depression or anxiety. There are different kinds of psychotherapy, and some may work better for certain problems or issues than others. Psychotherapy can be used with other therapies or medications.
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how is it possible that norepinephrine can cause vasoconstriction in one location but vasodilation in another?
Receptor types differ in these tissues that norepinephrine can cause vasoconstriction in one location but vasodilation in another.
What is vasoconstriction?
The narrowing (constriction) of blood arteries by tiny muscles in their walls is known as vasoconstriction. Blood flow is slowed or blocked when blood vessels close. Vasoconstriction may be slight or severe. It may result from disease, drugs, or psychological conditions.
Medications causing vasoconstriction, also known as vasoconstrictors, are one type of medicine used to raise blood pressure. Generalized vasoconstriction usually results in an increase in systemic blood pressure, but it may also occur in specific tissues, causing a localized reduction in blood flow.
Midodrine, Methysergide, Dihydroergotamine are the example of Vasoconstrictor.
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A nurse is caring for a client in crisis who has endured a physical assault. The nurse would expect to see which behavior associate with the integration phase of crisis?
The nurse would expect to see multiple types of behavior. Depending on their circumstances, each person deals with trauma in a unique way.
What integration phase of a crisis?The acute phase's nightmares and feelings of shock, guilt, dread, shame, impotence, wrath, despair, and fear of being touched may resurface. Many survivors during this stage believe that their emotions indicate major mental disorders or that they are going insane.
During the integration period, the patient may experience depression or anxiety, or they may want to communicate. The nightmares and emotions.
Therefore, the nurse would expect to see a variety of behaviors. Each person responds to trauma in a different way depending on their circumstances.
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the nurse needs to carefully monitor a client with traumatic injuries. which action by the nurse demonstrates understanding of the most essential component of the client’s pain assessment?
The action of a Nurse demonstrates understanding by the administration of pain medication based on the client's reported pain level.
What are the different types of pain management?Pain management is a process that involves the different approaches to control pain like therapy, medication prescriptions and treatments. Physical therapies, psychological therapies and body techniques are the various methods of relieving pain.
Physical therapy includes exercise, massage etc., psychological therapies include mind therapy and meditations, while body technique include acupuncture. In hospitals, patient pain management is essential and usually indicated in their record charts. Nurses understand patient assessment and administers pain medication according to the client's needs.
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Imagine you are in charge of creating a healthy menu for your family for one day. What would you have for breakfast, lunch, dinner and a snack?.
To choose healthy menus for a family, it was decided to pick out culmination, greens or nuts at each meal, as well as to choose low-sugar or sugar-free liquids along with water.
All the meats selected for the menu are cooked low in oil, which is why they may be constantly grilled, even as the grains or tubers are steamed, to assure an awesome stability in each of these ingredients.
And water throughout the day is must for hydration and good health
Breakfast:
Egg whites.
Fruit salad without cream.
Orange juice.
Low gluten toast.
Low sugar coffee.
Lunch:
Roasted chicken breast.
Steamed potatoes.
Waldorf salad.
Snack:
Jelly.
Nuts.
Tea.
Dinner:
Integral rice.
Grilled salmon fish.
Fruit salad.
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in the definition of psychology behavior means
Answer:
According to Doron and Parot, behavior is the activity of an organism interacting with its environment.
Explanation:
Answer: the term behavior means overt actions and reactions.
Explanation:
Early signs of respiratory distress in the pediatric patient include all of the following, EXCEPT:
cyanosis.
The early signs of respiratory distress in the pediatric patient include all of the following except cyanosis and is denoted as option A.
What is Respiration?This is referred to as the movement of air or dissolved gases into and out of the lungs and a distress involves difficulty in performing this type of metabolic activity.
Cyanosis on the other hand is referred to as a medical condition in which different parts of the body such as the skin, lips etc turns to color blue due to a lack of oxygen in your blood and occurs in the latter stages of a respiratory distress.
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The options are:
A. cyanosis.
B. tachypnea.
C. retractions.
D. coughing
True or false? the lungs have an efficient blood supply to take away the oxygenated blood and maintain the concentration gradient.
which of the following workout schedule would best describe daily undulating periodization for the squat?
