what the catholic religious order that founded georgetown university?
The Catholic religious order that founded Georgetown University is the Society of Jesus (Jesuits). The Society of Jesus was founded in 1540 by Saint Ignatius of Loyola and is a Roman Catholic religious order of priests and brothers. The Jesuits have a long history of educating people in Catholic and Jesuit tradition, and Georgetown University was founded by the Society of Jesus in 1789.
The Jesuits strive to provide an excellent education grounded in their beliefs and teachings. They focus on developing leaders with strong moral character, who are prepared to serve the Church and society. Georgetown University's mission is to educate students of all faiths to become men and women for others. This mission is consistent with the goals of the Society of Jesus, which emphasizes a commitment to serve the marginalized and promote social justice.
At Georgetown, the Jesuits teach their students to develop a faith that does justice, to care for the earth, to nurture a commitment to service, and to foster a spirit of generosity. They also provide students with the opportunity to engage with faculty members and other students in a variety of settings, including academic, religious, and service-based initiatives.
Overall, Georgetown University is a Jesuit-inspired institution that seeks to prepare its students to be men and women of character and service. Through the commitment to their mission and teachings, the Society of Jesus has helped shape Georgetown University into the successful and respected institution it is today.
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If you are making a left turn from a two way street into a one way street you must start the turn from the _____ abc hit may turn into any lane that is safely open
If you are turning left from a two-way street onto a one-way street, you should complete the turn into the left lane .
Once you have turned onto the one-way street, you may turn into any lane that is safely open and appropriate for your destination. It is important to check for other vehicles, pedestrians, and bicyclists before making the turn and to signal your intention to turn in advance.
If there is a center left turn lane, use it. turning left onto a two-way street from a one-way street. Starting in the far-left lane, make the turn. End the turn in the left lane closest to the middle of the street moving in the direction of your vehicle to lower the likelihood of a collision.
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according to heckscher and ohlin, each country has certain , such as land, labor, and capital.TrueFalse
True because According to Heckscher and Ohlin, each country has certain resources, such as land, labor, and capital, that are used in the production of goods and services.
These resources are known as a country’s endowments. This theory suggests that a country has a comparative advantage in producing goods and services that require a relatively larger amount of a particular resource.
For example, if a country has a large amount of land, it can have a comparative advantage in producing goods that require a lot of land (e.g. agricultural goods).
Similarly, if a country has a large amount of labor, it can have a comparative advantage in producing goods that require a lot of labor (e.g. manufactured goods).
The concept of endowments and comparative advantage helps explain why certain countries specialize in certain types of production.
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how long can bankruptcy information be reported by a consumer reporting agency
Bankruptcy information can remain on a consumer credit report for up to 10 years from the date of filing.
During this period, the information can be reported by the three major consumer credit reporting agencies: Experian, TransUnion, and Equifax. After 10 years, the bankruptcy information should be removed from a consumer's credit report. It is important to remember that filing for bankruptcy can have a significant impact on a person's credit score. Having a bankruptcy listed on your credit report can make it more difficult to obtain new credit, such as a loan or credit card. This can also make it more expensive to borrow money, as lenders may charge higher interest rates to compensate for the higher risk associated with borrowers with bankruptcy.
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Which of the following is NOT a group mentioned in the lesson that the bureaucracy is accountable to?a. Cabinetb. Judiciaryc. interest groups
Judiciary is NOT a group mentioned in the lesson that the bureaucracy is accountable to. (B)
The bureaucracy is accountable to the Cabinet, the President, Congress, the public, and interest groups. The judiciary is a branch of government, but the bureaucracy is not directly accountable to it; rather, it is accountable to the executive branch of government, which includes the Cabinet. (B)
The Cabinet is composed of the President and the heads of executive departments, who advise the President and collectively constitute the executive branch of the federal government.
Interest groups are organizations formed to represent citizens and to promote certain goals, and the bureaucracy is accountable to them because they can use their political power to influence public policy.
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valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort. valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice T/F
The statement "valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort, valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice" is true because it is considered an unfair labor practice under the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA).
