The store sells a television for $1000. customers can choose to receive 10% discount and pay it off at a simple interest rate of 4% or they can choose to pay the full price and pay it off in 3 years with no interest. which option is better

Answer:

Let the height of the parallelogram be h

From :the formula of finding Area of the parallelogram

The probability density function (PDF) of Y can be determined by the transformation of the PDF of X. Using the transformation rule, we can calculate that fy(y) = fx(x) |dx/dy|, where x is a function of y, since y = Fx(x).

We can use the Chain Rule to determine the derivative of x with respect to y. Since Fx is a monotone increasing function, dx/dy = 1/F'x(x). Substituting this into the transformation rule, fy(y) = fx(x) / F'x(x).

Therefore, to find fy(y), we need to calculate F'x(x). Fx is the cumulative distribution function, which means that its derivative F'x(x) is the probability density function of X, or fx(x). Substituting this into the transformation rule, fy(y) = fx(x) / fx(x). Since fx(x) = fx(2) and fx(2) is a constant, fy(y) = 1/fx(2).

To summarize, the probability density function of Y is given by fy(y) = 1/fx(2).

for such more questions on probability density function

https://brainly.com/question/28705601

#SPJ11

In the given diagram, ΔHIJ ≈ ΔFIG, the value of u in triangle FIG is calculated as: IG = 8 yd

A triangle is a geometric shape that is formed by three line segments that intersect at three non-collinear points. The three line segments are called the sides of the triangle, while the three points where they intersect are called the vertices of the triangle.

A triangle is a three-sided polygon formed by three line segments intersecting at three non-collinear points, and it can be classified based on the length of its sides and the measure of its angles.

∆HIJ similar to ∆FIG

HI/FI = IJ/IG

5/10 = 4/IG

IG = 8 yd

To know more about triangle, visit:

https://brainly.in/question/17424774

#SPJ1

In the given diagram, ΔHIJ ≈ ΔFIG, the value of u in triangle FIG is calculated as: IG = 8 yd

A triangle is a geometric shape that is formed by three line segments that intersect at three non-collinear points. The three line segments are called the sides of the triangle, while the three points where they intersect are called the vertices of the triangle.

A triangle is a three-sided polygon formed by three line segments intersecting at three non-collinear points, and it can be classified based on the length of its sides and the measure of its angles.

∆HIJ similar to ∆FIG
HI/FI = IJ/IG
5/10 = 4/IG
IG = 8 yd

To know more about triangle, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/28470545
#SPJ1

Answer: 4

Step-by-step explanation:

4. shift the boundary line up 1

Answer: To solve the problem, we need to use the given time to find Michaela's swimming rate in meters per second, and then use that rate to calculate the distance she will swim in 10 minutes.

1 minute = 60 seconds

4 minutes and 50 seconds = 4 x 60 + 50 = 290 seconds

So, Michaela's rate is:

distance / time = x / 290 seconds

where x is the distance she can swim in 290 seconds.

Simplifying the equation:

x = distance = (time x distance) / time = (290 seconds x distance) / 290 seconds = distance

We know that Michaela can swim 500 meters in 290 seconds:

500 meters / 290 seconds = 1.724 meters per second

Therefore, in 10 minutes (600 seconds), she will swim:

distance = rate x time = 1.724 meters/second x 600 seconds = 1034.4 meters

So, Michaela will swim 1034.4 meters in 10 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have that, if they put 40 chips in a hat, each one with the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 or 10, and each number is put on four chips. Four tokens are drawn from the hat at random and without replacement, the value of q/p, q,p as probabilities, will be given by 360, therefore, the correct option is (D) 360

The probability that all four tokens have the same number (p) is equal to the total number of possible outcomes that meet that criterion divided by the total number of possible outcomes.

In this case, there are 10 possible numbers that could come up (1-10). Therefore, there are 10 possible outcomes for the four slips of paper that have the same number. Each outcome has the same probability of 1/10, so p = (1/10)^4 = 1/10000.

The probability that two of the slips have a number a and the other two have a number b (q) is equal to the total number of possible outcomes meeting that criterion divided by the total number of possible outcomes.

In this case, there are 10 possible numbers that could be drawn (1-10) and 2 ways to choose 2 different numbers out of 10, so there are 20 possible outcomes for two of the slips bearing a number and the other two bearing a number b. Each outcome has the same probability of 1/20, so q = (1/20)^4 = 1/3200000.

The ratio of q to p is q/p = 3200000/10000 = 360. Therefore, the value of q/p is 360.

