true/false. find, cite and summarize an article where corporate directors or corporate officers were punnished for their bad actions with jail time, fines, or both

Answers

Answer 1

True. In 2020, former Nissan Motor Co. Chairman Carlos Ghosn was sentenced to more than four years in prison and ordered to pay a $6.5 million fine for financial misconduct during his time leading the company.

Ghosn was accused of underreporting his compensation and misusing company funds for personal gain.

The case against Ghosn was a high-profile example of corporate leaders being held accountable for their actions, and it drew attention to the growing trend of increased enforcement of corporate governance laws around the world. The case also highlighted the importance of transparency and accountability in corporate leadership, and the need for companies to have strong systems in place to detect and prevent financial misconduct.

Overall, the case against Ghosn is a powerful reminder that corporate directors and officers can face serious consequences for their actions, including jail time, fines, and damage to their reputations. This underscores the importance of strong corporate governance practices and a culture of ethical behavior throughout organizations at all levels.

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T/F. A consequentialist approach to judging sexual morality will ask whether one is using anyone or whether the sexual relation is an open one.

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True. A consequentialist approach to judging sexual morality would focus on the consequences of the sexual acts rather than the acts themselves.

In this approach, the moral value of sexual activity is judged based on the outcomes or consequences it produces. For instance, a consequentialist approach would consider whether the sexual relationship is consensual and respectful, whether it is harming anyone, and whether it is leading to positive or negative outcomes for those involved. Therefore, consequentialism would ask whether one is using anyone in a sexual relationship or whether the relationship is open since these factors would impact the overall consequences of the sexual act.

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which of the following most likely would not be required to complete continuing education hours in this state?

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Insurance brokers most likely would not be required to complete continuing education hours in this state.

The word "insurance broker" became a regulated term under the Insurance Brokers (Registration) Act 1977, which was intended to prohibit enterprises claiming to be brokers but really working as agents for one or more preferred insurance companies.

Following the repeal of the 1977 Act, the word has no legal definition. From 14 January 2005 until 31 March 2013, the sale of general insurance was regulated by the Financial Services Authority, and from 1 April 2013, it has been regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority. Anyone or any business that has been authorized by the Authority can now call themselves an insurance broker.

The question is incomplete, complete question "Which of the following would most likely NOT be required to complete continuing education hours in this state?

A. insurance brokers

B. resident producers

C. insurance consultants

D. nonresident producers"

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what the catholic religious order that founded georgetown university?

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The Catholic religious order that founded Georgetown University is the Society of Jesus (Jesuits). The Society of Jesus was founded in 1540 by Saint Ignatius of Loyola and is a Roman Catholic religious order of priests and brothers. The Jesuits have a long history of educating people in Catholic and Jesuit tradition, and Georgetown University was founded by the Society of Jesus in 1789.

The Jesuits strive to provide an excellent education grounded in their beliefs and teachings. They focus on developing leaders with strong moral character, who are prepared to serve the Church and society. Georgetown University's mission is to educate students of all faiths to become men and women for others. This mission is consistent with the goals of the Society of Jesus, which emphasizes a commitment to serve the marginalized and promote social justice.

At Georgetown, the Jesuits teach their students to develop a faith that does justice, to care for the earth, to nurture a commitment to service, and to foster a spirit of generosity. They also provide students with the opportunity to engage with faculty members and other students in a variety of settings, including academic, religious, and service-based initiatives.

Overall, Georgetown University is a Jesuit-inspired institution that seeks to prepare its students to be men and women of character and service. Through the commitment to their mission and teachings, the Society of Jesus has helped shape Georgetown University into the successful and respected institution it is today.

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In a criminal activity, which of the following refers to the payments made to a person who has facilitated a transaction?
A. kickbacks
B. accessories
C. advance fees
D. novations
E. counterfeits

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In a criminal activity, kickbacks refer to the payments made to a person who has facilitated a transaction. Option A is the correct answer.