The correct answer is true.
The NLRA is a federal law that protects employees' rights to organize and engage in concerted activity to improve their wages, benefits, and working conditions. This includes the right to form or join a union, bargain collectively with their employer, and engage in other concerted activities for mutual aid and protection.
Valley Mart's statement that employees would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort is considered an unfair labor practice under the NLRA because it is a form of interference, restraint, or coercion that can intimidate employees and chill the exercise of their protected rights.
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which of the following most likely would not be required to complete continuing education hours in this state?
Insurance brokers most likely would not be required to complete continuing education hours in this state.
The word "insurance broker" became a regulated term under the Insurance Brokers (Registration) Act 1977, which was intended to prohibit enterprises claiming to be brokers but really working as agents for one or more preferred insurance companies.
Following the repeal of the 1977 Act, the word has no legal definition. From 14 January 2005 until 31 March 2013, the sale of general insurance was regulated by the Financial Services Authority, and from 1 April 2013, it has been regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority. Anyone or any business that has been authorized by the Authority can now call themselves an insurance broker.
The question is incomplete, complete question "Which of the following would most likely NOT be required to complete continuing education hours in this state?
A. insurance brokers
B. resident producers
C. insurance consultants
D. nonresident producers"
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Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of a libel suit?a. Identificationb. Clear and present dangerc. Defamationd. Faulte. Injury
Defamation is NOT one of the elements of a libel suit. (C)
Libel is a type of defamation that consists of false statements that are published in a written form. A libel suit requires four elements: identification, clear and present danger, fault, and injury. Identification means that the individual responsible for the libelous statement must be identified.
Clear and present danger means that the statement was false, and it created harm or the potential to cause harm. Fault means that the person who made the statement either acted negligently or with intentional malice. Injury means that the libelous statement caused some form of harm or damage to the plaintiff.
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what the forensic lab plays within crime scene investigation?
If an applicant submits false or misleading statements or submits a license, certificate, or diploma that was illegally or fraudulently obtained in his or her application for licensure, which of the following may occur?
The Board may refuse to issue the license, certificate or registration, or if it was already issued, there may be a disciplinary action up to and including suspension.
If an applicant submits false or misleading statements or submits a license, certificate, or diploma that was illegally or fraudulently obtained in his or her application for licensure, the Board may refuse to issue the license, certificate or registration, or if it was already issued, there may be a disciplinary action up to and including suspension.
What is meant by the term misleading? A misleading statement is one that appears to be factual but is incorrect, intended to deceive or misguide. Misleading information is information that is presented in such a way as to make it seem factual or impartial when it is not. It can be through half-truths, distorted data, or outright falsehoods. An act is defined as fraudulent if it is carried out with the intention of deceiving another person or entity to gain a financial or personal benefit.
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which amendment establishes the direct election of u.s. senators by popular vote?
The election of United States senators was modified by the Seventeenth Amendment, as was the procedure for filling vacancies.
The direct election of United States senators in each state was created by the 17th Amendment (Amendment XVII) to the United States Constitution. The Constitution's Article I, Section 3, Clauses 1 and 2—under which senators were chosen by state legislatures—are repealed by the amendment. Also, it modifies how Senate vacancies are filled, enabling state legislatures to authorize interim appointments by their governors until a special election can be called.
The 62nd Congress introduced the amendment in 1912, and it was ratified by three-quarters (36) of the state legislatures on April 8, 1913, becoming a part of the Constitution.
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Over the first fifty years of American history, which of the following statements best describes the ability of African Americans to vote in elections?
A. African Americans could never vote in American elections prior to the Civil War.
B. Voting rights among African Americans increased during antebellum America.
C. Voting rights among African Americans decreased during antebellum America.
D. African American women had the right to vote.
Over the first fifty years of American history, A. African Americans could never vote in American elections prior to the Civil War, describes the ability of African Americans to vote in elections.
