Answer:
Operating profit of segment B = $180,000
Explanation:
The allowable cost to any of the segment would be equal to the proportion that the segment income bears to the overall total income multiplied by the allocable cost.
Mathematically, we can use the realationship below:
Allocable cost to Segment B = Sales of segment B/Total sales × Alllocable cost
Allowable cost = 180,000
Total sales = 250,000+ 120,000 + 90,000 = 460,000
Allocable cost to B = (120,000/460,000) × 180,000 = 46,956.52
Allocable cost to segment B =$46,956.52
However,the question required us to determine operation profit.
Operating profit is the excess of sales revenue over operating expenses
Operating profit of segment B-= 200,000 - 90,000 = 180,000
Operating profit of segment B = $180,000
When estimating the incremental after-tax free cash flows for a project, we include which one of the following costs?A. Investment costsB. Opportunity costsC. Sunk costsD. Costs that impact another product that the firm does not produce.
Answer: Opportunity cost
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is the cost of what one forgoes when one makes another decision or another choice. When estimating the incremental after-tax free cash flows for a project, the opportunity cost is included.
A sunk cost is a type of cost that an economic agent such as the individual, the firm or the government has already spent and therefore cannot be recovered again. This isn't included.
ZZZ-Best, Inc. recently issued $65 par value preferred stock that pays an annual dividend of $17. If the stock is currently selling for $76, what is the expected return of this preferred stock?
Answer:
r = 0.22368 or 22.368% rounded off to 22.37%
Explanation:
The expected or required rate of return on a preferred stock is the return provided by the stock in terms of dividend as a proportion of the current market price. The expected return on a preferred stock can be calculated as follows,
r = Dividend / current market price
r = 17 / 76
r = 0.22368 or 22.368% rounded off to 22.37%
The beta of company Myers’s stock is 2. The annual risk-free rate is 2% and the annual market premium is 8%. What is the expected return for Myers’ stock? A. 14% B. 25% C. 20% D. 18
Answer:
18%
Explanation:
Myers's stock has a beta of 2
The annual risk free rate is 2%
The annual market premium is 8%
Therefore, the expected return for Myers's stock can be calculated as follows
= 2% + (2×8%)
= 2% + 16%
= 18%
Hence the expected return for Myers's stock is 18%
What is another name for progress monitoring? a. Curriculum-based measurement c. Curriculum-based learning b. Assessment d. None of these
Answer:
Curriculum based measurement
Answer:
a. Curriculum-based measurement
It's correct
Sunny Day Manufacturing Company is considering investing in a one-year project that requires an initial investment of $450,000. To do so, it will have to issue new common stock and will incur a flotation cost of 2.00%. At the end of the year, the project is expected to produce a cash inflow of $550,000. The rate of return that Sunny Day expects to earn on its project (net of its flotation costs) is:____________
White Lion Homebuilders has a current stock price of $22.35 per share, and is expected to pay a per-share dividend of $2.03 at the end of next year. The company's earnings' and dividends' growth rate are expected to grow at the
constant rate of 8.70% into the foreseeable future. If White Lion expects to incur flotation costs of 5.00% of the value of its newly-raised equity funds, then the flotation-adjusted (net) cost of its new common stock (rounded to two decimal places) should be:_________
Sunny Day Manufacturing Company Co.'s addition to earnings for this year is expected to be $420,000. Its target capital structure consists of 50% debt, 5% preferred, and 45% equity. Determine Sunny Day Manufacturing Company's retained earnings breakpoint: ___________
a. $840,000
b. $980,000
c. $933,333
d. $886,666
Answer:
A lot to read and check but I will get back to you soon
An investment offers a total return of 12.0 percent over the coming year. Janice Yellen thinks the total real return on this investment will be only 6.0 percent. What does Janice believe the inflation rate will be over the next year?
Answer:
inflation rate= 0.06= 6%
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Interest rate= 12%
Real rate of return= 6%
The inflation rate is counterproductive to the interest rate. The inflation rate reduces the purchasing price, therefore it decreases the interest rate effect on nominal money.
Real interest rate= interest rate - inflation rate
0.06 = 0.12 - inflation rate
inflation rate= 0.12 - 0.06
inflation rate= 0.06= 6%
When the actual cost of direct materials used exceeds the standard cost, the company must have experienced an unfavorable direct materials price variance.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The cost was bigger than they had budgeted for, so it was an unfavorable variance.
Do you believe the cash flows from investing activities should include not only the return of investment, but also the return on investment, that is the interest and dividend revenue?
