Answer: A. low levels of glycogen storage, even when blood glucose is high.
C. low lactate production, even at high activity.
Explanation:
Cardiomyocytes are also known as the myocardiocytes. They are the cells which makes up make up the muscle if the heart. They're responsible for the generation of the contractile force in the heart which helps in the pumping if blood.
From the options given, the statements that are likely to be true of cardiomyocytes, but not of skeletal myocytes include:
• low levels of glycogen storage, even when blood glucose is high.
• low lactate production, even at high activity.
Answer:
The answer is A and C
Explanation:
Since cardiomyocytes are dependent on fatty acids, they rely on oxidative phosphorylation to generate energy, and consume very little glucose. Due to this, they have very low need for fermentation of pyruvate. In fact, they can absorb lactate generated by skeletal myocytes and erythrocytes and oxidize it for additional energy. Another consequence of this metabolism is that cardiomyocytes store little or no glucose as glycogen.
Skeletal myocytes and cardiomyocytes both have high energy needs and thus have more mitochondria than other cells. Cardiomyocytes have an even greater density of mitochondria than skeletal myocytes because they depend almost entirely on oxidative phosphorylation for their energy needs. This dependence on oxidative phosphorylation also explains the extraordinary sensitivity of cardiac muscle to hypoxic (low-oxygen) events. Without oxygen, cardiomyocytes rapidly run out of energy and can quickly die.
A Ribosome's primary function is to:
A. Make an RNA copy of DNA.
B. Translate mRNA into a protein.
C. Make a DNA copy of RNA.
D. Translate a protein into mRNA.
Answer:
A ribosome, formed from two subunits locking together, functions to: (1) Translate encoded information from the cell nucleus provided by messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA), (2) Link together amino acids selected and collected from the cytoplasm by transfer ribonucleic acid (tRNA). hope that helps❤
A ribosome's primary function is to translate mRNA into a protein. Thus, the correct option is B.
What are Ribosomes?Ribosomes may be defined as the spherical and glandular particles that occur freely in the matrix or remain attached to the Endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
Ribosomes play an important role in protein synthesis by translating mRNA into a protein. They are also involved in the decoding of messages and the construction of peptide bonds.
Therefore, the correct option for this question is B.
To learn more about Ribosomes, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/8773679
#SPJ5
define cell and atom
Answer:Cells are the basic building blocks of all living things. The human body is composed of trillions of cells. They provide structure for the body, take in nutrients from food, convert those nutrients into energy, and carry out specialized functions. ... Cells have many parts, each with a different function
Explanation: i hope that helps
Quadrupedal monkeys __________ Group of answer choices have long arched spines for flexible movement when leaping. hold their bodies parallel to the ground (pronograde posture) when walking have narrow rib cages with scapula on the side, limiting the range of motion in the shoulder All of these traits characterize quadrupedal monkeys
Answer:
All of these traits characterize quadrupedal monkeys
Explanation:
Quadrupedal monkeys have long arched spines that is used for flexible movement when jumping to a height. They hold their bodies parallel to the ground because of pronograde nature means these monkeys walking with the body by using four legs. While walking they have narrow rib cages with scapula on the side that limits the range of motion in the shoulder.
functions of the nerve attached to the muscle fibre
Answer:
Stimulation. Inside the muscle, the neuron branches to supply an individual fibre at the neuromuscular junction or motor endplate. An electrical signal travels along the neuron and arrives at the neuromuscular junction.
Our eyes are always the same size from birth
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✍︎☔︎ᴍᴀᴛʜᴅᴇᴍᴏɴǫᴜᴇᴇɴ☔︎
✍︎ᴥ︎︎︎ᴄᴀʀʀʏᴏɴʟᴇᴀʀɴɪɴɢᴥ︎︎︎
✍︎ꕥᴋɪᴍ ᴀʀᴀꕥ
Your friend works in a lab that examines microtubules. She decides to grow some microtubules in vitro. After growing some with normal (Alpha-Beta)‐tubulin dimers bound to GTP, she replaces them with only GMPCPP bound (Alpha-Beta)‐tubulin dimers. GMPCPP is analog of GTP that cannot be hydrolyzed to GDP
Will she observe dynamic instability in her GMPCPP‐bound microtubules? Explain.
