Answer:
a. 42.0% for 2017 and 32.0% for 2016
Explanation:
Common size % for cost of goods sold = Cost of goods sold/Net sales
For 2017
= $219,400 / $522,200
= 0.4201456
= 42%
For 2016
= $135,440 / $423,400
= 0.31988663
= 31.99%
Risk is a necessary ‘evil’ evil’, support this assessment and give advice risk
managers on how to resolve the effects.
For a high-risk investment, managers require a high reward.
explain how the looting of shops and malls will affect businesses in terms of the relationship between social responsibility and triple bottom line
When people loot shops it shows that they are irresponsible and it goes on to destroy the image of the society they live, destroys a business by taking away their means of making profit.
Social responsibility can be described as the civic and ethical duties that citizens of a country owe to the nation they live.
The three bottom principle has the profit, people and the planet. The looting of shops draws a line between consumers relationships and their social responsibility.
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A firm with earnings before interest and taxes of $500,000 needs $1 million of additional funds. If it issues debt, the bonds will mature after 20 years and pay interest of 8 percent. The firm could issue preferred stock with a dividend rate of 8 percent. The firm has 100,000 shares of common stock outstanding and is in the 30 percent income tax bracket. What are the (1) earnings per common share under the two alternatives, (2) the times-interest-earned if the firm uses debt financing, and (3) the times-dividend-earned if the firm uses preferred stock financing
Answer:
Calculation of Earning Per Share
Particulars Debt Alternative($) Preferred Stock($)
Amount Required 1,000,000 1,000,000
Earning before Interest and Tax 500,000 500,000
Less: Interest Cost(8%) 80,000 ----
Earning After Interest 420,000 500,000
Tax(30%) 126,000 150,000
Earning After Tax 294,000 350,000
Less: Dividend to Pref. Shares 80,000
Earning Avai. for C. Stockholders 294,000 270,000
Outstanding shares 100,000 100,000
Earning Per Common Share 2.94 2.70
2. Times Interest Earned Ratio = EBIT / Interest
Times Interest Earned Ratio = 500,000 / 80,000
Times Interest Earned Ratio = 6.25 Times
3. Times Dividend Earned Ratio = Net Income / Preferred Dividend
Times Dividend Earned Ratio = 350,000 / 80,000
Times Dividend Earned Ratio = 4.375 Times
At the end of 2010 Jarrett Corp. developed the following forecasts of net income:
Year Forecasted Net Income
2011 $20,856
2012 $22,733
2013 $24,552
2014 $27,252
2015 $29,978
Management believes that after 2015 Jarrett will grow at a rate of 7% each year. Total common shareholders' equity was $112,768 on December 31, 2010. Jarrett has not established a dividend and does not plan to paying dividends during 2011 to 2015. Its cost of equity capital is 12%.
Required:
Compute the value of Jarrett Corp. on January 1, 2011, using the residual income valuation model.
Answer:
$83,057.11
Explanation:
The value of the company is the present value of its residual income where the residual income is the net income in each year minus the implicit cost of capital
residual income=net income-(cost of equity capital*beginning shareholders' equity)
2011:
residual income=$20,856-( $112,768*12%)
residual income=$7323.84
stockholders' equity at the end of 2011=$112,768+$20,856=$133,624
2012
residual income=$22733-( $133624 *12%)
residual income=$6,698.12
stockholders' equity at the end of 2012=$133,624+$22733=$156,357
2013:
residual income=$24552-(12%*$156357)
residual income=$5,789.16
stockholders' equity at the end of 2013=$156,357+$24552=$180,909
2014;
residual income= $27252-(12%*$180909)
residual income=$5,542.92
stockholders' equity at the end of 2014=$180,909+$27252=$208,161
2015:
residual income=$29,978-(12%*$208161)
residual income=$4,998.68
Terminal value of residual income=2015 residual income*(1+terminal growth rate)/(cost of equity-terminal growth rate)
Terminal value of residual income=$4,998.68*(1+7%)/(12%-7%)=$106,971.75
value of the company=$7323.84/(1+12%)^1+$6,698.12/(1+12%)^2+$5,789.16 /(1+12%)^3+$5,542.92/(1+12%)^4+$4,998.68/(1+12%)^5+$106,971.75/(1+12%)^5
value of the company=$83,057.11
_____ stock is the number of shares that a corporation's charter allows it to sell. The number of these shares usually exceeds the number of shares issued (and outstanding), often by a large amount.