Answer:
Yes. Cash flows from investing activities should also include return on investment.
Explanation:
Dividend and Interest revenue arise as a result of the Investments that were made by the company and as such constitutes cash flow from investing activities of a Company.
g An increase in taxes when the economy is above full employment ______ aggregate demand and real GDP, and the price level ______.
Answer:
C. decreases; falls
Explanation:
As we know that
The rise in taxes results in low disposable income for individuals that lowered the spending of the consumer also the consumer spending is an element of the aggregate demand so ultimately it declines that result the curve to shift leftward or downward
Due to this, the real GDP also falls, and the price level too
Hence, the correct option is c.
A stock currently sells for $34 a share but is expected to increase in value over the next six months to at least $36 a share. Assume there are 6-month options available on this stock with an exercise price of $35. Which of these options should have the most value today?a. American and European calls equallyb. European callc. European putd. American pute. American call
Answer: American call
Explanation:
The price of the underlying stock is going to increase to at least $36 which is more than the exercise price on the option of $35. The option that would have more value therefore is a Call option because call options make profit when the exercise price is less than the market price.
The more valuable call option between the European and American call options is the American call option. This is because with an American call option, the holder is free to call in the option at any point in time up to the exercise date while a European option has to wait till the exercise date.
The American Call option is therefore the option with the most value today.
On July 1, Shady Creek Resort borrowed $320,000 cash by signing a 10-year, 11.5% installment note requiring equal payments each June 30 of $55,480. What amount of interest expense will be included in the first annual payment
Answer:
$36,800
Explanation:
The total amount of interest expense included in the first annual principal
= Principal's balance × yearly interest rate
= $320,000 × 11.5%
= $36,800
The principal's balance after the first payment is
= $320,000 - $36,800
= $283,200
The interest expense included in the second payment is
$283,200 × 11.5%
= $32,568
Bronco Corporation discovered these errors in August of Year 3:
Year Depreciation Overstated Prepaid Expense Omitted
1 $2500 $3000
2 4000 2000
Assume all current items are two months in duration. Net Income for Year 2 was $18,000. Assume all errors are discovered in August of Year #3. The Year #2 books are closed. The net effect on Year #3 Beginning Retained Earnings caused by the August Year #3 correcting journal entries was:
a. $5,500
b. $6,500
c. $6,000
d. $8,500
e. $4,500
Answer:
e. $4,500
Explanation:
Year Depreciation overstated Prepaid expense omitted
1 $2,500 $3,000
2 $4,000 $2,000
Year 2's net income = net income (year 2) + overstated depreciation (year 2) + omitted prepaid expenses (year 1) - omitted prepaid expenses (year 2) = $18,000 + $4,000 + $3,000 - $2,000 = $23,000
This means that year 2's net income was understated by $5,000.
But year 1's net income was overstated by = $2,500 - $3,000 = -$500.
The adjustment on the retained earnings account should be $5,000 - $500 = $4,500
If annual demand is 50,000 units, the ordering cost is $25 per order, and the holding cost is $5 per unit per year, which of the following is the optimal order quantity in order to minimize the total annual inventory cost?
A. 707
B. 909
C. 634
D. 500
E. 141
Answer:
22
3 25
6 15
a. Determine which variable is the dependent variable.
b. Compute the least squares estimated line.
c. Compute the coefficient of determination. How would you interpret this value22
3 25
6 15
a. Determine which variable is the dependent variable.
b. Compute the least squares estimated line.
c. Compute the coefficient of determination. How would you interpret this value
Suppose that Dunkin Donuts reduces the price of its regular coffee from $2 to $1 per cup, and as a result, the quantity sold per day increased from 10 to 40. Over this price range, the price elasticity of demand for Dunkin Donuts’ regular coffee is:
Answer:
PED = -6
Explanation:
The PED or price elasticity of demand for a product measures the responsiveness of a product's demand to the changes in the price of the product. The PED is calculated as follows,
PED = % change in Quantity demanded / % change in price
PED = [(40 - 10) / 10] / [(1 - 2) / 2]
PED = -6
A PED of -6 represents that quantity demanded is highly price elastic and a negative sign means that it is a normal good.
Data pertaining to a company's joint production for the current period follows
L M
Quantities produced 310 lbs 260 lbs
Market value at split-off point . $10.2Mb $20.4/lb
Compute the cost to be allocated to Product L for this period's $792 of joint costs if the value basis is used. (Do not round intermediate calculations.)
a. $295.81.
b. $49619.
c. $39600.
d. $2,926.00.
e. $962.19.