Answer:
The workout schedule would best describe daily undultaing periodization for the squat is as follows-
1.Walk for 1.5 minutes on a treadmill at 3.0 mph with at least an 8% incline to warm up your hips, glutes, and hamstrings as well.
2.Stretching for 2.5 minutes. Stretch your entire body, including your upper body.
3. Squat the bar fifteen times. After this and every other warm-up set, take a minute to relax.
4. Squat for 10 reps with a small weight. By the tenth repetition, you shouldn't be failing.
5. Squat for 5 reps with a hefty weight. You should put in effort, but you also shouldn't fall short in this situation.
6. Aim for your first set of one reps, but make sure you can complete it.
7. If you are successful, try adding another 5–10 pounds. Till you fail the effort, keep repeating this procedure. Make sure you are on a squat rack and have a spotter. Between maximum tries, take two to three minutes to rest.
Explanation:
Training that uses an up-and-down pattern of volume and intensity throughout the course of the training cycle is known as undulating periodization. The volume and intensity vary from week to week according to weekly undulating periodization (WUP).
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what percentage of bone loss might occur in the six to eight-year period following menopause?
20 percent of bone loss might occur in the six to eight-year period following menopause.
Why is their a loss of bone in 8 year period following menopause ?Preventing bone loss is a major concern for women during the menopause and post-menopausal stages. Menopause accelerates bone loss and raises the risk of osteoporosis. According to research, up to 20% of bone loss can occur throughout these stages, and osteoporosis affects nearly one in every ten women over the age of 60 worldwide.One in every two postmenopausal women will have osteoporosis, and the majority will fracture at some point in their lives. Fractures (broken bones) cause discomfort, reduced mobility, and diminished function. Fractures are linked to a lower quality of life and an increased risk of death.What is menopause, when does it normally occur, and what causes it?Menopause, also known as the climacteric, is the phase in a woman's life when her menstrual periods stop and she is no longer able to bear children. Menopause is typically experienced between the ages of 47 and 54.Menopause is commonly defined by medical professionals as the absence of menstrual bleeding for a year.Can learn more about menopause from https://brainly.com/question/11847776
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what is the primary reason most older people have trouble detecting odors?
Most older people struggle to perceive odors mostly because as they age, their number of taste buds decreases.
What makes odor detection difficult?Those who could not identify at least four out of five common odors were more than twice as likely to acquire dementia within five years as those with a normal sense of smell, according to a lengthy study of over 3,000 adults, aged 57 to 85.
Although 78 percent of those tested showed normal behavior, correctly naming at least four out of five scents, about 14 percent could only name three out of five scents, five percent could only name two odor, two percent could only name one scent, and one percent of the study subjects were unable to name any scents at all.
There was a dose-dependent correlation between the degree of scent loss and the occurrence of dementia five years following the initial test.
Dementia – what is it?The frontal lobe's prefrontal cortex is a component of the brain that is located there. It controls a wide range of intricate behaviors, influencing how people make plans and decisions and having a significant impact on how people become who they are as people. The body's limbic system includes the hippocampus, which is situated in the medial temporal lobe.
Exercise also enhances prefrontal cortex-controlled abilities such as planning and decision-making. A low-impact sport that calls for quick thinking and planning, helps to improve the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex.
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what does the advent of behavioral modernity refer to
Answer: The biological transition is when hominids became hominins.
Explanation: A period when early anatomically modern humans became fully human in symbolic thought and elaboration in cultural creativity.
The advent of behavioral modernity refer to biological transition.
What do you mean by biological transition?The biological transition include the intrauterine and neonatal periods; puberty, including both adrenarche and gonadarche; pregnancy and the postpartum period; and the perimenopausal and menopausal periods.
The stages are shock, anger, acceptance and commitment. People's initial reaction to the change will likely be shock or denial as they refuse to accept that change is happening. Once the reality sinks in and people accept the change is happening, they tend to react negatively.
Transitions signal relationships between ideas—relationships such as: “Another example coming up—stay alert!” or “Here's an exception to my previous statement” or “Although this idea appears to be true, here's the real story.”
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