Kickbacks are illegal payments made to people in order to influence a business decision, contract, or transaction. The person who receives the kickback usually has the power to make or break the transaction, and the individual or organization offering the kickback is attempting to influence that decision.The kickback is usually offered secretly and is generally not disclosed to the public. It is a form of corruption that can occur in both the private and public sectors.

Kickbacks can take many forms, including cash, gifts, and favors. They can also be disguised as legitimate payments, such as consulting fees, commissions, or rebates. An example of a kickback might be a construction company paying a government official to approve a building permit.

In this case, the construction company is attempting to influence the government official's decision, and the government official is receiving an illegal payment in return for that decision.Kickbacks are illegal and can result in criminal charges, fines, and imprisonment for those involved in the transaction. So, option A is the correct answer.

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how long can bankruptcy information be reported by a consumer reporting agency

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Bankruptcy information can remain on a consumer credit report for up to 10 years from the date of filing.

During this period, the information can be reported by the three major consumer credit reporting agencies: Experian, TransUnion, and Equifax. After 10 years, the bankruptcy information should be removed from a consumer's credit report. It is important to remember that filing for bankruptcy can have a significant impact on a person's credit score. Having a bankruptcy listed on your credit report can make it more difficult to obtain new credit, such as a loan or credit card. This can also make it more expensive to borrow money, as lenders may charge higher interest rates to compensate for the higher risk associated with borrowers with bankruptcy.

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what the forensic lab plays within crime scene investigation?

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analyze evidence collected from ​crime scenes, suspects and victims.
analyze evidence collected from ​crime scenes, suspects and victims. They may analyze anything from DNA or fingerprints to human remains or suspicious substances.

a ____ is an order requiring that an official bring a specified prisoner into court and show the judge why the prisoner is being kept in jail.

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An "order to show cause" is an order issued by a court or judge requiring an official (such as a jailer) to bring a specified prisoner into court and show the judge why the prisoner is being kept in jail.

This order can be used when a prisoner requests to be released on bail, when a prisoner seeks a writ of habeas corpus, or when a prisoner claims to be wrongly imprisoned. An order to show cause must provide the judge with sufficient evidence that there is a legal basis to continue to hold the prisoner in jail. If the official fails to show cause, the court may order the prisoner's release.

In order for an order to show cause to be issued, the court must have a legal basis for requiring the official to bring the prisoner in for a hearing. This can include evidence that the prisoner poses a danger to the public, that the prisoner may be a flight risk, or that the official has failed to follow proper procedure in the case. When the court reviews the order to show cause, it will determine if the evidence provided by the official is sufficient to continue the prisoner's detention. If the court finds that the evidence is not sufficient, the prisoner must be released.

The order to show cause is an important tool in ensuring that prisoners are not held unlawfully and that they are treated fairly. It can also be used to ensure that officials are properly carrying out their duties, and that they are adhering to the law when it comes to detaining prisoners. By issuing an order to show cause, the court can ensure that the official has the necessary evidence to detain the prisoner and that the prisoner has the right to a fair hearing.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. __________ is available to a third person to whom a representation is made and who justifiably relies on the representation.
a. Delectus personae
b. Respondeat superior
c. Culpable negligence
d. Partnership by estoppel

Answers

Culpable negligence  is available to a third person to whom a representation is made and who justifiably relies on the representation. Option C

What is Culpable negligence?

Culpable negligence refers to a legal term where a person is found to have acted with reckless disregard for the safety of others, resulting in harm or injury.

The legal term that matches the description given in the question is "detrimental reliance." Detrimental reliance occurs when a third party relies on a representation made by another person to their detriment. In such cases, the third party may be able to seek legal recourse against the person who made the representation.

Detrimental reliance is an important concept in contract law, as it can form the basis of a legal claim for breach of contract or other related claims. It is also known as "promissory estoppel."

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a capacitor is made of three parallel conducting plates of area and non-zero but negligible thickness, with the two outer plates on the left and the right connected together by a conducting wire. the outer plates are separated by a distance . the distance from the middle plate to the left plate is . the distance from the inner plate to the right plate is . you may assume all three plates are very thin compared to the distances and . neglect edge effects.