Answer:
a. $295.81
Explanation:
Total market value = (310 * 10.2) + (260 * 20.4)
Total market value = 3,162 + 5,304
Total market value = 8466
Joint cost allocated to L on basis of value
= [ (310 * 10.2) / 8,466] * 792
= (3,162 / 8,466) * 792
= $295.81
Nordstrom, Inc. operates department stores in numerous states. Suppose selected financial statement data (in millions) for 2020 are presented below.
End of Year Beginning of Year
Cash and cash equivalents $1,424 $140
Accounts receivable (net) 4,000 3,800
Inventory 1,800 1,800
Other current assets 636 591
Total current assets $7,860 $6,331
Total current liabilities $3,930 $3,122
For the year, net credit sales were $8,258 million, cost of goods sold was $5,328 million, and net cash provided by operating activities was $1,251 million.
Instructions:
Compute the current ratio, current cash debt coverage, accounts receivable turnover, average collection period, inventory turnover, and days in inventory at the end of the current year.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:-
1. Current ratio is
= Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities
= $7,860 ÷ $3,930
= 2
2. Current cash debt coverage is
= Net Cash Provided by Operating Activities ÷ Average Current Liabilities
Average Current Liabilities = ($3,930 + $3,122) ÷ 2
= $3,526
Current Cash Debt Coverage Ratio = $1,251 ÷ $3,526
= 25.48%
3. Accounts receivable turnover is
= Net Credit Sales ÷ Average Accounts Receivables
= $8,258 ÷ (($4,000 + $3,800) ÷ 2)
= $8,258 ÷ $3,900
= 2.12 times
4. Average collection period is
= 365 ÷ Account Receivable Turnover
= 365 ÷ 2.12
= 172.17
5. Inventory Turnover is
= Cost of Goods Sold ÷ Average Inventory
= $5,328 ÷ ((1,800 + 1,800) ÷ 2
= $5,328 ÷ 1,800
= 2.96
6. Days in Inventory is
= 365 ÷ Inventory Turnover Ratio
= 365 ÷ 2.96
= 123.31 days
he carrying value of Blossom’s net identifiable assets, including the goodwill, at year-end is $855,000. Prepare Cullumber’s journal entry, if necessary, to record impairment of goodwill.
Answer:
Goodwill Impairment (Debit)
Goodwill (Credit)
Explanation:
In case goodwill is impaired, then the entry to record this impairment will be Goodwill Impairment Debit and Goodwill Credit.
By crediting the Goodwill, the account will be reduced. This shows that the business is currently worth less than is accounted for. The Goodwill account is reduced to identify this difference.
The Impairment loss is an expense and must be reflected in the income statement. Therefore, while we reduce Goodwill amount from balance sheet. We record the expense on the income statement, which would mean that the current year profit amount will be reduced.
Macklin Company forecasts that total overhead for the current year will be $13,500,000 with 500,000 total machine hours. Year to date, the actual overhead is $14,000,000 and the actual machine hours are 530,000 hours. If Macklin Company uses a predetermined overhead rate based on machine hours for applying overhead, as of this point in time (year to date), the overhead is
Answer:
Instructions are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Macklin Company forecasts that total overhead for the current year will be $13,500,000 with 500,000 total machine hours.
Year to date, the actual overhead is $14,000,000 and the actual machine hours are 530,000 hours.
First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 13,500,000/500,000
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $27 per machine-hour
Now, we can allocate overhead:
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 27*530,000= 14,310,000
Finally, the under/over allocated overhead:
Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead
Under/over applied overhead= 14,000,000 - 14,310,000
Under/over applied overhead= 310,000 overallocated
Beginning in 6 years, (beginning of years 6, 7,8 and 9) Sally Mander will receive four annual benefit checks of $12,000 each. If Sally assumes an interest rate of 7%, what is the present value of these checks?
Answer:
$28,980
Explanation:
The present value can be calculated by multiplying annual cashflows with the discount factor. The table to calculate the Present Value has been made below.
DATA
Annual benefit = $12,000
Discount rate = 7%
Present value =?
Calculation
Year Cash inflows Discount factor Present Value
6 $12,000 0.666 $7,992
7 $12,000 0.623 $7,476
8 $12,000 0.582 $6,984
9 $12,000 0.544 $6,528
Total $28,980
Paige Company estimates that unit sales will be 10,800 in quarter 1, 12,700 in quarter 2, 14,800 in quarter 3, and 18,500 in quarter 4. Using a sales price of $85 per unit. Prepare the sales budget by quarters for the year ending December 31, 2017.
