the specific tonicity in which an animal cell will shrink or shrivel would be a cell in a hypertonic solution.

Answers

Answer 1

Plasmolysis, a process that causes cells to shrink and die when they are immersed in a hypertonic solution. Any external solution with the same solute concentration and water concentration as bodily fluids is said to be isotonic. There won't be any net water flow in an isotonic solution.

Eukaryotic plant cells are made up of specialized cellular organelles and differ fundamentally from animal cells in a number of ways. Typically, plant cells have a thick cell wall to hold them upright and keep them from losing their form. The cytoplasm, plasma membrane, and all other cell organelles work together to maintain the plant's activity. The water in the plant cell is kept in the vacuoles, an organelle with a membrane enclosing fluid. Under certain circumstances, plant cells either do not receive enough water or experience a significant loss of water. This causes the plant cell to completely contract, and the phenomenon is known as plasmolysis.

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Related Questions

5
Use the model to answer the following question.



Which type of change caused the new combination of traits in Gametes B and C?

The new combination is an alteration in the number of sugars in DNA.
The new combination is an alteration in the chemical composition of a gene.
The new combination is a change in the chromosome composition due to crossing-over.
The new combination is a change in the chromosome number due to nondisjunction.

Answers

The new combination is a change in the chromosome composition due to crossing-over, which caused the new combination of traits in gametes B and C (Option C).

What is the process of recombination or crossing over?

The process of recombination or crossing over refers to the change of genetic material between non-sister chromatids during prophase I, which increases the genetic variation of the resulting gametes.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the process of recombination or crossing over is able to increase the genetic variation of the germinal cells.

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energy yielding nutrients include

Answers

Energy yielding nutrients include fats, carbohydrates, and proteins as they provide energy to the body.

How does these three nutrients provide energy?

Fats :

Lipids are another name for fats. Fat is the nutrient with the highest energy density or energy content, with 9 calories per gram of fat. The second most prevalent form of nutrient in food is fat. They give the body's cells the energy they need to function, and they also support strong immune systems and healthy skin and hair. For future usage, such as during pregnancy or when energy needs alter, fats are stored in fat cells. Foods like seeds, nuts, seafood, dairy products, and vegetable oils are sources of unsaturated fats.

Carbohydrates:

The most prevalent form of nutrient in meals is carbohydrate. They are in charge of bringing sweetness to fruits and vegetables.Energy can be obtained from both simple and complex carbs, but only complex carbohydrates also include vitamins and minerals.Simple carbs consist of starch and sugar (glucose) (polysaccharides). Fruit sugars (fructose), milk sugars (lactose), and grain sugars are examples of complex carbohydrates (maltose and galactose). Another kind of carbohydrate is fiber. For those trying to reduce weight, a diet high in complex carbs and low in processed foods is advised.

Proteins:

Protein is an excellent source of fuel for the body, and it can aid in muscle recovery and help you feel your best after working out.Thus, if you lead an extremely active lifestyle, protein can be highly advantageous.A macronutrient is referred to as protein. This indicates that it is a nutrient that the body need in significant amounts for energy and as a crucial component of any diet.Although it is most frequently found in animal products, plant-based sources like nuts and legumes also contain a significant amount of it. Everyone is aware that the body needs food for energy. But you might not be aware that a significant amount of the body's energy comes from protein.

What is energy yielding nutrient?

The nutrients in meals that the body really uses to produce energy are known as energy-yielding nutrients. The macronutrients are another name for them. Micronutrients and macronutrients are both types of nutrients. A lot of macronutrients are required, and the majority of them are energy-giving (fiber is sometimes considered a macronutrient but does not provide energy). Micronutrients are necessary in small amounts to ensure that various bodily functions run smoothly, but because they do not instantly convert to energy, they are not considered to be an energy-yielding nutrient.

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concept map connective tissues

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Connective tissues are tissues that supports, protects, and gives structure to other tissues and organs in the body. All other types of tissues in the body are supported by connective tissues, which joins or divides them.

Like all tissue types, it is made up of cells encased in a space of liquid known as the extracellular matrix (ECM). In contrast to other types of tissue, connective tissue's cells are loosely rather than densely packed within the ECM.

Types of connective tissue

Two distinct forms of connective tissue are distinguished based on the cells present and the ECM structure.