An authorized stock is the number of shares that a corporation's charter allows to sell.
Authorized stock is the legal number or limit of shares that a company allows or authorizes to be sold or put in the market. This factor of policy is applicable as per the charter that the corporation allows or is legally viable to provide.
In the issue of sharing shares of a company, an organization can allow only a certain limit of shares that can be sold. This limit is the number of shares that a corporation can issue to its shareholders or investors.This stock is different from issued stock which refers to the actual number of stocks that the company has sold.Rather, authorized stock is the amount of shares that can be sold by the company and being provided in the market to be bought by shareholders or investors.Thus, we can conclude that whatever limit a corporation allows or provides to be sold is the authorized stock. And it is only this number of shares that can be issued or given to a shareholder to buy.
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Ajax, Inc., issued callable bonds with a par value of $1,000,000 that require the payment of a call premium of $10,000. The bonds have a carrying value of $990,000. We call these bonds prior to maturity on September 30.
Required:
Write down journal entry.
Answer: please see explanation column for answers.
Explanation:
The journal entry is as follows:
To record the bonds payable and retirement
Date Account titles and explanation Debit Credit
Sept 30, Bonds payable $1,000,000
Loss on bonds retirement $20,000
To Discount on bond $10,000
To cash $1,010,000
Calculation:
Loss on bonds retirement:Total Cash disbursements - carrying value
= (par value of the bonds+ call premium) -carrying value
= ($1,000,000 + $10,000) - $990,000
= $1,010,000 - $990,000
= $20,000
The following information relates to last year's operations at the Legumes Division of Gervani Corporation: Minimum required rate of return 12% Return on investment (ROI) 15% Sales $ 900,000 Turnover (on operating assets) 3 times What was the Legume Division's net operating income last year
Answer: $45000
Explanation:
Firstly, the operating asset will be calculated which will be:
Operating asset = Sales / Turnover
= 900,000/3
Operating assets = $300,000
Then, the net operating income will be: Return on investment × Operating assets
Net operating income = 300,000 × 15%
= 300,000*0.15
= $45,000
Therefore, Legume Division's net operating income last year is $45000
pls help me with in this i just want the 3 and 4th one...
Answer:
3. The special concept reminded by the phrase "Exchanging Butter Cake for Dates" is:
Trade by barter.
4. The need fulfilled by this business is people's demand for Cake.
The want fulfilled by this business is the organization's supply of dates for its production of cake.
Explanation:
A trade by barter involves the exchange of one good or service by one trading party for another good or service from the coincidental trading party without the use of money or monetary mediums. Trade by barter enables people without money to fulfill their needs. The major problem with trade by barter is that there must be coincidence of wants by the two trading partners. This is not always feasible.
Budgeted overhead for Cinnabar Industries at normal capacity of 30,000 direct labor hours is $6 per hour variable and $4 per hour fixed. In May, $310,000 of overhead was incurred in working 31,500 hours when 32,000 standard hours were allowed. The overhead volume variance is Group of answer choices $10,000 favorable. $11,000 favorable. $5,000 favorable. $8,000 favorable.
Answer:
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= $5,000 favorable
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Estimated overhead allocation rate= 4 + 6= $10 per direct labor hour
Actual number of hours= 31,500
Standard hours were allowed= 32,000
To calculate the overhead volume variance, we need to use the following formula:
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= (Estimated manufacturing overhead rate*standard allocation base) - (Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base)
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= (10*32,000) - (10*31,500)
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= $5,000 favorable
explain business with two Examples
Explanation:
A business is defined as an organization or enterprising entity engaged in commercial, industrial, or professional activities. ... The term "business" also refers to the organized efforts and activities of individuals to produce and sell goods and services for profit.
Example Coca-Cola, Amazon etc.