Answer:
Results are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Paige Company estimates that unit sales will be 10,800 in quarter 1, 12,700 in quarter 2, 14,800 in quarter 3, and 18,500 in quarter 4. Using a sales price of $85 per unit.
Sales Budget:
Q1:
Sales= 10,800*85= $918,000
Q2:
Sales= 12,700*85= $1,079,500
Q3:
Sales= 14,800*85= $1,258,000
Q4:
Sales= 18,500*85= $1,572,500
The Baldwin Company currently has the following balances on their balance sheet: Total Assets $260,881 Total Liabilities $150,673 Retained Earnings $52,700 Suppose next year the Baldwin Company generates $44,200 in net profit, pays $12,000 in dividends, total assets increase by $55,000, and total liabilities remain unchanged. What will ending Baldwins balance in Common Stock be next year
Answer:
common stock = $80,308
Explanation:
assets = liabilities + equity
current balance:
$260,881 = $150,673 + $110,208
$110,208 = common stock + retained earnings = $57,508 + $52,700
next year:
net income = $44,200
dividends = $12,000
assets = $260,881 + $55,000 = $315,881
liabilities = $150,673
equity = $315,881 - $150,673 = $165,208
retained earnings = $52,700 + $44,200 - $12,000 = $84,900
common stock = $165,208 - $84,900 = $80,308
wHAT is the largest private operator of health care facilities in the world with hundred of facilities in over 20 states. In 2006, private equity buyers took the company private in a $31.6 billion acquisition. In broad terms how costly do you think financial distress would be to HCA if it began to appear the company might be having difficulty servicing its debt
Answer:
Hey There!! The answer to this is HCA: Because HCA Is The Largest Private Operator Of Health Care Facilities In The World With Hundrd Of Facilities In Over 20 States. In 2006, Private Equity Buyers Took The Company Private In A $31.6 Billion Acquisition.
Hope It Helped!~ ♡
ItsNobody~ ☆
In which of the following organization forms is the owners' legal responsibility for the debt of the business limited to the amount they invested in the business?
a. Cooperative
b. Sole proprietorship
c. Partnership
d. Corporation
Answer:
d. Corporation
Explanation:
The Corporation is the business form of an organization in which it has the separate legal entity from its owners. Also, there is a limited liability towards any debt that invested in the business and whenever the person think for an organization so he thinks for the long term
Here in the given situation, the corporation is the best choice as it it has the limited liability of the amount invested
Hence, the correct answer is d.
Bramble Corp. recorded operating data for its shoe division for the year. Sales$1300000 Contribution margin360000 Controllable fixed costs180000 Average total operating assets720000 How much is controllable margin for the year
Answer:
controllable margin for the year is $180,000.
Explanation:
The Controllable Margin is the Profit that is controllable by the divisional manager.
Calculation of Controllable Margin :
Contribution Margin $360,000
Less Controllable fixed costs ($180,000)
Division Controllable Margin $180,000
GoSnow sells snowboards. Each snowboard requires direct materials of $128, direct labor of $53, and variable overhead of $63. The company expects fixed overhead costs of $844,976 and fixed selling and administrative costs of $391,000 for the next year. The company has a target profit of $290,000. It expects to produce and sell 11,800 snowboards in the next year. The company has a target profit of $189,800. It expects to produce and sell 11,800 snowboards in the next year. Required:Compute the selling price using the variable cost method.
Answer:
$364.83
Explanation:
The computation of selling price using the variable cost method is shown below:-
Sales units for target profit = (Total fixed costs + Target profit) ÷ (Selling price per unit - Total Variable cost per unit)
11,800 = ($1,235,976 + $189,800) ÷ (Selling price per unit - $244)
11,800 = ($1,425,776) ÷ (Selling price per unit - $244)
(Selling price per unit - $244) = $1,425,776 ÷ 11,800
(Selling price per unit - $244) = 120.83
Selling price per unit = $120.83 + 244
= $364.83
Working note
Total fixed cost = Fixed overhead costs + Fixed selling and administrative costs
= $844,976 + $391,000
= $1,235,976
Total variable cost = Direct materials + Direct labor + and variable overhead
= $128 + $53 + $63
= $244
Masters Machine Shop is considering a four-year project to improve its production efficiency. Buying a new machine press for $450,000 is estimated to result in $184,000 in annual pretax cost savings. The press falls in the MACRS five-year class, and it will have a salvage value at the end of the project of $74,000. The press also requires an initial investment in spare parts inventory of $33,000, along with an additional $3,750 in inventory for each succeeding year of the project. The shop’s tax rate is 23 percent and its discount rate is 10 percent. (MACRS schedule)
Required:
Calculate the NPV of this project.