Black People were not allowed to vote in American elections prior to the Civil War. Several jurisdictions had laws in place that expressly forbade African Americans from casting ballots, while other states used measures like literacy exams, poll taxes, and property ownership restrictions to prevent African Americans from exercising their right to vote.
Likewise, the Three-Fifths Compromise of 1787 reduced the political influence of enslaved African Americans by counting them as just three-fifths of a person for the purpose of allocating representatives in Congress. Black American men weren't given the right to vote until the 15th Amendment to the US Constitution was ratified, yet this privilege was frequently suppressed by unfair methods like poll taxes, literacy tests, and violence. The 19th Amendment was not ratified until 1920, giving African American women the right to vote.
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What are the guiding principles for first responders' to take when arriving at a potential crime scene?
who does the commandant of the marine corps report to?
The Commandant of the Marine Corps reports directly to the Secretary of the Navy, who is a member of the United States President’s cabinet.
This direct reporting relationship between the Commandant and the Secretary of the Navy is mandated by law and is outlined in Title 10 of the United States Code. The Commandant’s duties include serving as the head of the Marine Corps and ensuring its readiness for any type of mission, such as providing amphibious forces, training personnel, and providing support for combat operations. The Commandant is also responsible for overseeing Marine Corps recruiting, logistics, and the administration of justice.
The Commandant of the Marine Corps is the senior ranking officer in the Marine Corps and the only officer in the Corps to serve as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. In this capacity, the Commandant acts as an adviser to the President and Secretary of Defense. The Commandant also serves as the principal advisor to the Secretary of the Navy on all matters about the Marine Corps.
The Commandant is appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate. The Commandant serves for a four-year term and is eligible for reappointment, though most Commandants serve no more than two consecutive terms. The Commandant is the leader and spokesman of the Marine Corps and serves as the primary representative of the Corps in relations with other branches of the United States Armed Forces, government agencies, and the public.
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true/false. When at the zero bound, one of the policy alternatives that we discussed would be for the Fed to lower or eliminate the reserve requirement ratio
One of the policy options we explored was for the Fed to reduce or remove the reserve requirement ratio when it reached the zero bound. True.
The notion that interest rates cannot be decreased farther than zero is known as the "Zero Lower Limit." Historically, central banks have utilised monetary policy to influence the economy's interest rate in order to achieve its budgetary goal (s).
In fact, the Fed used a variety of other tactics to overcome the ZLB restriction after the crisis, including large-scale asset purchases (quantitative easing) and providing market participants with advance information on the direction of interest rates. The ZLB issue was not entirely solved by these policy improvements.
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You are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for the following types of vehicles that are stationary on the roadway:
For all emergency(such as police, fire, and ambulance) and public safety vehicles with lights flashing on them that are stationary on the roadway, everyone are required to slow down and move over.
We need to move over and provide way for vehicles that are used for public and work for their safety as the people in these vehicles may be providing a service or responding to an emergency situation, and they need to be able to do their job without the risk of being hit by a passing vehicle. Whenever we see one of such vehicles on road you should slow down and move over (if possible) to give them more space and to reduce the risk of an accident. It is an important safety measure that helps protect those working on or near the road.
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According to the laws of most of the states in the USA, drivers are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for all emergency and public safety vehicles with lights flashing.
When you see an emergency vehicle, such as an ambulance, fire truck, or police car, on the side of the road with lights flashing, you must change lanes if it is safe to do so. You should slow down and drive with extra caution when passing by, even if you can't move over to another lane. When driving, keep an eye out for flashing lights in the distance, especially on freeways and busy roads. When you see the flashing lights, look for the type of vehicle and carefully merge into another lane, leaving plenty of space for the emergency vehicle to pass by. This will assist them in arriving at their destination quickly and safely.
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true/false. small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most.
The given statement "small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most." is false as have limited jurisdiction to hear civil cases between private litigants.
Small-claims courts only have limited authority to hear civil disputes involving private parties. Small claims courts may also perform other judicial duties and may go by different names in different jurisdictions. The maximum amount of money that a small-claims court can award in judgments is typically in the tens of thousands of dollars or pounds. The plaintiff typically forfeits any right to seek an amount greater than the court can grant by filing a lawsuit in small claims court. Reducing a claim to meet the requirements of this venue may or may not be permitted by the plaintiff.
