the spring was compressed three times farther and then the block is released, the work done on the block by the spring as it accelerates the block is

Answer:

Explanation:

English alphabets numbered fro 1 to 26

and the numbers 1 to10 so they are written in roman numbers as

1 - I

2 - II

3 - III

4 - IV

5 -V

6 - VI

7 -VII

8 - VIII

9 - IX

10 -X

11 - XI

12 - XII

13 - XIII

14 - XIV

15 - XV

16 - XVI

17 - XVII

18 - XVIII

19 - XIX

20- XX

21 - XXI

22 - XXII

23 - XXIII

24 - XXIV

25 - XXV

26 - XXVI  

Answer:

  K_b = 78 J

Explanation:

For this exercise we can use the conservation of energy relations

starting point. Lowest of the trajectory

        Em₀ = K = ½ mv²

final point. When it is at tea = 50º

        Em_f = K + U

        Em_f = ½ m v_b² + m g h

where h is the height from the lowest point

        h = L - L cos 50

        Em_f = ½ m v_b² + mg L (1 - cos50)

energy be conserve

        Em₀ = Em_f

         ½ mv² = ½ m v_b² + mg L (1 - cos50)

         K_b = ½ m v_b² + mg L (1 - cos50)

let's calculate

          K_b = ½ 2.0 6.0² + 2.0 9.8 6.0 (1 - cos50)

          K_b = 36 +42.0

          K_b = 78 J

Answer:

Option A. –5 m/s²

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Initial velocity (v₁) = 9 m/s

Initial time (t₁) = 0 s

Final velocity (v₂) = –6 m/s

Final time (t₂) = 3 s

Acceleration (a) =?

Next, we shall determine the change in the velocity and time. This can be obtained as follow:

For velocity:

Initial velocity (v₁) = 9 m/s

Final velocity (v₂) = –6 m/s

Change in velocity (Δv) =?

ΔV = v₂ – v₁

ΔV = –6 – 9

ΔV = –15 m/s

For time:

Initial time (t₁) = 0 s

Final time (t₂) = 3 s

Change in time (Δt) =?

Δt = t₂ – t₁

Δt = 3 – 0

Δt = 3 s

Finally, we shall determine the acceleration of the object. This can be obtained as follow:

Change in velocity (Δv) = –15 m/s

Change in time (Δt) = 3 s

Acceleration (a) =?

a = Δv / Δt

a = –15 / 3

a = –5 m/s²

Thus, the acceleration of the object is

–5 m/s².

Answer:

the relation between the time period of the planet is

T = 2π √[( r1 + r2 )³ / 8GM ]

Explanation:

Given the data i  the question;

mass of sun = M

minimum and maximum distance = r1 and r2 respectively

Now, using Kepler's third law,

" the square of period T of any planet is proportional to the cube of average distance "

T² ∝ R³

average distance a = ( r1 + r2 ) / 2

we know that

T² = 4π²a³ / GM

T² = 4π² [( ( r1 + r2 ) / 2 )³ / GM ]

T² = 4π² [( ( r1 + r2 )³ / 8 ) / GM ]

T² = 4π² [( r1 + r2 )³ / 8GM ]

T = √[ 4π² [( r1 + r2 )³ / 8GM ] ]

T = 2π √[( r1 + r2 )³ / 8GM ]

Therefore, the relation between the time period of the planet is

T = 2π √[( r1 + r2 )³ / 8GM ]

Answer:

Option C. 0.73 g/cm³

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Mass = 80 g

Area (A) = 10000 cm²

Thickness = 0.11 mm

Density =?

Next, we shall convert 0.11 mm to cm. This can be obtained as follow:

10 mm = 1 cm

Therefore,

0.11 mm = 0.11 mm × 1 cm / 10 mm

0.11 mm = 0.011 cm

Thus, 0.11 mm is equivalent to 0.011 cm.

Next, we shall determine the volume of the paper. This can be obtained as follow:

Area (A) = 10000 cm²

Thickness = 0.011 cm

Volume =?

Volume = Area × Thickness

Volume = 10000 × 0.011

Volume = 110 cm³

Finally, we shall determine the density of the paper. This can be obtained as follow:

Mass = 80 g

Volume = 110 cm³

Density =?