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A capacitor is formed by three parallel conducting plates of area, separated by a distance and .

The two outer plates are connected together by a conducting wire, and the distance from the middle plate to the left plate is , and from the inner plate to the right plate is . The plates are very thin compared to the distances, so edge effects can be neglected.

The area of the plates is a key component of the capacitor, as it determines how much charge can be stored. The separation of the plates is also important, as it is related to the capacitance.

The distance from the middle plate to the left plate, and from the inner plate to the right plate are important, as they are related to the electric field between the plates.

The thinness of the plates allows us to ignore edge effects. All of these factors together determine the capacitance of the capacitor.

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If an applicant submits false or misleading statements or submits a license, certificate, or diploma that was illegally or fraudulently obtained in his or her application for licensure, which of the following may occur?
The Board may refuse to issue the license, certificate or registration, or if it was already issued, there may be a disciplinary action up to and including suspension.

Answers

If an applicant submits false or misleading statements or submits a license, certificate, or diploma that was illegally or fraudulently obtained in his or her application for licensure, the Board may refuse to issue the license, certificate or registration, or if it was already issued, there may be a disciplinary action up to and including suspension.

What is meant by the term misleading? A misleading statement is one that appears to be factual but is incorrect, intended to deceive or misguide. Misleading information is information that is presented in such a way as to make it seem factual or impartial when it is not. It can be through half-truths, distorted data, or outright falsehoods. An act is defined as fraudulent if it is carried out with the intention of deceiving another person or entity to gain a financial or personal benefit.

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Discuss in 100 words or more, the purpose of AFIS and why it is so important in crime scene investigation.

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Answer:

Explanation:

Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS) is a biometric identification technology that is widely used in crime scene investigation. The purpose of AFIS is to identify the suspect or the victim based on their fingerprints. AFIS stores fingerprint data in a computerized database and compares them with the fingerprints collected from the crime scene. AFIS is important in crime scene investigation because fingerprints are often the most reliable evidence left behind by a perpetrator, and they can help to identify the suspect or victim, and link them to other crimes. AFIS can quickly match fingerprints with existing records, allowing law enforcement to quickly identify and apprehend suspects, and can help solve cold cases that were previously unsolvable. In addition, AFIS has helped to exonerate innocent people who were wrongly accused of a crime. Overall, AFIS is a valuable tool in crime scene investigation that has revolutionized the way law enforcement agencies solve crimes and bring perpetrators to justice.

select the four control systems that are used in multinational firms.political cultural personal bureaucratic output monetary

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Multinational firms need to implement four control systems used in multinational firms are political, cultural, personal, and bureaucratic. Political control is used to control international activities, such as when a government influences a multinational's business operations.

1.Personal control systemIn personal control systems, the top management supervises the activities of the lower-level employees. The management of the multinational firms personally observes the activities of employees to ensure that they are following company policies and regulations.

2. Bureaucratic control systemIn bureaucratic control systems, multinational firms create a set of policies and regulations that employees need to follow. The company establishes standard procedures and monitors employee behavior to ensure that they are following the regulations.

3. Output control systemIn output control systems, multinational firms set specific targets for their employees to meet. The company monitors the employees' performance and productivity to ensure that they are meeting the targets.

4. Monetary control systemIn monetary control systems, multinational firms use financial incentives to motivate employees. The company rewards the employees for their performance and productivity. This control system helps companies to retain employees and motivates them to work harder.

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fill in the blank. a criminologist who believes that crime is caused by societal pressures such as social structures and culture would subscribe to___perspectives.

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A criminologist who believes that crime is caused by societal pressures such as social structures and culture would subscribe to sociological perspectives.

Specifically, this perspective is often associated with the sociological theory of "social disorganization," which suggests that high levels of crime in certain neighborhoods or communities can be attributed to factors such as poverty, unemployment, racial segregation, and weak social institutions.