See more information about probability in: https://brainly.com/question/24756209

#SPJ11

the HCF of x, 2y, 3y, 4z, x², 3z, and 5, where x, y, z are

distinct prime numbers is 1.

To find the highest common factor (HCF) of the given numbers, we need to find the common factors of each pair of numbers and then find the highest common factor of all the resulting common factors.

First, let's find the prime factors of the given numbers:

x = a prime number (distinct from y and z)

2y = 2 × y

3y = 3 × y

4z = 2² × z

3z = 3 × z

x² = a prime number squared (distinct from y and z)

5 = a prime number

Next, we can pair up the numbers and find their common factors:

Common factors of x and 2y: 1, 2, y

Common factors of 3y and 4z: 1, 2, 3, y, z, 6

Common factors of x² and 3z: 1, 3, x, z, xz

Common factors of 5 and 2: 1

Finally, we find the highest common factor of all the resulting common factors:

The highest common factor of x, 2y, 3y, 4z, x², 3z, and 5 is 1, since it is the only factor that is common to all the pairs.

Therefore, the HCF of x, 2y, 3y, 4z, x², 3z, and 5 is 1.

To learn more about prime numbers click here

brainly.com/question/30358834

#SPJ4

The expected value of x is 1.80, the variance is 0.72, and the standard deviation is 0.85.

Calculate the expected value, variance, and standard deviation of the random variable x as follows. Round all answers to two decimal places, and keep in mind that x is the number of red marbles that Suzan has in her hand after selecting three marbles from a bag containing three red marbles and two green ones.

Expected Value: Since there are 3 red marbles and 2 green marbles in the bag, the probability of drawing a red marble is: P(R) = 3/5The probability of drawing a green marble is P(G) = 2/5Therefore, the expected value of the random variable X is: E(X) = μ = np = 3/5 * 3 = 1.80

Variance can be calculated using the following formula: Var(X) = npq, where p is the probability of success and q is the probability of failure of the event. In this scenario, the probability of drawing a red marble is P(R) = 3/5, and the probability of drawing a green marble is P(G) = 2/5.

Therefore, Var(X) = npq Var(X) = (3/5)*(2/5)*3Var(X) = 1.80 * 0.4Var(X) = 0.72Standard Deviation: The square root of the variance is equal to the standard deviation. Hence, the formula for standard deviation is: S.D. = √Var(X)S.D. = √0.72S.D. = 0.85

Learn more about Standard deviation

brainly.com/question/23907081

#SPJ11

Answer:

A.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Laplace transform is a mathematical technique used to solve differential equations and analyze signals and systems in engineering, physics, and other fields. It is named after the French mathematician Pierre-Simon Laplace.

The Laplace transform of the given initial value problem is given by:

Y(s) = (2s^2 + 16) / (s^2(s^2+16))

Inverting the Laplace transform to find y(t) gives us:

y(t) = e^(-8t) * (1-cos(4t)) + 2sin(4t) + u2(t)

Where u2(t) is the Heaviside function that turns on at t = 2.

To find the Laplace transform of y(t), we first take the Laplace transform of both sides of the differential equation:

L(y''(t)) + 16L(y(t)) = L(e^(-2t)u_2(t))

Using the property L(y''(t)) = s^2Y(s) - sy(0) - y'(0) and noting that y(0) = 0 and y'(0) = 0, we can simplify to get:

s^2Y(s) + 16Y(s) = L(e^(-2t)u_2(t))

Using the property L(e^(-at)u_c(t)) = 1/(s + a) * e^(-cs), we can substitute to get:

s^2Y(s) + 16Y(s) = 1/(s + 2)^2

Now we can solve for Y(s):

Y(s) = 1/(s^2 + 16) * 1/(s + 2)^2

To find y(t), we need to take the inverse Laplace transform of Y(s). We can use partial fraction decomposition to simplify the expression:

Y(s) = A/(s^2 + 16) + B/(s + 2) + C/(s + 2)^2

Multiplying both sides by the denominator and solving for A, B, and C, we get:

A = 1/8

B = -1/4

C = 1/8

Substituting these values, we get:

Y(s) = 1/8 * 1/(s^2 + 16) - 1/4 * 1/(s + 2) + 1/8 * 1/(s + 2)^2

Taking the inverse Laplace transform of each term, we get:

y(t) = (1/8)sin(4t) - (1/4)e^(-2t) + (1/4)te^(-2t)

Therefore, the solution to the initial value problem y'' + 16y = e^(-2t)u_2(t), y(0) = 0, y'(0) = 0 is y(t) = (1/8)sin(4t) - (1/4)e^(-2t) + (1/4)te^(-2t).

