Three crates with various contents are pulled by a force Fpull=3615 N across a horizontal, frictionless roller‑conveyor system. The group of boxes accelerates at 1.516 m/s2 to the right. Between each adjacent pair of boxes is a force meter that measures the magnitude of the tension in the connecting rope. Between the box of mass m1 and the box of mass m2, the force meter reads F12=1387 N. Between the box of mass m2 and the box of mass m3, the force meter reads F23=2304 N. Assume that the ropes and force meters are massless.

Answer:

The distance is [tex]d = 193.6 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The time interval between the sounds is  k[tex]t_1 = k + t_2[/tex] =  0.50 s

    The  speed of sound in air is  [tex]v_s = 343 \ m/s[/tex]

    The  speed of sound in the concrete is [tex]v_c = 3000 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally the distance where the collision occurred is  mathematically represented as

          [tex]d = v * t[/tex]

Now from the question we see that d is the same for both sound waves

 So

        [tex]v_c t = v_s * t_1[/tex]

Now  

So [tex]t_1 = k + t[/tex]

      [tex]v_c t = v_s * (t+ k)[/tex]

=>     [tex]3000 t = 343* (t+ 0.50)[/tex]

=>    [tex]3000 t = 343* (t+ 0.50)[/tex]

=>    [tex]t = 0.0645 \ s[/tex]

So

     [tex]d = 3000 * 0.0645[/tex]

     [tex]d = 193.6 \ m[/tex]

(a) The car is undergoing an acceleration of

[tex]a=\dfrac{22.7\frac{\rm m}{\rm s}-0}{9.02\,\mathrm s}\approx2.52\dfrac{\rm m}{\mathrm s^2}[/tex]

so that in 9.02 s, it will have covered a distance of

[tex]x=\dfrac a2(9.02\,\mathrm s)^2\approx102\,\mathrm m[/tex]

The car has tires with diameter d = 58.5 cm = 0.585 m, and hence circumference π d ≈ 1.84 m. Divide the distance traveled by the tire circumference to determine how many revolutions it makes:

[tex]\dfrac{102\,\mathrm m}{1.84\,\mathrm m}\approx55.7\,\mathrm{rev}[/tex]

(b) The wheels have average angular velocity

[tex]\omega=\dfrac{\omega_f+\omega_i}2=\dfrac{\theta_f-\theta_i}{\Delta t}[/tex]

where [tex]\omega[/tex] is the average angular velocity, [tex]\omega_i[/tex] and [tex]\omega_f[/tex] are the initial and final angular velocities (rev/s), [tex]\theta_i[/tex] and [tex]\theta_f[/tex] are the initial and final angular displacements (rev), respectively, and [tex]\Delta t[/tex] is the duration of the time between initial and final measurements. The second equality holds because acceleration is constant.

The wheels start at rest, so

[tex]\dfrac{\omega_f}2=\dfrac{55.7\,\rm rev}{9.02\,\rm s}\implies\omega_f\approx12.4\dfrac{\rm rev}{\rm s}[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]B=2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex]

Explanation:

It is given that,

A planar electromagnetic wave is propagating in the +x direction.The electric field at a certain point is, E = 0.082 V/m

We need to find the magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant.

The relation between electric field and magnetic field is given by :

[tex]c=\dfrac{E}{B}[/tex]

c is speed of light

B is magnetic field

[tex]B=\dfrac{E}{c}\\\\B=\dfrac{0.082}{3\times 10^8}\\\\B=2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex]

So, the magnetic vector at point P at that instant is [tex]2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex].

The magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant is [tex]2.73 \times 10^{-10}T[/tex]

The formula relating electric field and the magnetic field is given as;

[tex]c=\frac{E}{B}[/tex]

From the formula shown:

[tex]B=\frac{E}{c}\\B=\frac{0.082}{3.0\times 10^8}\\B=2.73 \times 10 ^{-10}T[/tex]

Hence the magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant is [tex]2.73 \times 10^{-10}T[/tex]

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Answer:

[tex]\theta_1 = 0.400^o[/tex]

[tex]\theta_2 =0.378^o[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  number of slits per cm is  k =  [tex]161\ slits\ per\ cm = 161 \ slits\ per\ 0.01 m[/tex]

    The order of the maxima is  n =  1

    The wavelength are  [tex]\lambda_1 = 434 nm = 434 *10^{-9} \ m \ \ \ , \lambda_2 = 410nm = 410 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

The  spacing between the slit is mathematically represented as

           [tex]d = \frac{ 0.01}{k}[/tex]

=>       [tex]d = \frac{ 0.01}{161}[/tex]

=>         [tex]d = 6.211 *10^{-5} \ m[/tex]

Generally the condition for constructive interference is  

        [tex]n\lambda = d \ sin \theta[/tex]

At  [tex]\lambda_1[/tex]

      [tex]\theta _1 = sin^{-1} [ \frac{1 * 434 *10^{-9}}{6.211 *10^{-5}} ][/tex]

      [tex]\theta_1 = 0.400^o[/tex]

At  [tex]\lambda_2[/tex]

       [tex]\theta _2 = sin^{-1} [ \frac{1 * 410 *10^{-9}}{6.211 *10^{-5}} ][/tex]

       [tex]\theta_2 =0.378^o[/tex]

Answer:

Will be equal to alpha x r; less than UsN

Answer:

Explanation:

For image formation in objective lens

object distance u = 14 +1 = 15 mm

focal length f = 14 mm .

image distance v = ?

lens formula

[tex]\frac{1}{v} -\frac{1}{u} =\frac{1}{f}[/tex]

Putting the values

[tex]\frac{1}{v} +\frac{1}{15} =\frac{1}{14}[/tex]

v = 210 mm .

B )

magnification = v / u

= 210 / 15

= 14

size of image = 14 x 1.1 mm

= 15.4 mm

= 15 mm approx

C )

For final image to be at infinity , image produced by objective lens must fall at the focal point of eye piece . so objective lens's distance from the image formed by objective must be equal to focal length of eye piece that is 21 mm .

21 mm is the answer .

D )

overall magnification =

[tex]\frac{210}{15} \times \frac{D}{f_e}[/tex]

D = 25 cm , f_e = focal length of eye piece

= 14 x 250 / 21

= 166.67

= 170 ( in two significant figures )

(a) The distance of the image v=220mm

(b) SIze of the image 15 mm

(c) Distance of lens be from the image produced by the objective lens 21 mm

(d) overall magnification of the microscope 170

The objective lens of a microscope is the one at the bottom near the sample. At its simplest, it is a very high-powered magnifying glass, with very short focal length. This is brought very close to the specimen being examined so that the light from the specimen comes to a focus inside the microscope tube

For image formation in objective lens

object distance u = 14 +1 = 15 mm

focal length f = 14 mm .

image distance v = ?

By using lens formula

[tex]\dfrac{1}{v}+\dfrac{1}{u}=\dfrac{1}{f}[/tex]

Putting the values

[tex]\dfrac{1}{v}+\dfrac{1}{15}=\dfrac{1}{14}[/tex]

v = 210 mm .

B ) Magnification is the ratio of the size of the image to the size of the an object.

[tex]\rm magnification = \dfrac{v} { u}[/tex]

[tex]M= \dfrac{210} { 15}[/tex]

M= 14

size of image = 14 x 1.1 mm

= 15.4 mm

= 15 mm approx

C )

For final image to be at infinity , image produced by objective lens must fall at the focal point of eye piece . so objective lens's distance from the image formed by objective must be equal to focal length of eye piece that is 21 mm .

21 mm is the answer .