Answer:
No, she will not observe dynamic instability
Explanation:
Microtubules are dynamic polymers formed by the assembly of α‐ and β‐tubulin, which alternate between growing and shrinking states. These states are regulated by the hydrolysis of GTP bound to β-tubulin. In consequence, the dynamic behavior of the microtubules depends on the binding and hydrolysis of GTP by β-tubulin, which alters the conformation of tubulin molecules. The Guanylyl 5′-α,β-methylenediphosphonate (GMPCPP) is a slowly hydrolyzing analog of GTP that binds to tubulin with an affinity four to eightfold lower than GTP, which is used to produce stable microtubules that resist their depolymerization. When microtubules are polymerized with GMPCPP, they do not undergo dynamic instability, because GTP hydrolysis is necessary for their switching behavior.
are amino acids associated with proteins
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Amino acids create proteins
6. Which directly describes the female part of a flower?
It's called the pistil and it contains the filament and the style.
It's called the stamen and it contains the filament and the anther.
It's called the stamen and it contains the stigma and the anther.
It's called the pistil and it contains the stigma and the style.
Explanation:
D ,cause it is made up of the stigma and style
Answer
It's D
Explanation:
I took the quiz :p
List three potential effects of errors occurring during meiosis.
Errors can occur during meiosis producing gametes with an extra or missing chromosome. The consequences of this following fertilisation depend on which chromosomes are affected. Often the embryo is not viable, but some of these errors can lead to trisomy conditions or sex chromosome disorders.
Explanation:
:)
Matching: select the correct answer by indicating that a given phrase describes either (S) the sympathetic component, (P) the parasympathetic component, (B) both the sympathetic and parasympathetic components, or (N) neither the sympathetic or parasympathetic components of the autonomic nervous system.
1. Innervates the kidneys
2. Long cholinergic preganglionic fibers
3. Adrenergic receptors
4. Nicotinic receptors
5. Innervates smooth muscles in arterioles
6. Muscarinic receptors
7. Innervates skeletal muscle
8. Decreased atrial contractility
9. Mydriasis
10. Acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter
Answer:
Explanation:
1. Innervates the kidneys: sympathetic
2. Long cholinergic preganglionic fibers: Both sympathetic and parasympathetic
3. Adrenergic receptors: both sympathetic and parasympathetic
4. Nicotinic receptors: Both sympathetic and parasympathetic
5. Innervates smooth muscles in arterioles: both sympathetic and parasympathetic
6. Muscarinic receptors: Both sympathetic and parasympathetic
7. Innervates skeletal muscle: sympathetic
8. Decreased atrial contractility: parasympathetic
9. Mydriasis: parasympathetic
10. Acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter: Both sympathetic and parasympathetic
7. Gene expression may be regulated:
A) only during translation
B) only during transcription
C) during transcription and translation
D) only during replication
E) during replication and transcription
8. During anaphase of meiosis I toward opposing poles of cell are pulled:
A) whole chromosomes
B) sister chromatids
C) bivalents
D) fragments of sister chromatids
E) tetrads
9. One of a series of different versions of gene is called:
A) genome
B) haploid
C) diploid
D) allele
E) allosome
10. Which of the following genotypes would produce the smallest number of different gametes if the alleles are assorted independently?