To learn more about “Laplace transform” refer to the https://brainly.com/question/29583725

#SPJ11

By the congruence postulate, we have shown that the quadrilateral is  ΔAED ≅ ΔCED.

Let's start by showing that AD = CD. Since AB = AD and BC = CD, we can rewrite AB + BC as AD + CD. This means that AD = AB + BC - CD. But we know that AB = AD, so we can substitute AD for AB to get AD + BC = 2AD + CD. Simplifying this equation, we get AD = CD.

Next, we can show that AE = CE. Since AC is a diagonal of the kite, we know that AC bisects angle BAD and angle BCD. This means that angle BAC = angle DAC and angle BDC = angle CDC. Since AD = CD, we know that triangle ACD is isosceles, so angle ACD = angle CAD.

Using these angle equalities, we can conclude that angle CAE = angle CDE. Since AC ⊥ BD, we know that angle CAD = angle CDE, so we can conclude that triangle ACE is isosceles, which means that AE = CE.

Finally, we need to show that angle AED = angle CED. Since AD = CD and AE = CE, we know that triangles AED and CED have two pairs of congruent sides. Additionally, we know that AC is a common side of the triangles.

Since AC is perpendicular to BD, we know that angle ACD and angle BDC are complementary angles.

This means that angle ACD = 90 - angle BDC and angle CAD = 90 - angle BAC. Using these angle equalities, we can conclude that angle AED = angle CED.

To know more about quadrilateral here

https://brainly.com/question/29934440

#SPJ4

Parachutist's rate during free fall is 40 meters per second and will fall approximately 490 meters during 10 seconds of free fall.

First, we need to convert 132 feet per second to meters per second. We know that 1 meter is equal to 3.3 feet, so we can use the following conversion factor:

[tex]$\frac{3meter}{3.3 feet}[/tex]

To convert feet per second to meters per second, we can multiply by the conversion factor:

[tex]132 (\frac{1}{3.3} ) = 40 meters/second[/tex]

Therefore, the parachutist's rate during free fall is 40 meters per second.

Next, we can use the following formula to find the distance the parachutist falls during 10 seconds of free fall:

distance =[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] * acceleration * time²

where acceleration due to gravity is approximately 9.8 meters/second^2.

Substituting the given values, we get:

distance = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] * 9.8 meters/second² * (10 seconds)²

distance = 490 meters

Therefore, the parachutist will fall approximately 490 meters during 10 seconds of free fall.

To know more about Foot visit:

brainly.com/question/14230645

#SPJ1

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation that represents how much will be in the account after 7 years is:

M = 7,600(1+0.06)^7

Here's the explanation:

The formula for calculating the future value (M) of a present value (P) invested at an annual interest rate (r) for a certain number of years (t) is M = P(1+r)^t.

In this case, the present value (P) is 7,600 dollars, the annual interest rate (r) is 6% or 0.06, and the number of years (t) is 7.

Substituting these values into the formula, we get M = 7,600(1+0.06)^7. This represents how much will be in the account after 7 years if no money is added or removed from the account.

Let n be a positive integer. We can use the properties of modular arithmetic to calculate this remainder. Let's start with a = (32n + 4)-1 mod 9. We can rewrite this as a = 9 - (32n + 4)-1 because 9 = 0 mod 9.

We can use Fermat's Little Theorem to calculate (32n + 4)-1. This theorem states that (32n + 4)-1 mod 9 = (32n + 4)8 mod 9.

Using the identity (a + b)n mod m = ((a mod m) + (b mod m))n mod m, we can simplify the equation to (32n mod 9 + 4 mod 9)8 mod 9.

32n mod 9 = 0, so (32n mod 9 + 4 mod 9)8 mod 9 = 48 mod 9 = 1.

Finally, a = 9 - 1 = 8 mod 9, so the remainder when a is divided by 9 is 8.

Learn more about positive integer:

https://brainly.com/question/16952898

#SPJ11

The factοred fοrm οf a pοlynοmial is

1. 30b³- 54b² = 6b²(5b−9)

2. 3y⁵ - 48y³ = 3y³(y  −4)(y + 4)

3. x³ + 8 = (x + 2) (x² – 2x + 2²)

4. y³ - 64 = (y - 4) (y² – 4y + 4²)

5.  8c³ + 343(2c + 7)(4c² − 14c + 49)

The factοred fοrm οf a pοlynοmial is represented as a³ + b³ = (a + b) (a² – ab + b²). All equatiοns are cοmpοsed οf pοlynοmials. Earlier we've οnly shοwn yοu hοw tο sοlve equatiοns cοntaining pοlynοmials οf the first degree, but it is οf cοurse pοssible tο sοlve equatiοns οf a higher degree.

