Urine passes through the ureters by the mechanism of peristalsis. Thus, the correct option is C.
What is Peristalsis?Peristalsis is a series of wave-like muscle contractions which moves the food through the digestive tract in the body. It starts in the esophagus (food pipe) where strong wave-like motions of the smooth muscle cells move the balls of swallowed food (chyme) to the stomach.
Urine is formed in the kidneys through the filtration of blood. The urine is then passed on through the ureters to the urinary bladder, where it is stored. During urination, the urine is passed on from the urinary bladder through the urethra to the outside of the body.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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What would be the result of a mutation that deactivates the regulatory gene that makes the repressor protein of a repressible operon in an escherichia coli cell?.
A regulatory gene is gene that encodes for a protein, such as a repressor (or activators) that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.
The regulatory gene of a repressible operon encodes for the repressor that inhibits gene transcription. So, when that repressor isn’t active, transcription occurs continuously.
which of the following are the only plant groups have sporophytes and gametophytes that are both photosynthetic and free-living?
Ferns are uncommon among terrestrial plants in that their sporophyte and gametophyte stages are both free living and self-contained. The correct option (D)Seedless vascular plants
Seedless vascular plants have vascular tissue but do not produce flowers or seeds. Seedless vascular plants, such as ferns and horsetails, reproduce through haploid, unicellular spores rather than seeds.
What are seedless vascular plants examples?
Club mosses, horsetails, ferns, and whisk ferns are examples of modern seedless vascular plants.
Why are seedless vascular plants important?
Seedless vascular plants provide many benefits to life in ecosystems, such as food and shelter, as well as fuel and medicine to humans.
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Full Question: Which of the following are the only plant groups have sporophytes and gametophytes that are both photosynthetic and free-living?
Angiosperms
Seedless vascular plants
Gymnosperms
Nonvascolar plants
list three major biological functions of triacylglycerols
Triglycerides, cholesterol, and other critical fatty acids—what the medical community refers to as fats that the body cannot produce on its own—store energy, keep us warm, and safeguard our vital organs. They serve as messengers, facilitating the work that proteins do.
What role do triacylglycerols play in biology?Abstract. Due to their high energy density, triacylglycerols (TAGs) are the primary energy storage resource in mammals. Their hydrophobicity and substantially reduced state both play a role in this.
Quiz: What are the main roles of triglycerides in the body?Triglycerides serve a variety of purposes, including the storage of energy, cushioning, thermal insulation, joining of organs, and absorption of some vitamins. Phospholipids play a role in the construction of cell membranes, the breakdown of fats, and the myelin sheaths that surround neurons in the body.
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None of the above Question 6 2.5 pts In its public health campaign, the United States Department of Agriculture promotes food safety with four simple actions: boil, freeze, dry, and salt bake, sterilize, freeze, and label O C. clean, separate, chill, and cook scrub, irradiate, cook, and freeze Question 7 2.5 pts Which of the following is NOT recommended when purchasing food? O Buy perishable foods first Place meat in a separate plastic bag Don't buy food from damaged containers Buy only what you need Question 8 2.5 pts
The answer is C. clean, separate, cook, and chill. Research indicates that Americans are aware of the importance of food safety, but they still need more information. As a result, USDA created the Be Food Safe campaign in collaboration with PFSE, FDA, and CDC.
Food poisoning-causing germs can live in a variety of environments and spread throughout your kitchen. Before, during, and after preparing meals, wash your hands for at least 20 seconds with soap and warm or cold water. After handling raw meat, poultry, fish, flour, or eggs, make sure to always wash your hands. After preparing each food item, wash your utensils, cutting boards, and counters with hot, soapy water. Fresh produce should be rinsed under running water. When a food's internal temperature reaches a level that kills contagious bacteria, it has successfully been cooked. Utilizing a food thermometer is the only way to determine whether food is properly cooked.
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Please choose the feature of Pseudomonas that makes it a difficult organism to control in a hospital environment.- An endotoxin- A capsule- The ability to utilize all sorts of nutrients- An anaerobic bacterium- Antibiotic resistance
The feature of Pseudomonas that makes it a difficult organism to control in a hospital environment is Antibiotic resistance.