Density = mass / volume

Density = 80 / 110

Density = 0.73 g/cm³

Therefore the density of the paper is 0.73 g/cm³

Answer:

[tex]$\frac{d}{\lambda} = 1.54$[/tex]

Explanation:

Given :

The first dark fringe is for m = 0

[tex]$\theta_1 = \pm 19^\circ$[/tex]

Now we know for a double slit experiments , the position of the dark fringes is give by :

[tex]$d \sin \theta=\left(m+\frac{1}{2}\right) \lambda$[/tex]

The ratio of distance between the two slits, d to the light's wavelength that illuminates the slits, λ :

[tex]$d \sin \theta=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) \lambda$[/tex]     (since, m = 0)

[tex]$d \sin \theta=\frac{\lambda}{2}$[/tex]

[tex]$\frac{d}{\lambda} = \frac{1}{2 \sin \theta}$[/tex]

[tex]$\frac{d}{\lambda} = \frac{1}{2 \sin 19^\circ}$[/tex]

[tex]$\frac{d}{\lambda} = 1.54$[/tex]

Therefore, the ratio is [tex]$\frac{1}{1.54}$[/tex]  or 1 : 1.54

Answer:

7.60× 10^6 V/m

Explanation:

electric field strength can be determined as ratio of potential drop and distance, I.e

E=V/d

Where E= electric field

V= potential drop= 74.0 mV= 0.07 V

d= distance= 9.20 nm = 9.2×10^-9 m

Substitute the values

E= 0.07/ 9.2×10^-9

= 7.60× 10^6 V/m

Answer:

Step down transformers are used in power adaptors and rectifiers to efficiently decrease the voltage. They are also used in electronic SMPS.

Explanation:

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Thanks a lot

Answer:

Angular displacement before it stops = 18 rev

Explanation:

Given:

Speed of fan w(i) = 6 rev/s

Speed of fan (Slow) ∝ = 1 rev/s

Final speed of fan w(f) = 0 rev/s

Find:

Angular displacement before it stops

Computation:

w(f)² = w(i) + 2∝θ

0² = 6² + 2(1)θ

0 = 36 + 2θ

2θ = -36

Angular displacement before it stops = -36 / 2

θ = -18

Angular displacement before it stops = 18 rev

Answer:

c)  N_s / N_p = 115.15

Explanation:

Let's look for the voltage in the secondary, they do not indicate the power dissipated

          P = V_s i

          V_s = P / i

          V_s = 76 / 5.5 10⁻³

          V_s = 13.818 10³ V

the relationship between the primary and secondary of a transformer is

           [tex]\frac{V_p}{N_p} = \frac{V_s}{N_s}[/tex]

           [tex]\frac{N_s}{N_p} = \frac{V_s}{V_p}[/tex]

           Ns / Np = 13,818 10³ /120

           N_s / N_p = 115.15

Answer:

59.26°

Explanation:

Since a is the acceleration of the particle B, the horizontal component of acceleration is a" = asinθ and the vertical component is a' = acosθ where θ angle between a with arrow and the positive direction of the y axis.

Now, for particle B to collide with particle A, it must move vertically the distance between A and B which is y = 31 m in time, t.

Using y = ut + 1/2a't² where u = initial velocity of particle B = 0 m/s, t = time taken for collision, a' = vertical component of particle B's acceleration =  acosθ.

So, y = ut + 1/2a't²

y = 0 × t + 1/2(acosθ)t²

y = 0 + 1/2(acosθ)t²

y = 1/2(acosθ)t²   (1)

Also, both particles must move the same horizontal distance to collide in time, t.

Let x be the horizontal distance,

x = vt (2)where v = velocity of particle A = 2.8 m/s and t = time for collision

Also,  using x = ut + 1/2a"t² where u = initial velocity of particle B = 0 m/s, t = time taken for collision, a" = horizontal component of particle B's acceleration =  asinθ.

So, x = ut + 1/2a"t²

x = 0 × t + 1/2(ainsθ)t²

x = 0 + 1/2(asinθ)t²

x = 1/2(asinθ)t²  (3)

Equating (2) and (3), we have

vt = 1/2(asinθ)t²   (4)

From (1) t = √[2y/(acosθ)]

Substituting t into (4), we have

v√[2y/(acosθ)] = 1/2(asinθ)(√[2y/(acosθ)])²  

v√[2y/(acosθ)] = 1/2(asinθ)(2y/(acosθ)  

v√[2y/(acosθ)] = ytanθ

√[2y/(acosθ)] = ytanθ/v

squaring both sides, we have

(√[2y/(acosθ)])² = (ytanθ/v)²

2y/acosθ = (ytanθ/v)²

2y/acosθ = y²tan²θ/v²

2/acosθ = ytan²θ/v²

1/cosθ = aytan²θ/2v²

Since 1/cosθ = secθ = √(1 + tan²θ) ⇒ sec²θ = 1 + tan²θ ⇒ tan²θ = sec²θ - 1

secθ = ay(sec²θ - 1)/2v²

2v²secθ = aysec²θ - ay

aysec²θ - 2v²secθ - ay = 0

Let secθ = p

ayp² - 2v²p - ay = 0

Substituting the values of a = 0.35 m/s, y = 31 m and v = 2.8 m/s into the equation, we have