Criminologists who subscribe to this perspective argue that crime is not solely the result of individual choices or characteristics, but rather is influenced by larger societal factors. Other sociological perspectives that are commonly applied to the study of crime include strain theory, cultural deviance theory, and social learning theory.

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What is one trait that state and federal courts have in common?
A. Both must obey the laws outlined in the U.S. Constitution.
B. Both divide jurisdictions and name courts the same way.
C. Both set strict guidelines all defendants must meet before trial.
D. Both are presided over by judges who serve four-year terms.

Answers

Answer: A. Both must obey the laws outlined in the U.S. Constitution.

Explanation:

Both state and federal courts must obey the laws outlined in the U.S. Constitution because the Constitution is the supreme law of the land in the United States. The Constitution outlines the structure of the federal government, including the judicial branch, and sets forth certain rights and protections that apply to all individuals in the country. Both state and federal courts must adhere to the principles and protections set forth in the Constitution, such as the right to due process of law and the right to a fair trial. This ensures that the legal system operates in accordance with the principles of the Constitution and protects the rights of individuals who come before the courts.

Over the first fifty years of American history, which of the following statements best describes the ability of African Americans to vote in elections?
A. African Americans could never vote in American elections prior to the Civil War.
B. Voting rights among African Americans increased during antebellum America.
C. Voting rights among African Americans decreased during antebellum America.
D. African American women had the right to vote.

Answers

Over the first fifty years of American history, A. African Americans could never vote in American elections prior to the Civil War, describes the ability of African Americans to vote in elections.

Black People were not allowed to vote in American elections prior to the Civil War. Several jurisdictions had laws in place that expressly forbade African Americans from casting ballots, while other states used measures like literacy exams, poll taxes, and property ownership restrictions to prevent African Americans from exercising their right to vote.

Likewise, the Three-Fifths Compromise of 1787 reduced the political influence of enslaved African Americans by counting them as just three-fifths of a person for the purpose of allocating representatives in Congress. Black American men weren't given the right to vote until the 15th Amendment to the US Constitution was ratified, yet this privilege was frequently suppressed by unfair methods like poll taxes, literacy tests, and violence. The 19th Amendment was not ratified until 1920, giving African American women the right to vote.

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which amendment establishes the direct election of u.s. senators by popular vote?

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The election of United States senators was modified by the Seventeenth Amendment, as was the procedure for filling vacancies.

The direct election of United States senators in each state was created by the 17th Amendment (Amendment XVII) to the United States Constitution. The Constitution's Article I, Section 3, Clauses 1 and 2—under which senators were chosen by state legislatures—are repealed by the amendment. Also, it modifies how Senate vacancies are filled, enabling state legislatures to authorize interim appointments by their governors until a special election can be called.

The 62nd Congress introduced the amendment in 1912, and it was ratified by three-quarters (36) of the state legislatures on April 8, 1913, becoming a part of the Constitution.

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under an exempt review, which of the following would occur if the protection of the confidential information of the research subject is warranted?

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under an exempt review, which of the following would occur if the protection of the confidential information of the research subject is warranted would be approved.

A specific subset of "research involving human subjects" known as "exempt human subjects research" is exempt from ongoing IRB oversight. If there is only a small risk associated with the research and all of the research procedures fall under one or more of the exemption categories listed in the federal IRB regulations, the research may be exempt. Before beginning a study that is exempt, the IRB must receive a submission for review. Exemption 1 covers studies conducted in well-established or widely accepted educational environments that involve specific customary educational practices, such as studies on currently employed teaching methods or classroom management. The HIPAA Privacy Rule may also apply to studies that are exempt from it.