Connective tissue proper; further broken down into loose and dense connective tissues.Specialised connective tissue; adipose tissues, cartilage, bone, blood,  and reticular.

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Which of the following statements are true about an IV set up? a. Line markings indicate how much fluid has infused into the patient. b. The injection port provides needle-less entry into the IV tubing. c. The IV bag includes information about the type and volume of IV solution d. The slide clamp compresses the tubing to allow IV flow rate to be increased or decreased e. The line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0"

Answers

The correct statements about the IV set are:

Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".

What is an infusion set?

It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.

Features of IV set:

Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml. Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free material

Hence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements

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The correct statements about the IV set are: option a, c and e.

Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?

It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.

Features of IV set:

Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml.Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free material

Hence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements

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place each choice in its correct position on the typical multipolar neuron in the figure. place the anatomical names of neuron structures above the neuron. place the events that occur at the bracketed locations below the neuron.

Answers

Multipolar neurons are neurons from the central nervous system. They are composed of an ovoid cell body with several dendrites emerging from it, a long axon, and axon terminals. Graded potential occurs in the neuronal soma, while action potential occurs in the axon.  

What is a multipolar neuron?

Neurons are formed in general by

A cellular body, soma,Dendrites, which are cytoplasmic extensions that receive stimuli from other cells, and An axon, which is a long formation capable of conducting the electrochemical signals.

Multipolar neurons are the ones that have a single axon and several dendrites.

Dendrites emerge from an ovoidal soma, and extend in different directions, creating a net and increasing the neuronal area to receive stimuli.

Axons are very large and covered by Schwann cells, facilitating impulse transmission.

These neurons are usually located in the central nervous system and integrate information coming from other nerve cells.

Every neuron forms connections with other neurons. These connections are known as synapsis.

As it happens in every synapsis between neurons when a presynaptic neuron sends information, a neurotransmitter is released.

Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that travel through the synaptic cleft to the junctional area of the other neuron and bind to its receptors in the postsynaptic membrane.

This binding produces a depolarization of the cell called an excitatory postsynaptic potential.

Graded potential initiates in the soma and dendrites.An action potential is initiated in the axon and spreads to the rest of the membrane depolarizing it.

In the image,

Anatomical names from the left to the right: dendrite, body cell, initial segment of the axon, axon, axon terminals.

Events from the left to the right: graded potential, action potential.

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some substances are not normal components of urine because they are completely reabsorbed. choose the substances that satisfy this requirement under healthy conditions.
a. Filtered Plasma Proteins
b. Amino Acids
c. Glucose
d. Lactate

Answers

The substance that satisfies the requirement, under healthy conditions, is Amino Acids and glucose. The correct options are b and c.

What is urine?

Urine is the wastewater that excretes from the body. Human pee is composed of 95 percent water. Minor amounts of urea (2%), creatinine (0.1%), uric acid (0.03%), chloride, sodium, potassium, sulfate, ammonium, and phosphate, as well as other ions and molecules, make up the remaining components. The filtrate contains components such as glucose, amino acids, Na+, and so on.

Therefore, the correct option is b. Amino Acids and c. Glucose.

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Answer and match them

Answers

Answer:

Answered (?)

Explanation:

1. C

2. E (?)

3. F

4. D

5. B

6. A

I wasn't sure about E because for me I would say that means 'extinction' but that's not an answer, I tried my best and hope this helps!

1. What 3 codons oct as termination signals?
2. What codon means start?

Answers

1. Stop codons are: UAA, UAG, and UGA
2. AUG is the start codon

Select the scenarios that can result in active immunity.

bone marrow transplant

antibodies cross the placenta

immunization with a vaccine

infection with a pathogen

plasma transfusions to treat Ebola virus infection

Answers

The scenarios that can result in active immunity are infection with a pathogen and immunization with a vaccine.

What do immunity—both active and passive—mean?

Immunity includes two types: active and passive. Active immunity is when our own immune system protects us from a pathogen. We acquire passive immunity to a virus when we gain immunity from another person.

When the immune system produces antibodies to disease after being exposed to the disease organism, this is known as active immunity. Natural or vaccine-induced immunity can be used to build up active immunity.

Individuals who are undergoing passive immunotherapy, also known as passive immunization, receive antibodies from a source other than their own body. Short-term immunity from infection is provided through passive immunity.