ayp² - 2v²p - ay = 0

0.35 × 31p² - 2 × 2.8²p - 0.35 × 31 = 0

10.85p² - 15.68p - 10.85 = 0

dividing through by 10.85, we have

p² - 1.445p - 1 = 0

Using the quadratic formula to find p,

[tex]p = \frac{-(-1.445) +/- \sqrt{(-1.445)^{2} - 4 X 1 X (-1)}}{2 X 1} \\p = \frac{1.445 +/- \sqrt{2.088 + 4}}{2} \\p = \frac{1.445 +/- \sqrt{6.088}}{2} \\p = \frac{1.445 +/- 2.4675}{2} \\p = \frac{1.445 + 2.4675}{2} or p = \frac{1.445 - 2.4675}{2} \\p = \frac{3.9125}{2} or p = \frac{-1.0225}{2} \\p = 1.95625 or -0.51125[/tex]

Since p = secθ

secθ = 1.95625 or secθ = -0.51125

cosθ = 1/1.95625 or cosθ = 1/-0.51125

cosθ = 0.5112 or cosθ = -1.9956

Since -1 ≤ cosθ ≤ 1 we ignore the second value since it is less than -1.

So, cosθ = 0.5112

θ = cos⁻¹(0.5112)

θ = 59.26°

So, the angle between a with arrow and the positive direction of the y axis would result in a collision is 59.26°.

Answer:

0

Explanation:

a = dv/dt

if v is constant than the slope of the v graph will be 0, so dv/dt is 0

a= 0

Answer:

The height is the same

Explanation:

Because they were at the same height but they fell at different velocities

Answer:

(I)

[tex]{ \bf{s = ut + \frac{1}{2}a {t}^{2} }} \\ 120 = (u \times 2) + \frac{1}{2} \times 0 \times {2}^{2} \\ 120 = 2u \\ { \tt{speed = 60 \: {ms}^{ - 1} }}[/tex]

(ii)

[tex]{ \bf{s = ut + \frac{1}{2}a {t}^{2} }} \\ 240 = (60t) \\ { \tt{time = 4 \: seconds}}[/tex]

Complete question is;

A microwave oven operates at a frequency of 2400 MHz. The height of the oven cavity is 25 cm and the base measures 30 cm by 30 cm. Assume that microwave energy is generated uniformly on the upper surface of the cavity and propagates directly

downward toward the base. The base is lined with a material that completely absorbs microwave energy. The total microwave energy content of the cavity is 0.50 mJ.

Answer:

Power ≈ 600,000 W

Explanation:

We are given;

Frequency; f = 2400 Hz

height of the oven cavity; h = 25 cm = 0.25 m

base area; A = 30 cm by 30 cm = 0.3m × 0.3m = 0.09 m²

total microwave energy content of the cavity; E = 0.50 mJ = 0.5 × 10^(-3) J

We want to find the power output and we know that formula for power is;

P = workdone/time taken

Formula for time here is;

t = h/c

Where c is speed of light = 3 × 10^(8) m/s

Thus;

t = 0.25/(3 × 10^(8))

t = 8.333 × 10^(-10) s

Thus;

Power = (0.5 × 10^(-3))/(8.333 × 10^(-10))

Power ≈ 600,000 W

Answer:

All the given options will result in an induced emf in the loop.

Explanation:

The induced emf in a conductor is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux.

[tex]emf = -\frac{d \phi}{dt} \\\\where;\\\\\phi \ is \ magnetic \ flux\\\\\phi = BA\ cos \theta[/tex]

where;

A is the area of the loop

B is the strength of the magnetic field

θ is the angle between the loop and the magnetic field

Considering option A, moving the loop outside the magnetic field will change the strength of the magnetic field and consequently result in an induced emf.

Considering option B, a change in diameter of the loop, will cause a change in the magnetic flux and in turn result in an induced emf.

Option C has a similar effect with option A, thus both will result in an induced emf.

Finally, considering option D, spinning the loop such that its axis does not consistently line up with the magnetic field direction will change the angle between the loop and the magnetic field. This effect will also result in an induced emf.

Therefore, all the given options will result in an induced emf in the loop.

Answer:

17.8cm

Explanation:

1.3kg --> 4cm

1kg --> 3, 1/13cm

5.8kg --> 18.8cm

Solution :

Given data :

Mass of the merry-go-round, m= 1640 kg

Radius of the merry-go-round, r = 7.50 m

Angular speed, [tex]$\omega = \frac{1}{8}$[/tex]  rev/sec

                             [tex]$=\frac{2 \pi \times 7.5}{8}$[/tex]  rad/sec

                              = 5.89 rad/sec

Therefore, force required,

[tex]$F=m.\omega^2.r$[/tex]

   [tex]$$=1640 \times (5.89)^2 \times 7.5[/tex]  

   = 427126.9 N

Thus, the net work done for the acceleration is given by :

W = F x r

   = 427126.9 x 7.5

   = 3,203,451.75 J

Answer:

The exit velocity of water is  B. 15 m/s.