Antibiotics are frequently used to treat infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections are regrettably getting harder to treat in patients exposed to healthcare environments like hospitals or nursing homes due to rising antibiotic resistance.
A mobile genetic element that produces the carbapenemase enzyme is present in two to three percent of carbapenem-resistant P. aeruginosa. The antibiotics carbapenem are rendered useless by this enzyme. Because bacteria can easily exchange mobile genetic elements, resistance to these crucial medications spreads quickly.
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If you help me I will give brainliest
Answer:
I can't see the picture please repost the picture
cam plants keep stomates closed in the daytime, thus reducing loss of water, they can do this because they
Crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM) plants keep stomata closed in the daytime to minimize photorespiration during photosynthesis.
Some plants are able to adapt in dry environment, such as cacti and pineapples. These plants use Crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM) to minimize photorespiration. This process is different with C3 and C4 plant.
Photorespiration is a pathway that competes with the Calvin cycle. It occurs as the rubisco acts on oxygen rather than carbon dioxide. Photorespiration causes sugar synthesis is decrease.
To prevent photorespiration, CAM plants open their stomata at night, allowing carbon dioxide to diffuse into the leaves. This carbon dioxide then converted to organic acid (malate). This organic acid will be stored until the next day. In daylight, CAM plants don’t open their stomata because the organic acid are go out of the vacuole and broken down for releasing carbon dioxide and enter Calvin cycle. It maintains a high concentration of carbon dioxide.
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All of the following are true about viruses, except
Select one:
a. viruses are cellular and can reproduce on their own.
b. viruses have genetic material, either DNA or RNA
c. viruses can evolve.
d. viruses cannot metabolize carbohydrates.
e. viruses are very small, requiring an electron microscope to see individual particles.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Viruses are cellular and can reproduce on their own.
What are Viruses?A piece of nucleic acid that has been protein-coated is what makes a virus an infectious microbe (either DNA or RNA). A virus has to infect cells in order to use the components of the host cell to manufacture copies of itself because it is unable to reproduce on its own.
The majority of the time, a virus damages the host organism by killing the host cell. Well-known examples of viruses that cause human disease include AIDS, COVID-19, measles, and smallpox.
People can contract viruses. But in reality, a vast range of creatures are infected by viruses. For instance, certain viruses can infect bacteria while others can infect fungi.
Therefore, Viruses are cellular and can reproduce on their own.
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use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the question. e1-4 refer to the exons, and i1-3 refer to the introns in the pre-mrna transcript. 5' utr e1 i1 e2 i2 e3 i3 e4 utr 3' suppose that exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters the 5' end of intron 1 (i1). which of the following results might occur? question 6 options: premature transcriptional termination loss of e1 loss of the gene product inclusion of i1 in the mrna
The exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters the 5' end of intron 1
5' UTR E1 E2 E3 E4 UTR 3'
inclusion of I1 in the mRNA
Asymmetric RNA Splicing The first genes with alternative RNA splicing were discovered in the 1970s.
When multiple combinations of exons are joined to make the mRNA, a procedure called alternative RNA splicing enables diverse protein products to be synthesized from a single gene. The frequency of various splicing alternatives is controlled by the cell as a way to regulate the production of different protein products in different cells or at different stages of development.
Alternative splicing can be haphazard, but more often it is controlled and acts as a mechanism of gene regulation. In eukaryotes, alternative splicing is widely recognized as a frequent process of gene control. One estimate place the proportion of human genes that are expressed as numerous proteins by alternative splicing at 70%.
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A botanist discovers a plant that lacks the ability to form starch grains in root cells, yet the roots still grow downward. This evidence would refute the long-standing hypothesis that ________.