Small-claims courts typically have jurisdiction over private disputes involving small sums of money. The routine collection of small debts forms a large portion of the cases brought to small-claims courts, as well as evictions and other disputes between landlords and tenants, unless the jurisdiction is already covered by a tenancy board.
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occurs when both parties agree that the contract should be terminated without performance. A rescission discharges the obligations of both parties under the contract.
Rescission occurs when both parties agree that the contract should be terminated without performance.
When the parties to a contract decide to end the agreement, rescission takes place. Rescission only causes the old contract to be canceled; no new contract is created in its place. By mutual consent, the parties terminate the contract. Waiver is the act of giving up a right. Despite the parties' partial or complete failure to fulfill all of their obligations, the contract is void. When parties enter into contracts because they have mutually agreed to do so, the parties' individual contracts are terminated.
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T/F. A consequentialist approach to judging sexual morality will ask whether one is using anyone or whether the sexual relation is an open one.
True. A consequentialist approach to judging sexual morality would focus on the consequences of the sexual acts rather than the acts themselves.
In this approach, the moral value of sexual activity is judged based on the outcomes or consequences it produces. For instance, a consequentialist approach would consider whether the sexual relationship is consensual and respectful, whether it is harming anyone, and whether it is leading to positive or negative outcomes for those involved. Therefore, consequentialism would ask whether one is using anyone in a sexual relationship or whether the relationship is open since these factors would impact the overall consequences of the sexual act.
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In some cases, the sale of a property triggers payment in full of a deferred tax or special assessment. If this is the case, the tax may be paid by
all of these.
If a property sale triggers payment of a deferred tax or special assessment, the responsibility for paying the tax usually falls on the seller.
This is because the tax or assessment is typically attached to the property and not the owner. As such, when the property changes hands, the new owner inherits any existing tax liability.
The payment of the deferred tax or special assessment may be made directly by the seller, or the payment may be deducted from the sale proceeds before the seller receives their payment. This deduction is typically made at closing, where the seller's proceeds are calculated and paid out.
It is important for both buyers and sellers to be aware of any outstanding tax or assessment liabilities attached to a property before entering into a transaction. Failing to account for these liabilities can result in unexpected costs and delays in closing the deal.
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t/f prisons are violent mainly because they house large numbers of people who disobey social norms.
The given statement "prisons are violent mainly because they house large numbers of people who disobey social norms." is true because of diversity of inmates with varied criminal backgrounds in penitentiaries.
Due to the diversity of inmates with different criminal histories in prisons, prison violence occurs frequently. Inmate on inmate, inmate on guard (and vice versa), and self-inflicted are the three distinct types of attacks.
These carveouts undermine the impact of otherwise well-designed policies because more than 40% of those incarcerated and detained are there for "violent" offenses. Physical violence is the most prevalent type of violence in the prison system. Sexual violence is another prevalent type of violence in this setting.
In addition to adding to their trauma and exposure to violence, it also reinforces their disadvantage and fuels more crime and social harm. Additionally, the prison does very little to address the root causes of crime in communities.
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QUESTION 2 "So, the Advocate Dali Mpofu is correct, we can afford free education for all South African children. But where I come from, I do not jubilate at free education, I want to revisit the curriculum; I want to know which publishing companies benefit from the education of our children, where they come from and what their philosophy of education is". Moss Mashamaite (2014). (a) Discuss the above extract with reference to Freire's views on education. (6)
According to the above extract Freire's views on education can be summed up as-
For Freire, education is never neutral. All education is political – either educating to support and maintain the status quo or helping to critique and change reality. Problem-posing education does not and cannot serve the interests of the oppressor.
Education mean today?Education is defined as a cycle of learning that helps a person acquire and understand more complex stuff. According to the training they have received, the knowledge that has been had about a person provides an example of thought and behavior.