Answer:
A business is defined as an organization or enterprising entity engaged in commercial, industrial, or professional activities. ... There are various forms of a business, such as a limited liability company (LLC), a sole proprietorship, a corporation, and a partnership
On December 18, Intel receives $249,000 from a customer toward a cash sale of $2.49 million for computer chips to be completed on January 23. The computer chips had a total production cost of $1.49 million. What journal entries should Intel record on December 18 and January 23
Answer:
December 18
Debit cash $249,000
Credit deferred revenue $249,000
January 23rd
Debit Cash $2,241,000
Debit deferred revenue $249,000
Credit sales revenue $2,490,000
January 23rd
Debit Cost of goods sold $1.49 million
Credit Inventory $1.49 million
Explanation:
Preparation of the journal entries that Intel should record on December 18 and January 23
December 18
Debit cash $249,000
Credit deferred revenue $249,000
January 23rd
Debit Cash $2,241,000
($2.49 million-$249,000)
Debit deferred revenue $249,000
Credit sales revenue $2,490,000
($2,241,000+$249,000)
January 23rd
Debit Cost of goods sold $1.49 million
Credit Inventory $1.49 million
o What’s the Difference Between Non-Formal and Informal Learning
Answer:
I hope this will help you
QS 8-4 Units-of-production depreciation LO P1 On January 1, the Matthews Band pays $65,800 for sound equipment. The band estimates it will use this equipment for four years and perform 200 concerts. It estimates that after four years it can sell the equipment for $2,000. During the first year, the band performs 45 concerts. Compute the first-year depreciation using the units-of-production method.
Answer:
$14,355
Explanation:
Activity method based on output = (output produced that year / total output of the machine) x (Cost of asset - Salvage value)
(45/200) x ($65,800 - $2000) =
0.225 x 63800
$14355
The rate at which revenue was generated (in millions of dollars per year) for a certain company for the years 2010 through 2016 can be approximated by f(t)=348e0.22t (10≤t≤16), where t=10 corresponds to the start of the year 2010. Find and interpret ∫1016f(t)dt.
The revenue of a company represents the income generated by the company within a time frame. The total revenue generated by the company from the start of 2010 to the start of 2016 is $39.16 billion
Given that:
[tex]f(t) = 348e^{0.22t}[/tex] [tex]10 \le t \le 16[/tex]
First, we calculate the integral
[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt[/tex]
This is calculated as:
[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = \int\limits^{16}_{10} {348e^{0.22t}} \, dt[/tex]
Remove the constant
[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = 348\int\limits^{16}_{10} {e^{0.22t}} \, dt[/tex]
Now, integrate
[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = 348 \times \frac{1}{0.22} (e^{0.22t})|\limits^{16}_{10}[/tex]
[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = \frac{ 348}{0.22} (e^{0.22t})|\limits^{16}_{10}[/tex]
Expand
[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = \frac{ 348}{0.22} (e^{0.22\times 16} -e^{0.22\times 10} )[/tex]
[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = \frac{ 348}{0.22} (e^{3.52} -e^{2.2} )[/tex]
[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = \frac{ 348}{0.22} \times 24.759[/tex]
[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = 39164.2[/tex]
From the question
[tex]t = 10[/tex] represents the start of 2010.
This means that
[tex]t = 16[/tex] represents the start of 2016.
So, the interpretation is:
The total revenue from the start of 2010 to the start of 2016 is $39.16 billion
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CompuGlobal is an American firm producing computers. CompuGlobal imports computer components from Taiwan and assembles them domestically. Suppose that in the United States, a computer sells for $800 and that 60% of the computer’s value comes from the value of the imported components. The United States imposes a 50% tariff on computers and a 10% tariff on the computer’s components. Assume that costs of producing components are the same in the United States and Taiwan and that transit costs are nonexistent. Based on the information provided, the effective rate of protection that CompuGlobal receives from the tariff is
Answer: 110%
Explanation:
The effective rate of protection is used in measuring the final tariff in a particular sector and it's expressed as:
g = (t -ai,ti) / (1 - ai)
where,
g = effective protection rate
ai = nominal tariff rate = 0.6
t = cost of intermediate input = 0.5
ti = nominal tariff on intermediate input = 0.1
The computer price here is $800 while the input price is 60% of $800 which will be:
= 60% × $800 = $480
nominal tariff rate = 480/800 = 0.6
Nominal tariff on final goods, t = 50% = 0.5
Tariff on imported input, ti = 10% = 0.1
Using the formula:
g = (t -ai,ti) / (1 - ai)
g = [0.5 - (0.6×0.1)] / (1 - 0.6)
g = (0.5 - 0.06) / 0.4
g = 0.44/.0.4
g = 1.10
g = 110%
The effective rate of protection is 110%
The seven main functions of marketing summarize what it takes to _____.