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Which of the following is NOT a group mentioned in the lesson that the bureaucracy is accountable to?a. Cabinetb. Judiciaryc. interest groups

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Judiciary is NOT a group mentioned in the lesson that the bureaucracy is accountable to. (B)

The bureaucracy is accountable to the Cabinet, the President, Congress, the public, and interest groups. The judiciary is a branch of government, but the bureaucracy is not directly accountable to it; rather, it is accountable to the executive branch of government, which includes the Cabinet. (B)

The Cabinet is composed of the President and the heads of executive departments, who advise the President and collectively constitute the executive branch of the federal government.

Interest groups are organizations formed to represent citizens and to promote certain goals, and the bureaucracy is accountable to them because they can use their political power to influence public policy.

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the internal revenue code and the regulations do not impose penalties on tax return preparers for which of the following?

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The following are the penalties on the tax return preparers that the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations do not impose:

An honest mistake or inadvertent error made by a tax return preparer will not result in a penalty. In this case, a tax return preparer may rectify the mistake and file the correct return or refund within a specified time period.

Tax return preparers are not penalized for failing to file an amended return or refund claim after rectifying an error or mistake made in a prior return or refund claim. However, if a tax return preparer is paid for the preparation of an amended return or refund claim, the preparer may be subject to a penalty if the claim or return is incorrect.

The Internal Revenue Code and regulations do not require tax return preparers to register or obtain a preparer tax identification number (PTIN) if they do not file tax returns or make refund claims for compensation. The penalty for non-compliance with this requirement will not be imposed on tax return preparers who do not file tax returns or make refund claims for compensation.

The penalties on the tax return preparers that the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations impose are as follows: Failure to comply with the due diligence requirements, which include checking the validity of Social Security numbers, can result in a penalty of up to $100 per failure. The penalty for failing to sign a tax return or refund claim is $50 per failure.

The penalty for understating the tax liability on a tax return or refund claim is the greater of $1,000 or 50% of the income from the preparation of the return or refund claim. The penalty for the use of abusive tax shelters or any other illegal tax avoidance schemes is $1,000 per taxpayer per year. A taxpayer may also sue a tax return preparer for damages if the preparer engages in fraudulent or deceptive conduct in the preparation of the return or refund claim.

the internal revenue code and the regulations do not impose penalties on tax return preparers for which of the following?

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If you are making a left turn from a two way street into a one way street you must start the turn from the _____ abc hit may turn into any lane that is safely open

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If you are turning left from a two-way street onto a one-way street, you should complete the turn into the left lane .

Once you have turned onto the one-way street, you may turn into any lane that is safely open and appropriate for your destination. It is important to check for other vehicles, pedestrians, and bicyclists before making the turn and to signal your intention to turn in advance.

If there is a center left turn lane, use it. turning left onto a two-way street from a one-way street. Starting in the far-left lane, make the turn. End the turn in the left lane closest to the middle of the street moving in the direction of your vehicle to lower the likelihood of a collision.

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You are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for the following types of vehicles that are stationary on the roadway:

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For all emergency(such as police, fire, and ambulance) and public safety vehicles with lights flashing on them that are stationary on the roadway, everyone are required to slow down and move over.

We need to move over and provide way for vehicles that are used for public and work for their safety as the people in these vehicles may be providing a service or responding to an emergency situation, and they need to be able to do their job without the risk of being hit by a passing vehicle. Whenever we see one of such vehicles on road you should slow down and move over (if possible) to give them more space and to reduce the risk of an accident. It is an important safety measure that helps protect those working on or near the road.

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According to the laws of most of the states in the USA, drivers are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for all emergency and public safety vehicles with lights flashing.

When you see an emergency vehicle, such as an ambulance, fire truck, or police car, on the side of the road with lights flashing, you must change lanes if it is safe to do so. You should slow down and drive with extra caution when passing by, even if you can't move over to another lane. When driving, keep an eye out for flashing lights in the distance, especially on freeways and busy roads. When you see the flashing lights, look for the type of vehicle and carefully merge into another lane, leaving plenty of space for the emergency vehicle to pass by. This will assist them in arriving at their destination quickly and safely.