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which hormone aids in regulating intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption

Answers

Answer:

Parathyroid hormone regulates calcium levels in the blood, largely by increasing the levels when they are too low. It does this through its actions on the kidneys, bones and intestine: Bones – parathyroid hormone stimulates the release of calcium from large calcium stores in the bones into the bloodstream.

The hormone that aids in regulating intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption is Adrenal glucocorticoids. The correct option is a.

What are Adrenal glucocorticoids?

The adrenal cortex creates steroid hormones known as glucocorticoids. They have pleiotropic actions and significantly support the preservation of homeostasis at rest and in response to stress.

By increasing or lowering protein metabolism, adrenal glucocorticoids assist in controlling intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption.

Your adrenal glands create the glucocorticoid hormone cortisol, which is then released into the body. Hormones are substances that communicate with your organs, skin, muscles, and other tissues through your blood to coordinate various bodily functions. These signals advise your body on what to do and when.

Therefore, the correct option is a, Adrenal glucocorticoids.

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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:

Adrenal glucocorticoids

Testosterone.

Melatonin.

Cortisol.

Cells that have absorbed melanin to distribute pigmentation to other cells are located in what layer of the skin?.

Answers

Answer:

k

Explanation:

The hydrogen ions released by the dissociation of carbonic acid are buffered by their A) transport into the erythrocyte as sodium ions move out. B) transport out of the erythrocyte as a sodium ion moves in. C) active transport out of the erythrocyte. D) binding to DNA within the nucleus. E) binding to hemoglobin.

Answers

The hydrogen ions released by the dissociation of carbonic acid are buffered by their  transport into the erythrocyte as sodium ions move out option A is correct.

what are hydrogen ions?

A hydrogen ion is a positively charged molecule as a result of it loosing an electron. Which is also the nucleus of a hydrogen atom separated from its accompanying electron.

what is erythrocyte ?

literally it is referred to as Red blood cell, red blood corpuscles, haematids, erythroid cells etc. This is also type of blood cell that is made in the bone marrow and found in the blood. Erythrocytes contain a protein

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the theory of endosymbiosis and history of life on earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of other plant species bacterial species other tree species

Answers

The theory of endosymbiosis and the history of life on earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of other bacterial species (Option II).

What is the theory of endosymbiosis?

The theory of endosymbiosis is a model to explain the origin of eukaryotic cells, which postulates that these types of organisms evolved as a consequence of symbiotic relationships between primitive bacterial cells that converted into mitochondria and chloroplasts in animals and plants.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the theory of endosymbiosis is based on the scientific idea that eukaryotic cells as observed in plants and animals generated due to symbiosis with primitive bacterial cells that entered into the cell and performed cellular respiration and photosynthesis.

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What would happen to a cell that didn’t replicate its dna before cell division?

Answers

The cell will not proceed with the further processes.

What is equational division?

Chromosome replication and equal distribution between the two daughter cells occur during the cell division process known as mitosis. Each daughter cell has the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, making them diploid. Thus, mitosis is also referred to as equational division.

Unequal division will result if the cell didn't replicate prior to actually cell division. As a result of the checkpoints, it won't move on to the next step. The checkpoint will later start the apoptosis process, which results in programmed cell death.

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Give the number of protons electrons and neutrons in neutral atoms of each of the following isotopes.

Answers

Each of the above isotopes has, in turn, the following numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons:

a) : 5,5,5\s

b) : 80,80,119

c) : 29,29,34

d) : 6,6,7\s

e) : 34,34,43

It is referred to be an element if all of its atoms have a distinct number of neutrons despite having the same amount of protons.

Atomic number = amount of protons x number of electrons

Mass number minus proton count equals the amount of neutrons.

Number of protons, electrons, and neutrons calculation.

(a) Nuclear number is 5.

There are 5 protons.

There are five electrons.

Atomic weight is 10

Atomic number - proton count equals the amount of neutrons.

Neutron count is equal to 10 – 5 = 5.

(b) Atomic weight is 80.

80 is the proton count.

Electron count is 80.

Atomic weight is 199.

Atomic number - proton count equals the amount of neutrons.

Neutron count is equal to 199 − 80 = 119.

(c) Nuclear number is 29.

There are 29 protons.

There are 29 electrons.

Atomic weight: 63

the quantity of neutron.