Explanation:
The seven functions of marketing are distribution, market research, setting prices, finance, product management, promotional channels and matching products to consumers
I guess this may help
Answer:
All of the above
Explanation:
just took it
A project has an expected risky cash flow of $500 in year 3. The risk-free rate is 4%, the expected market rate of return is 14%, and the project's beta is 1.20. Calculate the certainty equivalent cash flow for year 3, CEQ3. (Assume CAPM holds.)
The certainty equivalent cash flow for year 3, CEQ3 is $360.33
The computation of the certainty equivalent cash flow for year 3 is as follows:
But before that, the cost of equity should be determined via using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM).
Cost of equity = Risk-free rate + beta × (expected market rate of return - risk-free rate)
= 4% + 1.20 × (14% - 4%)
= 16%
Now the certainty equivalent cash flow for year 3 is
= $500 ÷ (1+ 0.16)^3
= $360.33
Therefore we can conclude that the certainty equivalent cash flow for year 3, CEQ3 is $360.33
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Assume that a firm had shareholders' equity on the balance sheet at a book value of $1,500 at the end of 2010.During 2011 the firm earns net income of $1,900,pays dividends to shareholders of $200,and issues new stock to raise $500 of capital.The book value of shareholders equity at the end of 2011 is:_______.
A) $2,750
B) $250
C) $1,450
D) $3,700
Answer:
The book value of shareholders equity at the end of 2011 is:_______.
D) $3,700.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Beginning shareholders equity book value = $1,500
Net income during 2011 = 1,900
Dividends paid to shareholders (200)
Issuance of new stock 500
Ending shareholders equity book value = $3,700
b) The book value of equity at the end of 2011 is equal to the book value at the beginning of 2011 plus net income generated during 2011, issuance of new stock, minus dividends paid to shareholders.
Tangerine, Inc. provides the following data: Surround, Inc. Comparative Balance Sheet Dec. 31, 20X9 Assets Current Assets: Cash and Cash Equivalents $29,000 Account Receivable, Net 31,000 Merchandise Inventory 53,000 Total Current Assets $113,000 Property, Plant, and Equipment, Net 120,000 Total Assets $233,000 Liabilities Current Liabilities: Accounts Payable $4000 Notes Payable 3000 Total Current Liabilities $7000 Long-term Liabilities 84,000 Total Liabilities $91,000 Stockholders' Equity Common Stock $30,000 Retained Earnings 112,000 Total Stockholders' Equity $142,000 Total Liabilities and Stockholders' Equity $233,000 Calculate the debt to equity ratio.
Answer:
The debt to equity ratio is 0.64.
Explanation:
The debt to equity ratio can be calculated using the following formula:
Debt to equity ratio = Total Liabilities / Stockholders' Equity ……………………. (1)
Where:
Total Liabilities = $91,000
Stockholders' Equity = $142,000
Substitute the relevant data into equation (1), we have:
Debt to equity ratio = $91,000 / $142,000 = 0.64
Therefore, the debt to equity ratio is 0.64.
Wang Co. manufactures and sells a single product that sells for $540 per unit; variable costs are $324 per unit. Annual fixed costs are $836,000. Current sales volume is $4,290,000. Management targets an annual pre-tax income of $1,215,000. Compute the unit sales to earn the target pre-tax net income.