The renowned definition of education?Education is an intentional process with certain goals in mind, such as information transmission or the development of abilities and moral character. The growth of comprehension, reason, compassion, and honesty are only a few examples of these objectives.
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Discuss in 100 words or more, the purpose of AFIS and why it is so important in crime scene investigation.
Answer:
Explanation:
Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS) is a biometric identification technology that is widely used in crime scene investigation. The purpose of AFIS is to identify the suspect or the victim based on their fingerprints. AFIS stores fingerprint data in a computerized database and compares them with the fingerprints collected from the crime scene. AFIS is important in crime scene investigation because fingerprints are often the most reliable evidence left behind by a perpetrator, and they can help to identify the suspect or victim, and link them to other crimes. AFIS can quickly match fingerprints with existing records, allowing law enforcement to quickly identify and apprehend suspects, and can help solve cold cases that were previously unsolvable. In addition, AFIS has helped to exonerate innocent people who were wrongly accused of a crime. Overall, AFIS is a valuable tool in crime scene investigation that has revolutionized the way law enforcement agencies solve crimes and bring perpetrators to justice.
there are two things you want to remember about bureaucrats. choose the two items that craig mentioned
Two things to remember about bureaucrats are a clear hierarchy and specialization.
A bureaucracy is a sizable administrative organization that manages a government's or society's daily operations. In America, there are three levels of government bureaucracy: federal, state, and local.
A distinct hierarchy, specialization, a division of labor, and a set of formal rules, or standard operating procedures, are the four main characteristics of bureaucracies. There is a distinct hierarchy among bureaucrats, and they specialize, so keep that in mind.
For a bureaucracy to succeed, it needs to be independent, impersonal, and impartial. Employee relationships must be professional, according to Weber. The structure of the impersonal bureaucratic environment encourages making decisions based only on facts and careful consideration.
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fill in the blank. generally speaking, prejudice involves negative___, whereas stereotyping involves negative about someone based on their group membership.
Generally speaking, prejudice involves negative discrimination, whereas stereotyping involves negative about someone based on their group membership.
An unjustified, often unfavourable attitude towards a group and its members is called prejudice. The three elements of prejudice are attitudes (often stereotypes), feelings, and propensities to take action (discrimination).
Prejudice is a pejorative attitude and sentiment against a person that is exclusively motivated by that person's social group membership (Allport, 1954; Brown, 2010). Those who belong to an unknown cultural group can face prejudice.
Prejudice is a belief about a person or group that is often unfavourable and is based on a stereotype. A person's participation (or presumed membership) in a certain group generally serves as the foundation for the idea. People are divided by prejudice based on stereotypes as well.
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which constitutional principle did the supreme court decision in marbury v. madison strengthen?
The Supreme Court's decision in the case of Marbury v. Madison (1803) strengthened the constitutional principle of judicial review.
In this landmark case of Marbury v. Madison (1803) , Chief Justice John Marshall and the Supreme Court held that the Court has the power to declare acts of Congress as unconstitutional. This decision established the principle of judicial review in this case , which is the power of the federal courts to determine the constitutionality of laws and executive actions.
By establishing the principle of judicial review, the Supreme Court upheld its authority as an equal branch of government and established an important control and check on the power of the other branches. This decision also helped to establish the role of the Supreme Court as the final arbiter of constitutional questions in the United States.
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which of the following committees of the house of representatives sets the conditions for debate and amendment of most legislation?
Rules committees of the house of representatives sets the conditions for debate and amendment of most legislation. The correct option is 3.
Before being debated on the floor in the House, most bills first go to the Rules committee. The committee decides on the rules that will control how the House will consider the bill. A "closed rule" prohibits the introduction of amendments and places strict time restrictions on debate.
The United States House of Representatives has a committee known as the Rules Committee, or simply the Rules Committee. In contrast to other committees, which frequently focus on a single area of policy, it is in charge of the procedures under which bills will be submitted to the House of Representatives. Due to its influence over the introduction and passage of legislation through the House, the committee is frequently regarded as one of the most powerful committees. As a result, it has earned the moniker "traffic cop of Congress." The correct option is 3.