Answer:
Masters Machine Shop
PV of Salvage value = $74,000 x 0.683 = $50,542
Present value of total savings $449,126
less Present value of investments 494,888
Net Present Value $4,780
Explanation:
a) Data Amount Present Value
Cash Outflow $450,000 $450,000
Initial spare parts 33,000 33,000
Annual Inventory 3,750 11,888
PV of investments $494,888
Project lifespan = 4 years
Discount rate = 10%
Annual pretax cost savings = $184,000
Tax rate 23% 42,320
After Tax savings $141,680
PV of Annuity of Tax savings = $141,680 x 3.170 = $449,126
Salvage value = $74,000
PV of Salvage value = $74,000 x 0.683 = $50,542
Present value of total savings $449,126
less Present value of investments 494,888
Net Present Value $4,780
b) Master Machine Shop's Net Present Value (NPV) is the difference between the cash inflows (savings) and the cash outflows (investments) for this four-year project
Jasper makes a $27,000, 90-day, 8.0% cash loan to Clayborn Co. Jasper's entry to record the collection of the note and interest at maturity should be: (Use 360 days a year.)
Answer:
Dr Cash $25,500
Cr Interest Revenue $500
Cr Notes Receivable $25,000
Explanation:
Based on the information we were told Jasper makes the amount of $27,000 which include 90-day and 8.0% cash loan to Clayborn Co, which means that Jasper's Journal entry to record the collection of the note and interest at maturity should be:
Dr Cash $25,500
(25,000+500)
Cr Interest Revenue $500
(25,000*8%*90/360)
Cr Notes Receivable $25,000
Bing engaged Dill to perform personal services for $2,200 a month for a period of four months. The contract was entered into orally on July 1, 1984, and performance was to commence on September 1, 1984. On August 10, Dill anticipatorily repudiated the contract. As a result, Bing:
Answer:
Bing can immediately sue for breach of contract
Explanation:
Based on the scenario that is being described, Bing can immediately sue for breach of contract. Breaching a contract is when one party in a binding agreement fails to deliver according to the terms of the agreement. When Dill made an anticipatory repudiation, he basically stated that he does not intend to live up to the obligations of the contract that he had agreed to, therefore breaching the contract and becoming liable.
Lance contributed investment property worth $507,500, purchased Five years ago for $312,500 cash, to Cloud Peak LLC in exchange for an 70 percent profits and capital interest in the LLC. Cloud Peak owes $380,000 to its suppliers but has no other debts.
Required information
A. What is Lance’s tax basis in his LLC interest?
B. What is Lance’s holding period in his interest?
C. What is Cloud Peak’s basis in the contributed property?
D. What is Cloud Peak’s holding period in the contributed property?
Answer:
a. Lance's Tax basis in his LLC interest
= Basis of investment property + Shares in LLC debt
= $312,500 + ($380,000 * 70%)
= $312,500 + $266,000
= $578,500
Therefore, LLC common debt obligation treated as non-recourse debt, lance income allocation ratio is used to allocate a share of LLC debt to him
b. Lance holding period in his interest is 5 years. The holding period of the contributed assets "tacks onto" his partnership interest because Lance contributed a capital asset
c. Cloud Peak's basis in the contributed property is $312,500. Also, the carryover basis would be taken by the LLC in the contributed property
d. Cloud's Peak holding period in the contributed property is 3 years
A preferred share of Coquihalla Corporation will pay a dividend of $8 in the upcoming year and every year thereafter; that is, dividends are not expected to grow. You require a return of 7% on this stock. Using the constant-growth DDM to calculate the value of Coquihalla Corporation is worth _________. A. $13.50 B. $45.50 C. $91 D. $114.29
Answer:
$114.29
Explanation:
A preferred share of Coquihalla corporation will pay a dividend of $8
The return on the stock is 7%
= 7/100
= 0.07
Therefore, by using the constant growth DMM the worth of the corporation can be calculated as follows
Vo= 8/0.07
= $114.29
Hence the value of Coquihalla corporation is worth $114.29