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The Art Forger Who Tricked the Nazis
Where did the trial take place? What was the defendant accused of?
What was strange about his defense?
How did Han van Meegeren manage to forge the works of art so well? What did he do to make them look authentic?
How could forensic testing have changed this case?
What ultimately happened to van Meegeren?
Money to Run, But No Skills to Hide
How did Schrenker try to fake his own death? How did he get caught?
Why is creating a new state ID harder to do these days?
Why is it so difficult to fake a passport? What is the easiest way for criminals to obtain a passport?
Why does Mr. Abagnale claim it is easy to get a fraudulent passport? What steps does someone have to take to make this happen?
Why was Mr. Abagnale arrested? What happened to him after his arrest?

Answers

1. It took place in Dutch. He was accused of forging art.
2. He didn't argue his innocence, instead he admitted to the crime.
3. He had studied about the Old Masters. He mixed his own paints, using only the pigments and oils in use during the time of each artist.
4. They would've been able to prove the paintings were forged with resin.
5. He was left off scott free at first, but eventually sold the art to the Nazis and was arrested by the allies and finally
sent to jail for a year.

Money to Run, But No Skills to Hide
1. He crashed his plane and made a fake call for help. He emailed a friend.
2. Because of the extra security feature.
3. It is not an easy thing to master with all of the security features. To steal a valid one.
4. He belleves that all you need
is the death record of a child from a courthouse to get a birth certificate. A birth certificate and some white-out on an apartment lease gets vou a drivers lIcense
and then a driver's license gets you a passport.
5. He hated what he was doing and got lonely. He finally went to jail for everything.

What factors influence the remedies available to a seller when the buyer breaches a contract?
...
Choose 3 answers.
the seller may resell the goods and sue to recover damages.
the seller may sue to obtain specific performance.
the seller may cancel the contract.
the seller may withholding delivery of the goods.

Answers

the remedies available to a seller when the buyer breaches a contract, In the given choice there are 1,3,4 ansewers influence the remedies.

A contract is breached when one party rejects or fails to follow its terms. If the seller breaches the purchase agreement, the buyer may take any of the following actions, EXCEPT sue the broker for non-performance.

What legal options does the buyer have if the seller breaks the terms of the contract?

The buyer has two options: (a) use the warranty breachas justification for cancelling or reducing the amount owed to him; or (b) sue the seller for damages resulting from the warranty violation. He has the right to renounce the contract and make the seller liable for any losses. It is common to use the phrase "damages for anticipatory breach" to describe this.

Brokers and salespeople are unable to properly comprehend the situation or goals of the individuals they are bringing together. As a result, the broker is not at fault if a contract fails. The broker is also not at fault if a buyer is unable to get clear title or a seller is abruptly transferred.

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occurs when both parties agree that the contract should be terminated without performance. A rescission discharges the obligations of both parties under the contract.

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Rescission occurs when both parties agree that the contract should be terminated without performance.

When the parties to a contract decide to end the agreement, rescission takes place. Rescission only causes the old contract to be canceled; no new contract is created in its place. By mutual consent, the parties terminate the contract. Waiver is the act of giving up a right.  Despite the parties' partial or complete failure to fulfill all of their obligations, the contract is void. When parties enter into contracts because they have mutually agreed to do so, the parties' individual contracts are terminated.

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there are two things you want to remember about bureaucrats. choose the two items that craig mentioned

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Two things to remember about bureaucrats are a clear hierarchy and specialization.

A bureaucracy is a sizable administrative organization that manages a government's or society's daily operations. In America, there are three levels of government bureaucracy: federal, state, and local.

A distinct hierarchy, specialization, a division of labor, and a set of formal rules, or standard operating procedures, are the four main characteristics of bureaucracies. There is a distinct hierarchy among bureaucrats, and they specialize, so keep that in mind.

For a bureaucracy to succeed, it needs to be independent, impersonal, and impartial. Employee relationships must be professional, according to Weber. The structure of the impersonal bureaucratic environment encourages making decisions based only on facts and careful consideration.

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who does the commandant of the marine corps report to?