A) aa BB Dd
B) AA BB DD
C) Aa Bb DD
D) Aa BB DD
E) Aa Bb Dd
11. Which of the following processes can decrease the genetic variation in natural populations?
A) recombination
B) immigration
C) mutagenesis
D) inbreeding
E) hybridization
12. Which of the following structures present in the embryos of higher plants develops into primary leaves of seedlings?
A) epicotyl
B) endosperm
C) radicle
D) hypocotyl
E) cotyledon
13. Which of the following organisms would be classified as primary consumer?
A) lion
B) Escherichia coli
C) barley
D) cow
E) Candida albicans
14. Which of the following characterizes monocotyledonous plants?
A) Their embryos have one cotyledon.
B) In their stems vascular bundles are usually arranged in ring.
C) Their flowers parts are usually in multiples of four or five.
D) They have usually taproot.
E) Their leaves usually have netlike veins.
15. Which of the following types of plants tissue transport water and minerals?
A) phloem
B) xylem
C) meristem
D) vascular cambium
E) epidermis
16. Which of the following require a host cell because they are not able to make proteins on their own?
A) Paramecium caudatum
B) Escherichia coli
C) Influenza virus
D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae E) Euglena viridis
17. Which of the organisms is not correctly labeled?
A) Bacteria – Staphylococcus aureus
B) Plantae – Pine
C) Fungi – Spider
D) Animalia – Lion
E) Viruses – HIV
18. Eutrophication is the process of:
A) vegetation succession in lakes
B) nutrient depletion of lakes
C) increase inflow of minerals in lakes
D) primary succession in lakes
E) biological renewal of aquatic ecosystems
19. Which of the following is a prezygotic isolating mechanism to prevent reproduction between species?
A) geographic isolation
B) zygotic mortality
C) isolation by hybrid sterility
D) isolation by hybrid breakdown
E) isolation by hybrid inviability.
20. Which of the following plant tissue is characteristic only for the leaves, but not for the roots?
A) xylem
B) phloem
C) epidermis
D) cambium
E) mesophyll
21. Rhizobium forms an endosymbiotic nitrogen fixing association with roots of:
A) pine
B) rice
C) rose
D) bean
E) coconut palm
22. Which of the following is found in an unusual high proportion in cells of cardiac muscle?
A) lysosomes
B) mitochondria
C) mRNA
D) Golgi apparatus
E) cell nucleus
23. Which of the following organisms would most likely be found at the top of an energy pyramid?
A) clams
B) sardines
C) sharks
D) kelp
E) mollusca
Meiosis
female gamete
Meiosis
male gamete
X
zygote
embryo
25. Echinococcosis disease is caused by:
A) Echinococcus
B) Diphyllobotrium
C) Trichinella
D) Enterobius
E) Fasciola
26. Which of the following organisms conduct ethanol fermentation?
A) yeasts
B) bears
C) spiders
D) barley
E) mushrooms
27. Steroids are not:
A) sex hormones
B) cholesterol
C) corticosteroids
D) bile acids
E) vitamin C
28. Which of the following is the right order of the four stages of food processing?
A) digestion, ingestion, absorption, elimination
B) ingestion, digestion, elimination, absorption
C) ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination
D) digestion, ingestion, absorption, elimination
E) absorption, elimination, digestion, ingestion
29. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The pH of urine is close to neutral (7).
II. Urine is a liquid product of the body that is secreted by urinary system. III. Lack of vasopressin in the blood increases diuresis.
A) I
B) II
C) I, II, III
D) III
E) I, III
30. Which hormone is produced by the placenta?
A) progesterone
B) insulin
C) thyroxin
D) melatonin
E) glucagon
31. Which of the following is not characteristic for mammals?
A) mammary glands
B) hair
C) cold-blooded
D) three middle ears bones
E) sweat glands
32. All of the members of a particular species that live in one area are called a(an):
A) biotope
B) community
C) ecosystem
D) biosphere
E) population
Answer:
Omg questions are sooo long
HIV & AIDS. Is this condition still relevant? What are the latest statistics on this condition and can the new drugs really prevent new
infections?