One way tο sοlve a pοlynοmial equatiοn is tο use the zerο-prοduct prοperty. If yοu remember frοm earlier chapters the prοperty οf zerο tells us that the prοduct οf any real number and zerο is zerο.

We will use the formula

a³ + b³ = (a + b) (a² – ab + b²)

And

a³ - b³ = (a - b) (a² – ab + b²)

1. [tex]30b^3-\ 54b^2[/tex]

⇒ 6b²(5b−9)

2. 3y⁵ - 48y³

⇒ 3y³(  y² - 16y)

⇒ 3y³(  y² - 4 + 4 - 16y)

⇒ 3y³(y  −4)(y + 4)

3. x³ + 8

⇒ x³ + 2³

Using a³ + b³ = (a + b) (a² – ab + b²)

⇒ x³ + 2³

⇒ (x + 2) (x² – 2x + 2²)

4. y³ - 64

⇒ y³ -  4³

Using a³ - b³ = (a - b) (a² – ab + b²)

⇒ y³ -  4³

⇒ (y - 4) (y² – 4y + 4²)

5. 8c³ + 343

Using a³ + b³ = (a + b) (a² – ab + b²)

2c + 7

(2c + 7)(4c² − 14c + 49)

To know more about factored form visit:-

brainly.com/question/29065045

#SPJ1

Answer:

The system has one point because when the system is graphed the lines will intersect at exactly one point. Therefore, there is only one solution to this system of equations.

You walked a total of 4576 yards to get to the basketball court.

In order to represent amounts in a more practical or acceptable unit of measurement, unit conversions are crucial for addressing mathematical issues. In this task, for instance, we were given distances in miles but had to translate them into yards to get the overall distance travelled. We wouldn't be able to compare or combine values that are stated in various units without unit conversions. When working with formulae or equations that contain physical quantities with multiple units, unit conversions are also crucial.

Given that, the distance walked is 1.5 miles and 1 1/10 miles.

Coverting into yards we have:

1.5 miles is equal to 1.5 x 1760 = 2640 yards

1 1/10 miles is equal to (1 + 1/10) x 1760 = 1936 yards

Total distance is:

2640 + 1936 = 4576 yards

Hence, you walked a total of 4576 yards to get to the basketball court.

Learn more about unit conversions here:

https://brainly.com/question/19420601

#SPJ1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of given circle is 28.27 sq.m. The circumference of given circle is 18.85 m (rounded to the nearest hundredth).

The circumference of a circle is the distance around the edge or boundary of the circle. It is also the perimeter of the circle. The circumference is calculated using the formula:

C = 2πr

where "C" is the circumference, "π" is a mathematical constant approximately equal to 3.14159, and "r" is the radius of the circle.

The circumference of a circle is proportional to its diameter, which is the distance across the circle passing through its center. Specifically, the circumference is equal to the diameter multiplied by π, or:

C = πd

where "d" is the diameter of the circle.

Given that the diameter of the circle is 6m.

We know that the radius (r) of the circle is half of the diameter (d), so:

r = d/2 = 6/2 = 3m

The area (A) of the circle is given by the formula:

A = πr²

Substituting the value of r, we get:

A = π(3)² = 9π ≈ 28.27 sq.m (rounded to the nearest hundredth)

The circumference (C) of the circle is given by the formula:

C = 2πr

Substituting the value of r, we get:

C = 2π(3) = 6π ≈ 18.85 m (rounded to the nearest hundredth)

To know more about area visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28642423

#SPJ1

The complete question is:

The volume of the solid is 2160ft^3

Volume of Cuboid is the multiplication of length breath and height.

We know that, Volume of Cuboid = l×b×h

put the given values from figure,

= 12×10×15

=1800ft^3

Volume of top = Area of triangle × length

= 1/2 × 4× 12× 15

=360ft^3

Total volume= 1800 + 360

= 2160ft^3

Therefore, the volume of the solid is 2160ft^3

To know more about Cuboid, visit:

https://brainly.in/question/835104

#SPJ1

Cuboid: According to the question the volume of the solid is [tex]2160ft^3[/tex].