Answers

The Commandant of the Marine Corps reports directly to the Secretary of the Navy, who is a member of the United States President’s cabinet.


This direct reporting relationship between the Commandant and the Secretary of the Navy is mandated by law and is outlined in Title 10 of the United States Code. The Commandant’s duties include serving as the head of the Marine Corps and ensuring its readiness for any type of mission, such as providing amphibious forces, training personnel, and providing support for combat operations. The Commandant is also responsible for overseeing Marine Corps recruiting, logistics, and the administration of justice.


The Commandant of the Marine Corps is the senior ranking officer in the Marine Corps and the only officer in the Corps to serve as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. In this capacity, the Commandant acts as an adviser to the President and Secretary of Defense. The Commandant also serves as the principal advisor to the Secretary of the Navy on all matters  about  the Marine Corps.


The Commandant is appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate. The Commandant serves for a four-year term and is eligible for reappointment, though most Commandants serve no more than two consecutive terms. The Commandant is the leader and spokesman of the Marine Corps and serves as the primary representative of the Corps in relations with other branches of the United States Armed Forces, government agencies, and the public.

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fill in the blank. the___perspective of the criminal justice system holds that criminals choose to commit crimes and must be punished harshly for their actions.

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The Crime control perspective of the criminal justice system holds that criminals choose to commit crimes and must be punished harshly for their actions.

Criminal justice referred to all methods that individuals could use to exact retribution for the harm committed by a crime. The idea of criminal justice has since developed.

With a focus on the complexities and connections between crime and justice, Criminal Justice: The System in Perspective offers a novel perspective on the criminal justice system. Recent studies, current events, and the criminal court system are the main topics of criminal justice.

According to the due process model, every person should have access to a just and equitable criminal justice system that respects their constitutional rights.

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fill in the blank. generally speaking, prejudice involves negative___, whereas stereotyping involves negative about someone based on their group membership.

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Generally speaking, prejudice involves negative discrimination, whereas  stereotyping involves negative about someone based on their group membership.

An unjustified, often unfavourable attitude towards a group and its members is called prejudice. The three elements of prejudice are attitudes (often stereotypes), feelings, and propensities to take action (discrimination).

Prejudice is a pejorative attitude and sentiment against a person that is exclusively motivated by that person's social group membership (Allport, 1954; Brown, 2010). Those who belong to an unknown cultural group can face prejudice.

Prejudice is a belief about a person or group that is often unfavourable and is based on a stereotype. A person's participation (or presumed membership) in a certain group generally serves as the foundation for the idea. People are divided by prejudice based on stereotypes as well.

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Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of a libel suit?a. Identificationb. Clear and present dangerc. Defamationd. Faulte. Injury

Answers

Defamation is NOT one of the elements of a libel suit.  (C)

Libel is a type of defamation that consists of false statements that are published in a written form. A libel suit requires four elements: identification, clear and present danger, fault, and injury. Identification means that the individual responsible for the libelous statement must be identified.

Clear and present danger means that the statement was false, and it created harm or the potential to cause harm. Fault means that the person who made the statement either acted negligently or with intentional malice. Injury means that the libelous statement caused some form of harm or damage to the plaintiff.

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In some cases, the sale of a property triggers payment in full of a deferred tax or special assessment. If this is the case, the tax may be paid by
all of these.

Answers

If a property sale triggers payment of a deferred tax or special assessment, the responsibility for paying the tax usually falls on the seller.

This is because the tax or assessment is typically attached to the property and not the owner. As such, when the property changes hands, the new owner inherits any existing tax liability.

The payment of the deferred tax or special assessment may be made directly by the seller, or the payment may be deducted from the sale proceeds before the seller receives their payment. This deduction is typically made at closing, where the seller's proceeds are calculated and paid out.

It is important for both buyers and sellers to be aware of any outstanding tax or assessment liabilities attached to a property before entering into a transaction. Failing to account for these liabilities can result in unexpected costs and delays in closing the deal.

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