D )

overall magnification =

[tex]\dfrac{210}{15}\times \dfrac{D}{f_e}[/tex]

D = 25 cm , f_e = focal length of eye piece

[tex]= 14 \times \dfrac{ 250} { 21}[/tex]

= 166.67

= 170 ( in two significant figures )

Hence all the answers are:

(a) The distance of the image v=220mm

(b) SIze of the image 15 mm

(c) Distance of lens be from the image produced by the objective lens 21 mm

(d) overall magnification of the microscope 170

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Answer:static friction and kinetic friction in a system always act in the same direction as each other and n the opposite direction of the applie force . Is the correct answer

Explanation:

Static friction and kinetic friction in a system always act in the same direction as each other and in the opposite direction of the applied force. The correct option is B.

Friction is the force that prevents one hard material from scooting or rolling over the other.

Frictional forces, such as the locomotion required to walk without dropping, are advantageous, but they also create a significant amount of resistance to motion.

We can control cars because of friction between the tires and the road: more precisely, because there are three types of friction: rolling friction, starting friction, and sliding friction.

Friction reduces the speed of moving objects and can even stop them from moving. The friction between the objects generates heat. As a result, energy is wasted in the machines. Friction will cause wear and tear on the machine parts.

In a system, static and kinetic friction always act in the same direction and in the opposite direction of the applied force.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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Answer:

The vision becomes blurred due to the refractive defects of the eye. There are mainly three common refractive defects of vision. These are (i) myopia or near-sightedness, (ii) Hypermetropia or far – sightedness, and (iii) Presbyopia. These defects can be corrected by the use of suitable spherical lenses.

Answer:

82.2 mL

Explanation:

The process of adding water to a solution to make it more dilute is known as dilution. The formula for dilution is;

C1V1=C2V2

Where;

C1= concentration of stock solution

V1= volume of stock solution

C2= concentration of dilute solution

V2= volume of dilute solution

V2= C1V1/C2

V2= 1.48 × 55.6/ 1.0

V2= 82.2 mL

Answer:

N2 = ¼N1

Explanation:

First of all, let's define the terms;

N1 = number of electric field lines going through the sphere of radius R

N2 = number of electric field lines going through the sphere of radius 2R

Q = the charge enclosed at the centre of concentric spheres

ε_o = a constant known as "permittivity of the free space"

E1 = Electric field in the sphere of radius R.

E2 = Electric field in the sphere of radius 2R.

A1 = Area of sphere of radius R.

A2 = Area of sphere of radius 2R

Now, from Gauss's law, the electric flux through the sphere of radius R is given by;

Φ = Q/ε_o

We also know that;

Φ = EA

Thus;

E1 × A1 = Q/ε_o

E1 = Q/(ε_o × A1)

Where A1 = 4πR²

E1 = Q/(ε_o × 4πR²)

Similarly, for the sphere of radius 2R,we have;

E2 = Q/(ε_o × 4π(2R)²)

Factorizing out to get;

E2 = ¼Q/(ε_o × 4πR²)

Comparing E2 with E1, we arrive at;

E2 = ¼E1

Now, due to the number of lines is proportional to the electric field in the each spheres, we can now write;

N2 = ¼N1

Answer:

Time, [tex]t=1.07\times 10^{-23}\ s[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

When a high-energy proton or pion traveling near the speed of light collides with a nucleus, it may travel [tex]3.2\times 10^{-15}\ m[/tex] before interacting.

Let t is the time interval required for the strong interaction to occur. It will move with the speed of light. So,

[tex]t=\dfrac{d}{c}\\\\t=\dfrac{3.2\times 10^{-15}}{3\times 10^8}\\\\t=1.07\times 10^{-23}\ s[/tex]

So, the time interval is [tex]1.07\times 10^{-23}\ s[/tex]

Answer:

p = -q  

he distance is equal to the current distance, so the distance does not change

Explanation:

For this exercise we can solve it using the equation of the constructor

            1 / f = 1 / p + 1 / q

where f is the focal length, p the distance to the object and q the distance to the image

For a flat surface the radius is at infinity, therefore 1 / f = 0, which implies

          1 / p = - 1 / q

           p = -q

Therefore the distance is equal to the current distance, so the distance does not change