(Give the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in neutral atoms of each of the following isotopes:

(a) 10,5 B

(b) 199,80 Hg

(c) 63,29 Cu

(d) 13,6 C

(e) 77,34 Se)

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which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants that will be true-breeding?

Answers

The boxes marked 1-4 correspond top plant that will be true breeding is 1 and 4 only. The correct option is A).

What is true breeding?

True breeding is a sort of breeding in which the parents generate kids with the same phenotype. This signifies that both parents are homozygous for all of the traits.

Aberdeen Angus cattle are an example of real breeding. True-breeding plants have the same genetic make-up for the character(s) under investigation. Pure breeds exhibit no variation and pass down the same qualities for numerous generations after self-pollination.

Therefore, the correct option is A) 1 and 4 only.

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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:

A) 1 and 4 only. B) 2 and 3 only. C) 1, 2, 3, and 4. D) 1 only.

In what respect do hominins differ from all other anthropoids?
lack of a tail
bipedal posture
eyes located on the front of the face
opposable thumbs

Answers

Hominin differ from all the other arthropods in the presence of bipedal posture. Thus, the correct option is B.

What are Hominins?

Hominin is the group which consists of the modern humans, extinct human species and all our immediate ancestors including the members of the genera Homo, Australopithecus, Paranthropus and Ardipithecus.

Hominins differ from that of all the other arthropods in the presence of the bipedal posture. Bipedal posture is a mode of locomotion which is found in many of the primates and birds, in which only the hind limbs are used for the purpose of walking.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

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_____ provides employees with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use in their present jobs. a. Development b. Recruiting c. Networking d. Training

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Which of the following are secondary sexual characteristics?
A
Growth of facial hairs in boys
B
Acnes in both boys and girls
C
Mammary glands in girls
D
All of the above

Answers

Characters with secondary sexual characteristics include those with facial hair, development of the breasts, chest hair beneath the arms, beards, and mustaches.

Which of these traits is secondary to sexuality?

In humans, obvious secondary sex traits include pubic hair on both sexes, larger breasts and expanded hips in women, facial hair and Adam's apples on men.

What are the secondary sexual traits of men?

Secondary characteristics of males include the ability to gain muscle mass more quickly than females, more body hair, pelvic build (lack of rounded hips), facial and chest hair, and increased body hair.

Girls' voices get harsh during puberty, whereas boys' voices go hoarse.

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agine that you have a sample of dna that contains a single, specific dna sequence. before you run your gel, you split your sample into two tubes. you run the dna from the first tube in lane two of your gel. you take the other tube and use an enzyme called a restriction enzyme that cuts the dna into two pieces at a specific point in the sequence. you then run this sample that was cut on the gel. which of the next three lanes (lane 3, 4, or 5) could be the same sample from lane two after it was cut into two pieces?

Answers

After being divided into two halves, the sample from lane two may still be present in lane 4, which is possible. Lane 2 is around 700 base pairs long, and lane 4 will add up to about 700 base pairs as well, despite the restriction enzyme that divides the DNA into two parts.

What is gel electrophoresis?

A laboratory technique called gel electrophoresis is used to divide combinations of DNA, RNA, or proteins based on their molecular sizes. In gel electrophoresis, the molecules that need to be separated are forced through a gel that has tiny holes by an electrical field.It involves an electrical field, specifically one that is applied such that the gel has a positive charge on one end and a negative charge on the other. Negatively charged molecules like DNA and RNA will be drawn to the positively charged end of the gel. However, because proteins lack a negative charge, they must first be combined with sodium dodecyl sulfate, a detergent, in order to separate them using this method. The proteins are given a linear structure and a negative charge during this process, enabling them to move toward the gel's positive end and be separated. Finally, after utilizing it to separate the DNA, RNA, or protein molecules, bands representing of different molecular size

Principle of gel electrophoresis:

Since DNA is negatively charged, it will move toward the positively charged electrode when an electric current is supplied to the gel. The DNA fragments are organized in size order because shorter DNA strands travel through the gel more quickly than longer ones.

Steps in gel electrophoresis:

Pouring the gel first, getting your samples ready, the gel must be loaded, run, stained,  exposed to an electric field while doing so.

Hence all about the gel electrophoresis.