A cuboid is a three-dimensional geometric shape which is composed of six rectangular faces. It has 12 edges and 8 vertices. It is also referred to as a rectangular prism. The three dimensions of a cuboid are its length, width, and height. The cuboid is a versatile shape that can be used in many different ways and can be seen in everyday objects such as boxes, desks, and bookshelves. It is also a common shape for mathematically-based problems such as calculating the volume of a cuboid.

We know that, Volume of Cuboid = l×b×h
put the given values from figure,
= 12×10×15
=[tex]1800ft^3[/tex]
Volume of top = Area of triangle × length
= 1/2 × 4× 12× 15
=[tex]360ft^3[/tex]
Total volume= 1800 + 360
= [tex]2160ft^3[/tex]
Therefore, the volume of the solid is [tex]2160ft^3[/tex]

To know more about Cuboid, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29568631
#SPJ1

Answer:

the maximum height is 2 meters

The percent markup is 25%.

Markup percentage is calculated by dividing the gross profit of a unit (its sales price minus it's cost to make or purchase for resale) by the cost of that unit.

Given that, A department store buys 300 shirts for a total cost of $7,200 and sells them for $30 each.

Cost of one shirt [tex]= 7200 \div 300 = \$24[/tex]

And they sold at $30 each,

Percent markup [tex]= 30-24 \div 24 \times 100[/tex]

[tex]= 25\%[/tex]

Hence, the percent markup is 25%.

Learn more about Markup percentage, click:

https://brainly.com/question/28945726

We are interested in the population proportion of drivers who claim they always buckle upa.i. x = 320 ii. n = 400 iii. p′ = 0.8

b. The random variable X represents the number of drivers out of the sample of 400 who claim they always buckle up, while P′ represents the sample proportion of drivers who claim they always buckle up.

c. The distribution to use for this problem is the normal distribution because the sample size is large enough (n=400) and the population proportion is not known.

d. i. The 95% confidence interval for the population proportion who claim they always buckle up is (0.7709, 0.8291).

ii. The graph is a normal distribution curve with mean p′ = 0.8 and standard deviation σ = sqrt[p′(1-p′)/n].

iii. The error bound is 0.0291.

e. Three difficulties the insurance companies might have in obtaining random results from a telephone survey are:

Selection bias: The survey might not be truly random if the telephone numbers selected are not representative of the population of interest.

Nonresponse bias: People may choose not to participate in the survey or may not be reached, which could bias the results.

Social desirability bias: Respondents may give socially desirable answers rather than their true opinions, which could also bias the results.

For more questions like Variable click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/17344045

#SPJ11

Answer:

1 minute = 1/6

2 minutes = 1/3

3 minutes =1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

one can eat a bag in 15 minutes so in 1 minute this cat can eat 1/15 of a bag

the other cat can eat a bag in 10 minutes so in 1 minute the cat can eat 1/10 of the bag

to find how much they can eat in 1 minute, add 1/10 and 1/15 which gives you 1/6. to find 2 and 3 minutes just multiply by 1/6 by 2 or 3

The given square with a side length of one unit is known to contain five points. One must prove that at least two of these points are within square root 2/2 units of each other.

According to the Pigeonhole principle, "if n items are put into m containers, with n > m, then at least one container must contain more than one item."In this context, the square is the container, and the points inside it are the objects. If more than four points are picked, the theorem is true, and two points are nearer to each other than the square root of 2/2 units.

Let's place four points on the square's four corners. The distance between any two of these points is the square root of two units since the square's side length is 1.

Let's add another point to the mix. That point is either inside the square or outside it. Without loss of generality, let us assume that the point is inside the square. It must then be within the perimeter outlined by joining the square's corners to the point that was not a corner already.

The perimeter of the square described above is a square with a side length of square root 2 units.

Since we have five points in the square, at least two of them must be in the same smaller square, due to the pigeonhole principle. Without loss of generality, let's assume that two of the points are in the upper-left square. As a result, any points within this square are within the square root 2 units of any of the other four points. Hence, at least two points of the five selected are within the square root of 2/2 units of each other.