A) falling amyloplasts trigger gravitropism
B) starch accumulation triggers the negative phototropic response of roots
C) starch grains block the acid-growth response in roots
D) starch is converted to auxin, which causes the downward bending in roots
E) starch and downward movement are necessary for thigmotropism
A botanist discovers a plant that lacks the ability to form starch grains in root cells, yet the roots still grow downward. This evidence would refute the long-standing hypothesis that falling amyloplasts trigger gravitropism.
Whats is the meaning of hypothesis?
A hypothesis is an explanation provided for a phenomena. The scientific method demands that a hypothesis be testable in order for it to be considered a scientific hypothesis. Scientists often establish scientific hypotheses on past data that cannot be adequately explained by existing scientific ideas.
What does a hypothesis look like?
Here are a few examples of simple hypotheses: "Those who eat breakfast outperform students who do not eat breakfast on a math exam." "Students who experience test anxiety before an English exam would score worse than students who do not experience test anxiety," according to the complex hypothesis.
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refer to the figure above. what is the function of the agu on the loop of the trna?
The function of the AGU on the loop of the tRNA is that it is an anticodon that attaches to the amino acid and also stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.
What are tRNA molecules?tRNA molecules are one of the three types of RNA found in living organisms that function in protein synthesis.
The other two types of RNA molecules that play a role in protein synthesis are messenger RNA or mRNA, ad ribosomal RNA, or rRNA.
The information used for protein synthesis is in the form of triplet nucleotides called codons. These codons are located on the mRNA. The mRNA is made from the DNA and then travels to the ribosome which is the site of protein synthesis.
The codons found in the mRNA are read by the translation machinery of the ribosome. A complementary triplet nucleotide found on tRNA molecules known as anticodons then determines the amino acid that is coded for by the particular codon.
Each tRNA molecule carries an amino acid and an anticodon that is complementary to an mRNA codon.
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if there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in eachdaughter cell following cytokinesis?
if there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, 10 chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis.
Before separation sister chromatids stay connected at centromeres. Each chromatid is a daughter chromosome after separation. the cell continues to divide into two daughter cells by Cytokinesis. There are 20 chromosomes in the dividing cell if there are 20 centromeres observed during anaphase. Thus, 10 chromatids will be distributed to each pole of the dividing cell: Now, each chromatid will become a daughter cell chromosome. the following cytokinesis will have 10 chromosomes, each comprised of a single chromatid.
Thus, the response is "10 chromosomes."
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Which of the following statements regarding enzyme function is false?
a. Enzymes do not show specificity for the substrates they bind.
b. Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze. c. An enzyme binds to its substrate at the enzyme's active site. d. Enzymes are proteins. e. An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.
The statement that is false regarding enzyme function is enzymes do not show specificity for the substrates they bind. The correct option is a.
What are enzymes?The difference in energy levels between substrates and products of the reactions determines whether the reactions are spontaneous or non-spontaneous in nature.
Because enzymes do not alter the energy levels of substrates and products, they cannot transform a non-spontaneous process into a spontaneous one. Enzymes only reduce the activation energy of a process, causing the non-spontaneous reaction to proceed at a faster pace.
Therefore, the correct option is a, Enzymes do not show specificity for the substrates they bind.
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despite the era having a tendency to create new sounds by using dissonance and complex rhythms, the composers of the modernist era revived this compositional form from the baroque period.
Despite the era having a tendency to create new sounds by using dissonance and complex rhythms, the composers of the modernist era revived this compositional form from the baroque period as counterpoint.
About Baroque periodThe Baroque era is etymologically derived from the word Baroco which means exaggeration.
The atmosphere of life at that time was indeed exaggerated. Buildings at that time used magnificent architecture and were painted and wore luxurious dress styles.
During the Baroque era, the system of major and minor scales was also introduced.
The forms of musical presentation that grew at that time were instrumental songs with opera-like stories (suita), instrumental plays (sonatas), grand musical dishes (cantatas), and symphony orchestra music presentations interspersed with solo games (concerto).
The major compositions at this time, namely Johann Sebastian Bach (1685-1750) and George Friederic Handel (1685-1759).