Answer: 9,495 units
Explanation:
First find the contribution margin:
= Sales price - Variable cost
= 540 - 324
= $216 per unit
The unit sales required can be calculated by the formula:
= (Annual pre-tax income target + Fixed cost) / Contribution margin
= (1,215,000 + 836,000) / 216
= 9,495.37 units
= 9,495 units
Match each example to the appropriate term.
a. Trees used to make paper
1. Human capital
2. Technological knowledge
3. Physical capital
b. A printing press used to make books.
1. Human capital
2. Technological knowledge
3. Physical capital
c. A method of organizing workers to increase production per hour.
1. Human capital
2. Technological knowledge
3. Physical capital
d. The skills workers learn during a training session.
1. Human capital
2. Technological knowledge
3. Physical capital
Answer:
a equals 3
b equals 3
c equals 1
d equals 2
Kluber, Inc. had net income of $911,000 based on variable costing. Beginning and ending inventories were 56,100 units and 54,200 units, respectively. Assume the fixed overhead per unit was $1.80 for both the beginning and ending inventory. What is net income under absorption costing?
a. $811,730
b. $904,160
c. $1,010,270
d. $907,580
e. $911,000
Answer:
Net operating income (absorption)= $907,580
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Fixed overhead per unit= $1.80
Net income= $911,000 (variable costing)
Beginning inventory= 56,100 units
Ending inventory= 54,200 units
Under absorption costing, fixed manufacturing overhead is a product cost. We need to incorporate into the cost of goods sold the fixed overhead from beginning inventory and deduct the fixed overhead allocated into ending inventory.
Net operating income= 911,000
Less:
Fixed overhead beginning inventory= (1.8*56,100)
Add:
Fixed overhead ending inventory= (1.8*54,200)
Net operating income (absorption)= $907,580
Nichols Company uses the percentage of receivables method for recording bad debts expense. The month-end accounts receivable balance is $250,000 and credit sales during the month were $1,000,000. Management estimates that 4% of accounts receivable will be uncollectible. The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $2,500 before adjustment. The adjusting entry that Nichols must make includes: a. a credit to the allowance for $7,500. b. a credit to the allowance for $30,000. c. a debit to bad debt expense for $10,000. d. a debit to bad debt expense for $40,000.
Answer: a. a credit to the allowance for $7,500
Explanation:
Estimated Bad Debt = Balance on Account receivable x bad Debt loss rate = $250,000 x 4% = $10,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts with a credit balance of $2,500
Allowance for Bad debts expense =Estimated Bad Debt - Credit balance Allowance for doubtful accounts = $10,000 - $2,500 = $7,500
Account titles and explanation Debit Credit
Bad Debt Expense $7,500
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $7,500
On the Tokyo Stock Exchange, Honda Motor Company stock closed at ¥2,915 per share on Monday, June 6, 2016. Honda trades as an ADR on the NYSE. One underlying Honda share equals one ADR. On June 6, 2016, the ¥/$ exchange rate was ¥107.65/$1.00. (Round your answer to 2 decimal places.) At this exchange rate, what is the no-arbitrage U.S. dollar price of one ADR?
Answer:
$27.08
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the no-arbitrage U.S. dollar price of one ADR
Using this formula
No-arbitrage U.S. dollar price of one ADR=Stock closed per share /Exchange rate
Let plug in the formula
No-arbitrage U.S. dollar price of one ADR=¥2,915 / ¥107.65
No-arbitrage U.S. dollar price of one ADR=$27.078
No-arbitrage U.S. dollar price of one ADR=$27.08 (Approximately)
Therefore the no-arbitrage U.S. dollar price of one ADR is $27.08
Dobles Corporation has provided the following data from its activity-based costing system:
Activity Cost Pool Total Cost Total Activity
Assembly $228,060 18,000 mahcine hours
Processing orders $34,068 1200 orders
Inspection $125560 1720 inspection hours
The company makes 420 units of product D28K a year, requiring a total of 460 machine-hours, 80 orders, and 10 inspection-hours per year. The product's direct materials cost is $48.96 per unit and its direct labor cost is $25.36 per unit.
According to the activity-based costing system, the unit product cost of product D28K is closest to:
a. $95.34 per unit
b. $93.60 per unit
c. $74.32 per unit
d. $89.93 per unit
Answer:
Hence the correct option is option (a) i.e. $95.34 per unit.