Answer:

The  period is [tex]T = 0.00255 \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The  frequency is  [tex]f = 392 \ Hz[/tex]

Generally the period is mathematically represented as  

           [tex]T = \frac{1}{f}[/tex]

=>       [tex]T = \frac{1}{ 392}[/tex]

=>       [tex]T = 0.00255 \ s[/tex]

Answer:

counterclockwise

Explanation:

given data

area = 25 cm²

solution

We know that a changing magnetic field induces the current and induced emf is express as

[tex]\epsilon = -N \frac{d \phi }{dt}[/tex]     ..................................1

and we will get here direction of the induced current in the loop that is express by the Lens law that state that the direction of induces current is such that the magnetic flux due to the induced current opposes the change in magnetic flux due to the change in magnetic field

so when magnetic field decrease and point coming out of the paper.

so induced current in the loop will be counterclockwise

Answer:

Hey there!

The correct answer would be option A. If one body is positively charged and another body is negatively charged, free electrons tend to move from the negatively charged body to the positively charged body

Let me know if this helps :)

Answer:

The period of the motion will still be equal to T.

Explanation:

for a system with mass = M

attached to a massless spring.

If the system is set in motion with an amplitude (distance from equilibrium position) A

and has period T

The equation for the period T is given as

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{M}{k} }[/tex]

where k is the spring constant

If the amplitude is doubled, the distance from equilibrium position to the displacement is doubled.

Increasing the amplitude also increases the restoring force. An increase in the restoring force means the mass is now accelerated to cover more distance in the same period, so the restoring force cancels the effect of the increase in amplitude. Hence, increasing the amplitude has no effect on the period of the mass and spring system.

.Answer;

Using Fmax=qVB

F=(1.6*10^-19 C)(5.860*10^6 m/s)(1.38 T)

ANS=1.29*10^-12 N

2. Using Amax=Fmax/ m

Amax =(1.29*10^-12 N) / (1.67*10^-27 kg)

ANS=1.93*10^15 m/s^2*

3. No, the acceleration wouldn't be the same. Since The magnitude of the electron is equal to that of the proton, but the direction would be in the opposite direction and also Since an electron has a smaller mass than a proton

Answer:

The final temperature is 61.65 °C

Explanation:

mass of copper pot [tex]m_{c}[/tex] = 2 kg

temperature of copper pot [tex]T_{c}[/tex] = 20 °C  (the pot will be in thermal equilibrium with the room)

specific heat capacity of copper [tex]C_{c}[/tex]= 385 J/kg-°C

The heat content of the copper pot = [tex]m_{c}[/tex][tex]C_{c}[/tex][tex]T_{c}[/tex] = 2 x 385 x 20 = 15400 J

mass of boiling water [tex]m_{w}[/tex] = 200 g = 0.2 kg

temperature of boiling water [tex]T_{w}[/tex] = 100 °C

specific heat capacity of water [tex]C_{w}[/tex] = 4182 J/kg-°C

The heat content of the water = [tex]m_{w}[/tex][tex]C_{w}[/tex][tex]T_{w}[/tex] = 0.2 x 4182 x 100 = 83640 J

The total heat content of the water and copper mix [tex]H_{T}[/tex] = 15400 + 83640 = 99040 J

This same heat is evenly distributed between the water and copper mass to achieve thermal equilibrium, therefore we use the equation

[tex]H_{T}[/tex] =   [tex]m_{c}[/tex][tex]C_{c}[/tex][tex]T_{f}[/tex] + [tex]m_{w}[/tex][tex]C_{w}[/tex]

where [tex]T_{f}[/tex] is the final temperature of the water and the copper

substituting values, we have

99040 = (2 x 385 x [tex]T_{f}[/tex]) + (0.2 x 4182 x

99040 = 770[tex]T_{f}[/tex] + 836.4

99040 = 1606.4[tex]T_{f}[/tex]

[tex]T_{f}[/tex] = 99040/1606.4 = 61.65 °C

Answer:

The amplitude [tex]A(5) = 1 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The  spring constant is  [tex]k = 100 \ N/m[/tex]

      The  damping constant is  [tex]b = 8.0 *10^{-3} \ kg \cdot m/s[/tex]

       The mass is  [tex]m = 0.050 \ kg[/tex]

       The  maximum displacement is [tex]A_o = 1.5 \ m \ at t = 0[/tex]

       The  time  considered is  t =  5.0 s

Generally the displacement(Amplitude) of damped harmonic motion is mathematically represented as

           [tex]A(t) = A_o * e ^{ - \frac{b * t}{2 * m} }[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]A(5) = 1.5 * e ^{ - \frac{ 8.0 *10^{-3} * 5}{2 * 0.050} }[/tex]

         [tex]A(5) = 1 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

Post indicator valve

Explanation:

Post Indicator Valves are commonly used to control the water flow of sprinkler systems used in public and private buildings, warehouses, and factories for fire suppression. PIVs control water flow from the public system into the building's fire suppression system.

Answer:

The direction of the force is towards the East.

Explanation:

Using the right hand rule, the force on the current carrying conductor is east.

In the right hand rule, if the hand is held with the fingers pointed parallel to the palm representing the magnetic field, and the thumb held at right angle to the rest of the fingers representing the direction of the current, then the palm will push in the direction of the force.

In this case, the thumb is pointing downwards, with the fingers pointing north away from the body in the direction of the earth's magnetic field, the palm will push east.

Answer:

24.34 m/s

Explanation:

recall that one of the equations of motions takes the form:

v = u + at

where,

v = final velocity

u = initial velocity (given as 22.2 m/s)

a = acceleration (given as 2.68m/s²)

t = time elapsed during acceleration (given as 0.80s)

since we are told that the the acceleration is in the direction of the intial velocity, we can simply substitute the known values into the equation above:

v = u + at

v = 22.2 + (2.68) (0.8)

v = 24.34 m/s

Answer:

The magnitude of the total linear acceleration is 0.27 m/s²

b. 0.27 m/s²

Explanation:

The total linear acceleration is the vector sum of the tangential acceleration and radial acceleration.

The radial acceleration is given by;

[tex]a_t = ar[/tex]

where;

a is the angular acceleration and

r is the radius of the circular path

[tex]a_t = ar\\\\a_t = 1.6 *0.13\\\\a_t = 0.208 \ m/s^2[/tex]

Determine time of the rotation;

[tex]\theta = \frac{1}{2} at^2\\\\0.4 = \frac{1}{2} (1.6)t^2\\\\t^2 = 0.5\\\\t = \sqrt{0.5} \\\\t = 0.707 \ s\\\\[/tex]

Determine angular velocity

ω = at

ω = 1.6 x 0.707

ω = 1.131 rad/s

Now, determine the radial acceleration

[tex]a_r = \omega ^2r\\\\a_r = 1.131^2 (0.13)\\\\a_r = 0.166 \ m/s^2[/tex]

The magnitude of total linear acceleration is given by;

[tex]a = \sqrt{a_t^2 + a_r^2} \\\\a = \sqrt{0.208^2 + 0.166^2} \\\\a = 0.266 \ m/s^2\\\\a = 0.27 \ m/s^2[/tex]

Therefore, the magnitude of the total linear acceleration is 0.27 m/s²

b. 0.27 m/s²

Answer:

Explanation:

Friction is defined as a force which acts at the surface of separation between two objects in contact and tends to oppose motion of one over the other.

While kinetic friction is the force that must be overcome so that a body can move with uniform speed over another.

Hence let consider one of the laws of friction which states that: '' Frictional force is independent of the area of the surfaces in contact.''

The value did not vary with area. This is because when calculating the kinetic fiction, the total contact area is not relevant and only the total weight of the system as well of as the block is put into consideration.