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Label the parts of the hair and hair follicle. 4 Piloerector muscle Hair buib Hair medula Hair matrix Hair shat Hair shaft Hair root Hair root Hair medula Hair bulb Blood capilaries in dermal papla Prev Naxt e MacBook Pro commandoption ommand
The various parts of the hair such as the hair follicle, piloerector muscle, hair bulb, hair medulla, hair matrix, etc, are labeled in the attachment.
What is the structure of the hair?The hair is a structure that is found on the skin of mammals that is composed of proteins that have been keratinized.
The hair is a derivative of the epidermis and consists of two parts:
the hair follicle - the hair follicle is the part of the hair responsible for the production of new hairthe hair shaft - the hair shaft consists of a cortex and cuticle cells. In some types of hairs, the hair shaft has a medulla.The function of the hair includes the following:
protection - the hair serves to protect the body from mecahnical injuryregulation of body temperature - the hair helps to regulate body temperature in cold or hot conditions such as in the facilitation of perspiration to cool the bodysense organ - hairs also act as sense organs.Learn more about hair follicles at: https://brainly.com/question/24711898
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Which of the following statements about hormones is true?
Hormones are targeted to specific organs within the body.
The effects of hormones are long lasting.
It takes time to deliver hormones to the cells.
Hormones are carried by the bloodstream.
All of the answer choices are true of hormones.
The comments made concerning hormones are accurate because they are transported by the bloodstream.
The ideal answer is C.
Which of the following is true regarding hormones?The actual statement regarding hormones is: b. Receptors on target cells interact with hormones. Endocrine glands produce and release hormones into the bloodstream, where they find their way to the cells they are intended to affect.
Are there any organs in the body where hormones are specifically directed?When released into the bloodstream, hormones work as chemical messengers that affect an organ in a different section of the body. Despite the fact that hormones affect every area of the body, only target cells with the right receptors may react.
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examine a culture of rotifers, drawing what you see. label the corona, and describe its movement. add a tiny amount of the red-celled alga rhodomonas. can you observe the capture of cells by the corona?
Rotifers are tiny aquatic creatures with a crown-like structure known as a corona. They possess a variety of reproductive strategies, including both sexual and asexual reproduction.
What is Corona?
The corona is made up of small, hair-like structures that spin around the rotifer's body, creating a current that captures food particles and transports them to the organism's mouth. When a trace amount of the red-celled alga Rhodomonas is added to the culture, the corona can be seen engulfing the alga cells as they approach the rotifer's mouth.
What is the red-celled alga Rhodomonas?
Rhodomonas is a species of cryptomonads. It is distinguished by its red colour, the square-shaped plates of its inner periplast, a short furrow ending in a gullet, and a distinctively shaped chloroplast closely associated with its nucleomorph.
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most animals have a ________.
most animals have a invertebrates.
What traits do animals share?The vast majority of animals have specialized tissues, and all animals were eukaryotic, multicellular organisms.The majority of animals are mobile, at least at some points in their lives.Animals need nourishment in order to thrive and grow.All creatures consume both living and dead organic stuff because they are heterotrophic.
What is present in all animals?Animals are eukaryotic multicellular organisms without cell walls.Animals are heterotrophs in general.Animals can move, have internal digestion, and have sense organs.They can reproduce sexually as well.
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art-labeling activity: structure of long bones
Long bones have a diaphysis, the middle part of the bone, which connects its two ends, known as the epiphyses. The medullary cavity is lined by the diaphysis, which is formed by compact bone. The epiphysis is composed mainly of spongy bone and is covered by a thin layer of compact bone.
How is a bone structured?The bone structure is made up of several types of connective tissue (dense, bone, adipose, cartilaginous and blood), in addition to nervous tissue. It is the outermost, being a thin, fibrous membrane (dense connective tissue) that surrounds the bone, except at the articulating regions (epiphyses).
What is the difference between long and flat short bones?Short bones are nearly equal in length, width, and thickness. Examples: the patella, formerly known as the "kneecap" (knee bone), the carpal bones (some of the bones in the hand) and the tarsus (some of the bones in the foot). Flat bones are relatively thin and flattened.