Answer:
They're still VERY relevant.
Explanation:
In 2019, an estimated 34,800 new HIV infections occurred in the United States. HOWEVER new HIV infections declined 8% from 37,800 in 2015 to 34,800 in 2019. In 2012, the US Food and Drug Administration gave the green light to using daily pills of an HIV medication called Truvada (emtricitabine/tenofovir) to prevent infection. It proved more than 85% effective when taken on schedule. New drugs are still being developed, here's a link from the
FDA explaining some different types of new TREATMENT medications:
https://www.fda.gov/news-events/press-announcements/fda-approves-new-hiv-treatment-patients-limited-treatment-options
Here's a link for medications that PREVENT HIV/AIDS:
https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-021-00618-7#:~:text=In%202012%2C%20the%20US%20Food,effective%20when%20taken%20on%20schedule.
Which of the following groups includes a protozoan that is transmitted sexually?
A.) Chromalveolata
B.) Amoebazoa
C.) Excavata
D.) Archaeplasteda
E.) Rhizaria
Answer:
i think A
Explanation:
Porque las enzimas actuan sobre algunas sustancias ñ
Answer:
SPAM
Explanation:
SPAM
SPAM
Acinar cells of the pancreas release: Acinar cells of the pancreas release: cholecystokinin. pancreatic juice. glucagon. insulin. g
Answer:
pancreatic juice
Explanation:
The pancreas secretes the pancreatic juice, composed of enzymes, water, bicarbonate, and electrolytes produced by acinar and epithelial cells. Secretory pancreatic cells are organized in sac-shape structures called acini. These structures are conformed of acinous cells and center-acinous cells that secrete digestive enzymes into the intestine The pancreatic juice flows along the principal pancreatic duct to the bile duct and from there to the small intestine. In the intestine, it degrades fats, carbohydrates, and proteins.
13.A dividing cell has a line of vesicles on the metaphase plate between the two daughter nuclei. Is it a bacterium, plant, or animal cell
Answer:
plant cell
Explanation:
The Golgi apparatus is a cell organelle responsible for modifying, sorting and packaging proteins and lipid molecules into vesicles (i.e., Golgi vesicles) for their delivery to targeted cell sites. A plant cell can contain many -even hundreds- of Golgi apparatus. During cell division of plant cells, Golgi vesicles combine at the metaphase plate in order to form a structure called phragmoplast. Subsequently, the cell plate formed by phragmoplast vesicles grows from the center to the cell walls. Finally, the vesicle membranes fuse to form a plasma membrane that divides the plant cell into two cells.
True or false ? Grasslands are quick to develop into a climax community
True
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Tbh i dont remember sorry :(
Compare the outcome of mitosis vs. meiosis.
Answer:
Cells divide and reproduce in two ways, mitosis and meiosis. Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells, whereas meiosis results in four sex cells
Explanation:
Which of the following is the best definition of the term nonrenewable
resource?
A. A resource that can be replaced naturally within a reasonable time
period
B. An inexpensive resource
C. An expensive resource
D. A resource that takes many years to replace
Which one A or D help me pls
Answer
D.
Explanation
Non renewable resources such as coal, if not used sustainably will get over fast and coal is used for many purposes, if this resource gets over it will take hundreds of years to come back
Answer:
D). A resource that takes many years to replace.
Explanation:
Trust me
What is the probability that a hybrid individual with the genotype AabbCcddEeFf will produce a gamete that has the genotype abCdeF
Answer:
6.25%
Explanation:
Find the number of different gametes that can be produced
number of gametes produced = 2^n
n is the number of allele pairs that are heterozygous
there are 4 heterozygous allele pairs, these are: Aa, Cc, Ee and Ff
2^4 = 16
abCdeF is one of the 16 genotypes that could be produced
to find the percentage, divide 1 and 16 and multiply by 100
1 ÷ 16 = 0.0625
0.0625 × 100 = 6.25
Viral or bacterial germs that invade body cells are called _____.
phagocytes
pathogens
white blood cells
lymphocytes
What is the answer with explaining
Answer:
EeWw
Explanation:
The allele for the earlobe is depicted as e while that of the hairline is w.