Explanation:

According to equation of continuity, for a steady flow of water, the volume of liquid entering a pipe in 1 second is equal to the volume that leaves per second.

If the initial exit area of the pipe is A₁ and the speed of exit is v₁ and the final exit area is A₂ and its corresponding exit velocity  is v₂, then,

Rewrite the expression for v₂.

Substitute 10 cm² for A₁, 2 cm² for A₂ and 3 m/s for v₁.

The exit speed of water from the hose is 15 m/s.

Answer:

Power = Energy/time

Energy = Power xtime.

Time= 20hrs

Power = 100Watt =0.1Kw

Energy = 0.1 x 20 = 2Kwhr.

This Answer is in Kilowatt-hour ...

If the one given to you is in Joules

You'd have to Change your time to seconds

Then Multiply it by the power of 100Watts.

Explanation:

https://tse2.mm.bing.net/th?id=OGC.b52c959ac810db1177599a161631c917&pid=Api&rurl=https%3a%2f%2fupload.wikimedia.org%2fwikipedia%2fcommons%2fthumb%2ff%2ff5%2fLight_dispersion_conceptual_waves.gif%2f266px-Light_dispersion_conceptual_waves.gif&ehk=TdcWPzr5xGP8xUOSOqZXauGOS1jHDMu7WnxPzkl7esw%3d

Answer:

elative magnitude of the two forces is the same and they are applied in a constant direction.

Explanation:

Newton's second law states that the sum of the forces is equal to the mass times the acceleration  

              ∑ F = m a

in this case there are two forces on the x axis

             F_applied - fr = 0

since they indicate that the velocity is constant, consequently

             F_applied = fr

the relative magnitude of the two forces is the same and they are applied in a constant direction.

Answer:

i think the answer is 0.001m³

Relative density is the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of a given material.

Answer:

North

Explanation:

Friction is a reaction force against the direction of movement. So since the direction of movement is south the friction would be opposite and move north.

Answer:

South To North

Explanation:

Frictional force acts in the direction opposite to the direction of motion of a body. Because the object is moving from north to south, the direction of frictional force is from south to north

Answer:

When an object is dropped, the "principal" force that acts on that object is the gravitational force.

Thus, in the absence of air resistance and such, the acceleration of the object will be equal to the gravitational acceleration:

g = 9.8m/s^2

So, when we drop objects in the moon (where there is no air) the acceleration of every object will be exactly the same. (so there is no dependence in the mass or shape of the object)

Thus, if we drop a coin and a feather in the moon, both objects will fall with the same acceleration, and then both objects will hit the ground at the same time.

But if we are in Earth, we can not ignore the air resistance (a force that acts in the opposite direction than the movement of the object)

And this force depends on the shape and mass of the object (for example, something with a really larger surface and really thin, like a sheet of paper will be more affected by this force than a small rock)

Then here, when the air resistance applies, we should expect that the heavier and smaller object (the coin) to be less affected by this force, then the resistance that the coin experiences is smaller, then the coin falls "faster" than the feather.

Explanation:

hope it helps !!!!!!!!!!!!!

If an object of a constant mass experiences a constant net force, it will have a constant acceleration.

The definition of force in physics is: The push or pull on a massed object changes its velocity. An external force is an agent that has the power to alter the resting or moving condition of a body. It has a direction and a magnitude.

The application of force is the location at which force is applied, and the direction in which the force is applied is known as the direction of the force. A spring balance can be used to calculate the Force. The Newton is the SI unit of force.

According to Newton's second law of motion:

Applied force = mass × acceleration.

Hence, if an object of a constant mass experiences a constant net force, it will have a constant acceleration.

Learn more about force here:

https://brainly.com/question/26115859

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Answer:

64.20m

Explanation:

As we can see from the image I have attached below, the route that the chipanzee makes forms a right triangle. In this case, the shortest distance is represented by x in the image, which is the hypotenuse. To find this value we use the Pythagorean theorem which is the following.

[tex]a^{2} +b^{2} = c^{2}[/tex]

where a and b are the length of the two sides and c is the length of the hypotenuse (x). Therefore, we can plug in the values of the image and solve for x

[tex]51^{2} +39^{2} =x^{2}[/tex]

2,601 + 1,521 = [tex]x^{2}[/tex]

4,122 = [tex]x^{2}[/tex]   ... square root both sides

64.20 = x

Finally, we see that the shortest distance is 64.20m