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Which region shows the population of cells with the highest amount of dna per cell?.
Compare the peaks in regions A, B, and C of the histogram for the control sample. Region C displays the cell population with the most DNA per cell.
The correct response is G1 for region A, S for region B, and G2 for region C. In addition to biology, region c displays the cell population with the most DNA per cell. As the S phase develops, the amount of DNA in each cell varies, giving the S phase cells a range of fluorescence intensities. Most cells are present during the G1 phase of the cell cycle.
Comparing the peaks in the control sample's histogram's regions A, B, and C, we can conclude that region C represents the cell population with the highest DNA content per cell.
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Your question is incomplete. Please find the complete question below.
In the control sample, compare the peaks in the histogram in regions A, B, and C.
Which region shows the population of cells with the highest amount of DNA per cell?
Region C
FILL THE BLANK. 13. If we mentally align the continents to fit Wegener's concept of Pangaea, evidence of Late Paleozoic glacial deposits ________.
If we mentally align the continents to fit Wegener's concept of Pangaea, evidence of Late Paleozoic glacial deposits is much easier to understand than in the current continental configuration.
Explain continental drift theory.
One of the earliest theories among geologists regarding how continents moved over time is known as continental drift. The revolutionary theory of continental drift was supported by fossils of similar organisms found on widely separated continents.
Most people think of the scientist Alfred Wegener when they think of the continental drift theory. Wegener presented his theory that the continents were "drifting" across the planet, occasionally crashing through oceans and into one another, in a study that was published in the early 20th century. This movement was dubbed "continental drift" by him.
Wegener was of the opinion that Pangaea, a vast, unified landmass, formerly included all of the continents of Earth. When describing Pangaea and continental drift, Wegener—an astronomer by training—used geology, biology, and botany. For instance, the extinct reptile Mesosaurus fossils are only discovered in southern Africa and South America. The Atlantic Ocean was too large for the freshwater reptile Mesosaurus, which measured barely one meter long. Mesosaurus's existence suggests a single environment with numerous lakes and rivers.
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if a firm under monopolistic competition is producing a quantity that generates mc < mr, then the marginal decision rule tells us that profit:
The marginal decision rule tells us that profit can be increased by decreasing production.
According to the marginal decision rule, profit can be increased by reducing production if a company engaged in monopolistic competition produces a quantity that generates MC > MR.
If MC > MR, it indicates that more money was spent on making the previous item that was made after selling it. Because the company won't produce any units for which MC > MR, costs will be cut more than revenue will be, increasing profits.
A firm will wish to select an output where MR = MC regardless of the type of industry it operates. But in the monopolistic competitive industry, this decision will lead to less output, which will drive up the market price.
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What is the name of the proteins around which the dna of eukaryotes are wrapped?.
Answer: Nucleosome
Explanation:
Which energy association is correct? Kinetic energy is energy of motion. Potential energy must be used immediately or it is lost. Energy in the chemical bonds of a molecule is kinetic energy. Water stored behind a dam is an example of kinetic energy.
The kinetic energy is the energy which is associated with a body or object which is in motion. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Kinetic energy?Kinetic energy is the energy of motion which is observable as the movement of an object, body, or a set of particles. Any object in motion uses kinetic energy for example, a person who is walking, a thrown baseball, a crumb falling from a table, and a charged particle in an electric field such as electron or proton are all examples of kinetic energy at work.
The primary relationship between the potential energy and kinetic energy is their ability to transform into each other. The potential energy transforms into kinetic energy, and the kinetic energy converts into potential energy as ab object changes its state of motion.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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select all the combined effects of parathyroid hormone and calcitriol. check all that apply bone resorption by osteoclastsbone resorption by osteoclasts activation of osteoclastsactivation of osteoclasts increase excretion of calcium by the kidneysincrease excretion of calcium by the kidneys increase absorption of calcium by the small intestineincrease absorption of calcium by the small intestine
While calcitriol and P-T-H have the same general effect of raising calcium and phosphate levels in the blood, calcitonin has the opposite effect. It causes the blood's levels of calcium and phosphate to drop.