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Part a. A plate inoculated with a sample volume of 10^-7 mL produced 170 colonies. What was the original concentration in the sample? Show work.Part b. After incubation, how many colonies should be on the 10^-8 mL plate from the dilution series in Part a? Show work.Part c. After incubation, how many colonies should be on the 10^-6 mL plate from the dilution series in Part a? Show work.

Answers

the serial dilution, solution for the original concentration in the sample is 170 colonies, solutions are A-10^-7 mL=1.7 x 10^9 cfu/mL

 After incubation, 10^-8 mL x 1.7 x 10^9 cfu/mL= 17 colonies should be on the 10^-8 mL plate from the dilution series in Part a , c-10^-6 mL x 1.7 x 10^9 cfu/mL= 1700 colonies. Serial dilutions are created by repeating the same dilution step, with the previous dilution serving as the input to the next dilution in each step. The dilutions are a geometric series because the dilution-fold is the same in each step (constant ratio between any adjacent dilutions). A small amount of a well-mixed solution is transferred into a new container, and more water or other solvent * is added to dilute the original solution. The diluted sample is then used as the base solution for further dilution.

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conjunctivitis can be caused by both bacteria and viruses. bacterial infections often present with a discharge, whereas a clear exudate is characteristic of infections. neonates can suffer from conjunctivitis following a birth if the mother has an active infection of either neisseria gonorrhoeae or .

Answers

The mother has an active infection of either neisseria gonorrhoeae or Gonococcal conjunctivitis tht is developed in newborn.

However, pregnant girls with gonorrhea can transmit the contamination to their infants all through vaginal delivery. This occurs due to the fact the toddler comes into touch with the mother's genital secretions. Symptoms in inflamed babies generally seem to 5 days after delivery. Conjunctivitis can end result from many causes, which include viruses, bacteria, allergens, touch lens use, chemicals, fungi, and sure diseases.

This is resulting from micro organism known as Neisseria gonorrhea. A new child infant can select out up this form of micro organism throughout vaginal beginning from an inflamed mother. This extreme form of conjunctivitis can be averted with using eye drops in newborns at beginning.

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Write the correct answer on the line provided.
Carmella Espinoza underwent ________ for the treatment of spider veins

Answers

sclerotherapy will be the answer

Carmella Espinoza underwent sclerotherapy for the treatment of spider veins.

What are Spider veins?

Spider veins are defined as tiny, red, purple and blue vessels which twist and turn that are easily visible even through the skin affecting capillaries which are the smallest blood vessels in the body that are red or blue, look like a spider web or a tree branch. These usually appear on the legs and face.

Several risks of spider veins which include:

HeredityOccupations which involve a lot of standing, for example, nurses, hair stylists, teachers, and factory workersObesityHormonal influences such as pregnancy, puberty, and menopause.

The treatment which is required is sclerotherapy for the treatment of spider veins.

Thus, Carmella Espinoza underwent sclerotherapy for the treatment of spider veins.

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which bones unite to form the highlighted bone?

Answers

The highlighted bone is named the sternum. The sternum, which lies in the middle of the chest, is where the ribs connect to the body.

Which joint does the humerus's highlighted bone form?

The humeral head's ball and glenoid's socket connect at the glenohumeral joint. The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles' tendons make up the rotator cuff, which joins the humerus to the scapula. Muscle and bone are joined via tendon.

What develops in the indicated curvature?

When a child is able to sit up on their own, the lumbar curvature that is highlighted begins to develop. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation.

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three babies were recently mixed up in a hospital. based on the data in the table above, the couple with blood types a and b are the actual parents of the child with blood type

Answers

Based on the data of blood types for both the couple and the babies, baby #3 with blood type AB belongs to Couple II with blood type A and B.

Why is Blood type important?

Certain antigens are substances that can trigger an immune response that are considered foreign to the body. These antigens are found in blood types that determines its presence or absence.

In order for medical situations such as blood transfusion to successfully occur, blood type matching is needed. Blood type plays other important roles in genetics that include matching to identify parentage as is the case of the question where the baby with AB can only come from the parents with A and B blood type.

The full question is:

Three babies were mixed at the hospital. Given the data below, the couple with blood types a and b are the actual parents of the child with blood type?