The question is incomplete, complete question "Which of the following committees of the House of Representatives sets the conditions for debate and amendment of most legislation?
JudiciaryWays and MeansRulesAppropriationsGovernment Operations"Learn more about house of representatives at:
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Incident at Morales --- Assuming Mexico does not have the same environmental regulations as the United States, then ethical considerations regarding the environment stop at the international border with Mexico.True False
Answer: False, Explanation: Mexico, like the US, has environmental regulations that are designed to protect the environment from harmful impacts. The laws of Mexico are not identical to those of the United States, but they have similar objectives. Environmental regulations are rules and policies that seek to protect the environment from human activities.
This is accomplished through regulations that restrict how businesses and individuals may use natural resources, emit pollutants, and dispose of waste. Environmental regulations in the United States are established at the federal, state, and local levels.
Mexico has its own set of environmental laws and regulations that are designed to achieve similar goals. As a result, ethical considerations regarding the environment do not stop at the border between the United States and Mexico.
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a ____ is an order requiring that an official bring a specified prisoner into court and show the judge why the prisoner is being kept in jail.
An "order to show cause" is an order issued by a court or judge requiring an official (such as a jailer) to bring a specified prisoner into court and show the judge why the prisoner is being kept in jail.
This order can be used when a prisoner requests to be released on bail, when a prisoner seeks a writ of habeas corpus, or when a prisoner claims to be wrongly imprisoned. An order to show cause must provide the judge with sufficient evidence that there is a legal basis to continue to hold the prisoner in jail. If the official fails to show cause, the court may order the prisoner's release.
In order for an order to show cause to be issued, the court must have a legal basis for requiring the official to bring the prisoner in for a hearing. This can include evidence that the prisoner poses a danger to the public, that the prisoner may be a flight risk, or that the official has failed to follow proper procedure in the case. When the court reviews the order to show cause, it will determine if the evidence provided by the official is sufficient to continue the prisoner's detention. If the court finds that the evidence is not sufficient, the prisoner must be released.
The order to show cause is an important tool in ensuring that prisoners are not held unlawfully and that they are treated fairly. It can also be used to ensure that officials are properly carrying out their duties, and that they are adhering to the law when it comes to detaining prisoners. By issuing an order to show cause, the court can ensure that the official has the necessary evidence to detain the prisoner and that the prisoner has the right to a fair hearing.
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Your organization entered into an interoperability agreement (IA) with another organization a year ago. As a part of this agreement, a federated trust was established between your domain and the partner domain.The partnership has been in the ongoing operations phase for almost nine months now. As a security administrator, which tasks should you complete during this phase? (Select two.)answer choicesa. Negotiate the BPO agreementb. Conduct periodic vulnerability assessmentsc. Verify compliance with the IA documentsd. Draft an MOU document
The tasks that a security administrator should complete during the ongoing operations phase are as follows: Conduct periodic vulnerability assessments and Verify compliance with the IA documents. Let's discuss both tasks in detail below.
Periodic vulnerability assessments: Vulnerability assessments are conducted to identify and manage potential vulnerabilities within an IT infrastructure or system. It is a proactive approach that allows the organization to assess its security posture and improve it.
Periodic vulnerability assessments should be conducted by a security administrator to ensure that both organizations' systems and data are secure and there is no unauthorized access. The frequency of conducting these assessments depends on the nature and sensitivity of the data shared between the organizations.Verify compliance with the IA documents: The interoperability agreement (IA) is a document that outlines the terms and conditions of the partnership between the organizations. Compliance with the IA documents ensures that both parties are following the rules and regulations set forth in the agreement.
A security administrator should ensure that the partner organization is following the IA documents and all the security measures are in place to safeguard the data shared between them. In case of any non-compliance, the security administrator should take necessary steps to mitigate the risk and bring the partner organization back into compliance. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C, which are Conduct periodic vulnerability assessments and Verify compliance with the IA documents, respectively.
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