A parent that is homzygous recessive for earlobes (ee) and homzygous dominant for hairline (WW) would have the genotype eeWW.
The other parent that is homzygous dominant for unattached earlobes and homzygous recessive for hairline would have the genotype EEww
eeWW x EEww
During meiosis, each genotype will form gametes.
eeWW: eW, eW, eW, eW
EEww: Ew, Ew, Ew, Ew
These gametes will randomly unite during fertilization to produce offspring. Since the same gametes are formed by each parent:
eW x Ew
offspring
100% EeWw (see the attached image for the Punnet's square)
The genotype of all the children would be EeWw and would phenotypically be with unattached earlobes and dominant hairline.
Why do you think type 2 diabetes occurs so much more often than other inheritable diseases? Propose a hypothesis for why this allele has not been eliminated by natural selection.
Which type of species best describes a mouse: opportunistic or equilibrium? Explain why a mouse or rat population would continuously grow while other mammals (cheetahs) are nearly extinct.
Answer:
This allele has not been eliminated by natural selection because it may confer an adaptive advantage for particular environmental conditions
Mice and rats are opportunistic species. These species can rapidly adapt to different environmental conditions, while cheetahs are unable to adapt to changing environments.
Explanation:
An allele is a gene variant that may be beneficial, neutral, or deleterious for a particular environment. Different alleles are not eliminated by natural selection against other alleles (even when a priori seem to be deleterious) because they confer a selective advantage in a given environment. For example, the allele for sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation which is lethal in homo-zygous individuals, but heterozygous individuals are less likely to die of malaria, thereby this allele has been positively selected in geographic areas where malaria is an endemic disease. Moreover, mice and rats are opportunistic species, i.e., they are species that rapidly adapt to varied living conditions. These species are characterized to have high growth rates and produce many offspring. On the other hand, the cheetah is a highly specialized species that is unable to adapt to changing environments. In consequence, cheetah populations are more prone to become extinct than rat and mice populations.
The stage of the cell cycle during which two new and fully functional nuclei are formed is called ________.
Answer:
karyoninesis
(that's what I think you asking)
Provide three ways in which you can tell the difference between a cell in mitosis vs a cell in meiosis. Describe how they are different.
Answer:
Mitosis consists of one stage whereas meiosis consists of two stages. Mitosis produces diploid cells (46 chromosomes) whereas meiosis produces haploid cells (23 chromosomes). Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells whereas meiosis produces four genetically different daughter cells
What is immigration?
A. When animals leave an ecosystem
B. When animals are born in an ecosystem
Ο Ο Ο O
C. When animals move into an ecosystem
D. When animals die in an ecosystem
Answer:
C. When animals move into an ecosystem
Explanation:
What is the most common energy source for cells?
Answer:
The most common energy source for cells is ATP, or Adenosine Triphosphate
Answer:
Mitochondria stores energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Tri Phosphate).
Since, mitochondria provide energy to the cells it is also known as the powerhouse of the cell.
the phenomenon is called a revision why did it happen
Answer:
help in studying
Explanation:
Explain how the articulation between the upper and lower jaws effects the action of the teeth and the feeding ability of the carnivore?
Answer: Carnivores have unique characteristics of their jaw articulation, or the joint between their upper and lower jaws, which enable them to more.
Discuss two characteristics of the female pelvis. Why are these characteristics significant?
Answer:
The general structure of the female pelvis is thinner and less dense, in comparison to the thick and heavy male pelvis, which is designed to support a heavier body build. The true pelvis is wide and shallow in the female, and the pelvic inlet, also known as the superior pelvic aperture is wide, oval and rounded.