COUPLE #        I           II            IIIBlood type  A&A    A&B       B&O

BABY #          1            2           3Blood type    B           O          AB

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Covalent modification generally turns off genes by attracting proteins that bind to methylated cytosines and block gene transcription.
a) DNA Methylation
b) miRNA
c) RNAi
d) tRNA

Answers

The correct option among the following was DNA Methylation.

define DNA Methylation ?  

A biological process called DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to the DNA molecule. Without altering the sequence, methylation can modify the activity of a DNA region. DNA methylation often suppresses gene transcription when it occurs at a gene promoter. DNA methylation plays an important role in a variety of critical processes in mammals, including ageing, cancer, X-chromosome inactivation, genomic imprinting, and transposable element suppression.

Adenine and cytosine are the two nucleobases on which natural, enzymatic DNA methylation occurs as of 2016. N6-methyladenine[1], 5-methylcytosine[2], and N4-methylcytosine are the modified bases. [3]

The DNA nucleotide cytosine is methylated to create 5-methylcytosine at position 5 on the pyrimidine ring. This is the same place that separates thymine from the homologous RNA base uracil, which has no methyl group. 5-Methylcytosine undergoes spontaneous deamination and is changed into thymine. A T:G mismatch emerges from this. If A is substituted for G, the original C:G pair becomes a T:A pair, thus altering a base and producing a mutation. Repair mechanisms then fix it back to the original C:G pair.

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During the cell cycle, the cell divides its nucleus and chromosomes during. The cytoplasm and cell membrane divide during. Before the cell can divide again, it must grow and synthesize proteins during the phase and duplicate its chromosomes during the phase.

Answers

During the mitotic (M) phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells. M phase involves two distinct division-related processes: mitosis and cytokinesis.

The fluidy substance that fills a cell's inside is called cytoplasm. Salts, water, and numerous organic compounds make up its composition. Membranes surround some intracellular organelles, such as the nucleus and mitochondria, and keep them from coming into contact with the cytoplasm. One cell (the mother) splits into two genetically identical new cells (the daughters) during the process of mitosis, a kind of cell division. In the context of the cell cycle, mitosis refers to the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.

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Which organelles are found in an animal cell?check all that apply. Endoplasmic reticulumcentriolescell wallvacuoleslysosomesmitochondriachloroplastscell membrane.

Answers

The organelles present in an animal cell are-endoplasmic reticulum, centrioles, vacuoles, lysosomes, mitochondria, and cell membrane.

The endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane. It facilitates the production of chemical compounds as well as their transport into and out of the nucleus.

During meiosis and mitosis, centrioles are crucial to cell division.

Vacuoles play a key role in the storage of waste materials and aid in regulating the pH of the cell.

The waste molecules are broken down into simpler substances by lysosomes.

The mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell because they contribute to the production of ATP, which the cell uses as energy for a variety of tasks.

The cell's protective barrier is the cell membrane. It controls how things get into and out of the cell.

The complete question is:

Which organelles are found in an animal cell? check all that apply.

(A). Endoplasmic reticulum

(B). Centrioles

(C). Cell wall

(D). Vacuoles

(E). Lysosomes

(F). Mitochondrial

(G). Chloroplasts

(H). Cell membrane

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A trait that is found in and shared by two or more species, but is not derived from a common ancestor is known as?.

Answers

Wherein a trait turned into present inside the ancestral species it is stated to be a homologous trait. If the trait became now not a gift within the ancestral species but appeared independently in the lineages, it is known as an analogous trait that arose thru evolutionary convergence.

A synapomorphy is a shared, derived person, common among an ancestor and its descendants. A man or woman, or trait, is something observable approximately the organism.

Tendencies that get up via convergent evolution are called analogous structures they're contrasted with homologous structures, which have a not unusual starting place. the alternative to convergent evolution is 'divergent evolution wherein related species evolve extraordinary traits.

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outline the process of transcription in the nucleus including the

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Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three steps of transcription that are depicted here. Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three stages of transcription.

What are the four steps in the transcription process?

The process of copying DNA to create a complementary strand of RNA is called transcription. After that, RNA is translated to become proteins. Initiation, promoter removal, elongation, and termination are the four main phases of transcription.

In what transcription does the nucleus engage?

Transcription takes place in the cell's nucleus since the genes are bound there, but the mRNA transcript needs to be delivered to the cytoplasm. In prokaryotes, which include bacteria and archaea, transcription takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell since these organisms lack organelles and membrane-bound nuclei.

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