The thyroid is a tiny, 5 centimeter-diameter gland that is found in the neck, just beneath the skin and below the Adam's apple. Thyroid hormones, which are secreted by the thyroid, regulate the body's calcium, or the rate at which chemical reactions take place. Due to their proximity to the thyroid, the phosphate levels have earned the name. Normally, there are four pea-sized parathyroid glands, one in each thyroid corner, however the precise position of these glands as well as their overall number can vary greatly.
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ovulation is considered to be ________ .
Answer: menstruation
Explanation: Ovulation refers to the release of an egg during menstruation in females. Part of the ovary called the ovarian follicle discharges an egg. The egg is also known as an ovum, oocyte, or female gamete. It is only released on reaching maturity.
Archaebacteria look much alike organisms from what other kingdom due to their similar shapes?.
Due to their similar shapes, Archaebacteria look alike organisms from the Eubacteria.
There are two kingdoms of bacteria: Archaebacteria and Eubacteria. Both are prokaryotes organism and they have similar shapes, but they are different in some areas, such as:
Archaebacteria live in harsh environments, such as hot springs, deep seas, and salt brines. Eubacteria pretty much live in the same environment as humans.Archaebacteria have smaller genome sequences than Eubacteria.Archaebacteria don't exhibit glycolysis nor Kreb's cycle, while Eubacteria exhibit both.The first image attached below is an image of Halobacterium, a species of Archaebacteria. The second image is an image of E. coli, a species of Eubacteria. You can see how both look somehow similar to each other.
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Match the region of the uterus with its description 1 Narrow Inferior portion 2 Broad, curved superior region 3 Major part of the uterus Match each of the options above to the items below. Fundus Body Cervix
The correct description of the uterus from the problem given above is matched below:
1. Narrow Inferior portion: cervix
2. Broad, curved superior region: fundus
3. Major part of the uterus: body.
What is meant by the description of the uterus?The description of the uterus simply refers to the physical presentation, anatomy and physiology of the uterus. The uterus is also known as the womb. It is part of female reproductive system. There are different parts of the uterus. The main function of the uterus simply is that it is that part of the female reproductive system in which the fertilized egg grows or develop in pregnancy.
From the context of the task given above, the narrow and the inferior portion of the womb is known as the cervix. Also, that broad, curved superior region is called the fundus and finally the major part of the uterus is called body.
In conclusion, it can be deduced from above that the uterus is the place where the development of embryo takes place.
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name one superficial cord reflex
When the inner thigh is stroked, a superficial cord reflex known as the cremasteric reflex occurs in male humans. Stroking of the skin causes the cremaster muscle to contract and draw up the ipsilateral testicle toward the inguinal canal.
What constitutes a superficial response, specifically?The underlying abdominal wall muscle contracts when the skin of the abdomen is stroked, sometimes pushing the umbilicus in the direction of the stimulus.
What reflexes do we have on the surface?Instead of muscles, sensory afferents from the skin trigger the superficial reflexes. Deep reflexes are muscle stretch reflexes that are typically monosynaptic lower motor neuron (LMN) pathways. With an LMN lesion, these reflexes are reduced; with an upper motor neuron lesion, they are increased.
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35) Which of the following processes correctly describes alternative RNA splicing?
A) It increases the rate of transcription.
3) It can allow the production of proteins of different sizes and functions from a single mRNA.
C) It is a mechanism for increasing the rate of translation.
D) It can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Alternative RNA splicing can allow the production of proteins of different sizes and functions from a single mRNA.
A process known as alternative RNA splicing allows multiple exons (coding regions) to be joined in combinations inside the pre-mRNA molecule. This process enables the generation of different mRNA isoforms from a single gene, which may subsequently result in different protein isoforms.
Using alternative splicing, it is possible to produce mRNA molecules that code for proteins of various shapes and sizes by intentionally inserting or omitting particular exons. Without the need for large numbers of genes, this mechanism significantly increases the complexity and diversity of proteins in organisms.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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