Explanation:
Cost of 420 units of D28K product = 460 machine hour cost + 80 order cost + 10 inspection hour cost + 420 direct materials cost + 420 direct labor cost.
18000 machine hours = 228060
so 460 machine hours = 228060 x 460 /18000 = 5828.2
1200 orders = 34068
80 orders = 80 x 34068 / 1200 = 2271.2
1720 inspection hours = 125560
10 inspection hours = 10 x 125560/1720 = 730
So cost of 420 units of D28 products = 5828.2 + 2271.2 + 730 + 420 x 48.96 + 420 x 25.36
=40043.8
So cost of 1 D28K product = 40043.8 / 420 = 95.34
Under IFRS, when a lessee recognizes a balance sheet asset and liability for a new lease: the asset and liability are equal. the asset is typically greater than the liability. the liability is typically greater than the asset.
Answer:
the asset and liability are equal.
Explanation:
IFRS 16 lease and IAS 17 deals in important changes where the lease transactions are reported in the lessee financial statement
In this the assets and liabilities that are occured from the lease should be initially determined on the present value basis
Also the assets and liability are equivalent to each other
Therefore the first option is correct
Which of the following approaches for calculating the market value of a property involves estimating the dollar value associated with replacing the property new, as well as determining the loss in value due to physical, functional, and external obsolescence?
a. income approach
b. sales comparison approach
c. cost approach
d. Investment approach
Answer:
c. cost approach
Explanation:
The cost approach is a real estate valuation method in which the price estimated regarding the buyer that have to pay for the property and the same is equivalnet to the cost for creating a buidling.
Here the property value should be equivalent to the land cost also add the construction cost and minus the depreciation expense
So as per the given situation, it is the cost approach that determined the market value of the property
An individual taxpayer reports the following items for the current year: Ordinary income from Partnership A, operating a movie theater in which the taxpayer materially participates $70,000 Net loss from Partnership B, operating an equipment rental business in which the taxpayer does not materially participate (9,000) Rental income from building rented to a third party 7,000 Short-term capital gain from sale of stock 4,000 What is the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income for the year?
Answer:
$74,000
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income for the year
Taxpayer’s adjusted gross income=Net loss from Partnership B+Capital gain from sale of stock
Let plug in the formula
Taxpayer’s adjusted gross income=$70,000+ $4,000
Taxpayer’s adjusted gross income=$74,000
Therefore the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income for the year is $74,000
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Overhead can be applied slowly as a job is worked on.
b. Overhead can be applied when the job is completed.
c. Overhead should be applied to any job not completed at year-end in order to properly value the work in process inventory.
Answer:
the answer should be
a. Overhead can be applied slowly as a job is worked on.
Answer:
A: overhead can be applied slowly as a job is worked on.
Explanation:
Im pretty sure i already learned that! so trust it!
hope it helps!
if its wrong report my answer!
Waterway Industries was organized on January 1, 2021. During its first year, the corporation issued 2,400 shares of $50 par value preferred stock and 150,000 shares of $10 par value common stock. At December 31, the company declared the following cash dividends: 2021, $5,800; 2022, $13,100; and 2023, $28,800.
Required:
Show the allocation of dividends to each class of stock, assuming the preferred stock dividend is 5% and noncumulative.
Answer:
Preferred dividend is noncumulative which means that it will not accrue if company was unable to pay in any period.
Dividends in 2021
Preferred dividends:
= Number of preferred shares * par value * dividend percentage
= 2,400 * 50 * 5%
= $6,000
Dividends of $5,800 were declared which is not enough to cover even preferred shares so preferred shares will take all the dividends.
Preferred share dividends = $5,800
Common share dividends = $0
Dividends in 2022:
Preferred dividends = $6,000
Common dividends:
= Declared dividends - Preferred dividends
= 13,100 - 6,000
= $7,100
Dividends in 2023:
Preferred dividends = $6,000
Common dividends:
= Declared dividends - Preferred dividends
= 28,800 - 6,000
= $22,800