To know more about the "pigeonhole principle": https://brainly.com/question/13982786

#SPJ11

a. The mean of X is 1.7549 and the standard deviation is 0.3536.

b. To calculate the proportion of washing machines that will last for more than 15 years, we need to use the standard normal distribution table. The z-score for 15 years is (15-14)/0.3536 = 2.822. Using the table, we find that the proportion of washing machines that will last for more than 15 years is 0.9968.

c. To calculate the proportion of washing machines that will last for less than 10 years, we need to use the standard normal distribution table. The z-score for 10 years is (10-14)/0.3536 = -2.822. Using the table, we find that the proportion of washing machines that will last for less than 10 years is 0.0032.

d. To calculate the 90th percentile of the life of the washing machines, we need to use the standard normal distribution table. The z-score for the 90th percentile is 1.28. Using the table, we find that the 90th percentile is 17 years.

To learn more about normal distribution refer :

https://brainly.com/question/29509087

#SPJ11

Using trigonometry, the distance between the two vessels when the second boat enters the lighthouse's radius is 13.46 miles.

The relationships between angles and length ratios are investigated in the branch of mathematics known as trigonometry. The use of geometry in astronomical study led to the establishment of the field during the Hellenistic era in the third century BC.

The distance between the two boats when the second boat enters the radius of the lighthouse light is 13.46 miles using trigonometry.

A triangle is a polygon with three edges and three vertices. It belongs to the basic geometric shapes. A triangle with the vertices A, B, and C is represented by the Δ ABC.

Any three points that are not collinear create a singular triangle and a singular plane in Euclidean geometry. (i.e. a two-dimensional Euclidean space). In other words, every triangle is a part of a plane, and that triangle is a part of only one plane. In the Euclidean plane, all triangles are contained within a single plane, but in higher-dimensional Euclidean spaces, this is no longer the case. This page covers triangles in Euclidean geometry, especially the Euclidean plane, unless otherwise specified.

In this question,

The side of the isosceles triangle is given by,

l=2a sin(θ/2)

where a= 18 miles

θ= 44°

l= 2*18*sin 22°

= 36*0.374

= 13.46 miles

To know more about Trigonometry, visit

https://brainly.com/question/29002217

#SPJ1

The daily dose is 40mg, this dose per kilogram per day is within the therapeutic range of 2-3mg/kg/day, which means that the medication is within the safe and effective range for this patient's weight.

The weight of the patient is 20kg, and the prescribed dosage is 10mg every 6 hours. To calculate the daily dose, we need to multiply the prescribed dosage by the number of doses per day. Since the medication is prescribed every 6 hours, this means that the patient will take it 4 times a day.

=> (10mg x 4 doses) = 40 mg

The therapeutic range is the range of doses at which the medication is most effective and safe. In this case, the therapeutic range is 2-3mg/kg/day. To determine if the daily dose is within the therapeutic range, we need to divide the daily dose (40mg) by the patient's weight (20kg) to get the dose per kilogram per day, which is 2mg/kg/day.

However, it's important to note that the therapeutic range is a general guideline and may vary depending on the patient's individual circumstances and medical history.

To know more about therapeutic here

https://brainly.com/question/14598348

#SPJ4

120 is 30 percent of 400

The number of minutes needed to complete a job, m, varies inversely with the number of workers, w.

Three workers can complete a job in 30 minutes.

To find, out how many minutes would it take 6 workers to complete the job.

The formula used for inverse variation is, m1w1 = m2w2

Where, m1 = 30,

w1 = 3,

m2 = ?

and w2 = 6

Substitute the given values in the above formula, 30 × 3 = m2 × 6

Simplify the above expression,90 = 6m2

Divide both sides by 6,90 / 6 = m2m2 = 15

Hence, it will take 15 minutes for 6 workers to complete the job.

To learn more about “inverse variation” refer to the https://brainly.com/question/13998680

#SPJ11

The product of two random variables that follows the normal distribution with mean 0 and variance 1 is expected 0.

To compute the product of two random variables that are normal distributed with a mean of 0 and a variance of 1, the following procedure can be employed:

Thus, we can write the probability density function of the normal distribution as:

f(x) = (1/√2π) * e^(-x^2/2)

E[X] = ∫x * f(x) dx, where the integral is taken over the entire range of X.

E[Y] = ∫y * f(y) dy, where the integral is taken over the entire range of Y.

E[XY] = E[X] * E[Y]

E[X] = ∫x * f(x) dx = ∫x * (1/√2π) * e^(-x^2/2) dx = 0

E[Y] = ∫y * f(y) dy = ∫y * (1/√2π) * e^(-y^2/2) dy = 0

E[XY] = E[X] * E[Y]

= 0 * 0 ⇒ 0

Therefore, the product of two random variables that follow a normal distribution with mean 0 and variance 1 has an expected value of 0.

To know more about the "normal distribution": https://brainly.com/question/4079902

#SPJ11