Answer:

Velocity of wave (V) = 5.2 × 10² m/s

Explanation:

Given:

Per unit length mass (U) = 4.80 × 10⁻³ kg/m

Tension (T)= 1,300 N

Find:

Velocity of wave (V)

Computation:

Velocity of wave (V) = √T / U

Velocity of wave (V) = √1300 / 4.80 × 10⁻³

Velocity of wave (V) = √ 270.84 × 10³

Velocity of wave (V) = 5.2 × 10² m/s

Answer:

The  value is  [tex]N = 3.708*10^{7} \ \ atoms[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The pressure is  [tex]P = 1.53 *10^{-7} \ N/m^2[/tex]

    The  temperature is  [tex]T = 26 + 273 = 299 \ K[/tex]

     The volume is  1 cubic cm = [tex]1 * 10^{-6} m^3[/tex]

Generally according to the ideal gas law we have that

      [tex]PV = NkT[/tex]

here  k is the Boltzmann constant with a value  [tex]k = 1.38 *10^{-23} \ J/K[/tex]

  =>  [tex]N = \frac{PV}{ k T}[/tex]

=>     [tex]N = \frac{ 1.53 *10^{-7} * (1* 10^{-6})}{ 1.38*10^{-23} * 299}[/tex]

=>    [tex]N = 3.708*10^{7} \ \ atoms[/tex]

Answer:

a. Moon around Earth.

Explanation:

Charon orbit takes around 6.4 earth days to complete its orbit. Charon does not rises or sets, it hovers over same spot around the Pluto. The same side of Charon faces the Pluto, this is called Tidal Locking.

The moon orbit takes around 27 days to complete its orbit. The moon has different sides that are faced with sun which creates light or dark face of moon on the earth. Moon has 384,400 km distance from the earth.

The object that should exhibit the longest orbital period is option a. Moon around Earth.

Charon's orbit takes around 6.4 earth days to finish its orbit. Charon does not rise or sets, it hovers over similar spot around Pluto. The same side of Charon faces Pluto, this we called Tidal Locking. Here the moon orbit should take approx 27 days to finish its orbit. The moon has various sides that are faced with the sun which developed the light or dark face of the moon on the earth. Also, Moon has 384,400 km distance from the earth.

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Answer:

In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the ratio of the magnitudes of electric and magnetic field vectors E and B is equal:  speed of light(c)

Explanation:

Generally the ratio of the E(electric field ) and  the B(magnetic field ) is  equal to the speed of the electromagnetic wave i.e the speed of  light (c) the value is

    [tex]c = 3.0 *10^{8} \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

Pressure, P = 1250 Pa

Explanation:

Given that,

Weight of a brick, F = 50 N

Dimension of the brick is 30.0 cm × 10.0 cm × 4.00 cm

We need to find the maximum pressure it can exert on a horizontal surface due to its weight. Pressure is equal to the force acting per unit area. Pressure exerted is inversely proportional to the area of cross section. So, we need to minimize area. Taking to smaller dimensions.

A = 40 cm × 10 cm = 400 cm² = 0.04 m²

So,

Pressure,

[tex]P=\dfrac{50\ N}{0.04\ m^2}\\\\P=1250\ Pa[/tex]

So, the maximum pressure of 1250 Pa it can exert on a horizontal surface.

The maximum pressure it can exert on a horizontal surface due to its weight will be 1250 Pascal.

The force applied perpendicular to the surface of an item per unit area across which that force is spread is known as pressure. It is denoted by P.

The given data in the problem is;

W is the weight of a brick = 50 N

The dimension of the brick = 30.0 cm × 10.0 cm × 4.00 cm

A is the area,

The area is found as;

A=40 cm × 10 cm = 400 cm² = 0.04 m²

The pressure is the ratio of the force and area

[tex]\rm P = \frac{F}{A} \\\\ \rm P = \frac{50}{0.04} \\\\ \rm P =1250 \ Pascal[/tex]

Hence the maximum pressure it can exert on a horizontal surface due to its weight will be 1250 Pascal.

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