What can one do when the Governor unlawfully declares a State of Emergence? Secondly, pick and describe a scenario in which the Governor can legally declare a State of Emergency.

Explain the requirements necessary for reasonable suspicion, probable cause, and beyond a reasonable doubt, and provide an example of when each is required.

What does it mean to sustain an objection? What does it mean to overrule an objection?

You are representing Kevin, a Firestone State Trooper, in a civil case. The plaintiff, Sarah, is alleging that your client falsely arrested her for an offense she did not commit. During discovery, Sarah presents only a picture of the arrest record from the database. Given that Sarah is not alleging that she was overtimed, what motion could you make during pre-trial and what grounds should you use for the motion. What standards would you have to meet for the motion to be accepted?

You are a Public Defender working for the Department of Justice. An Associate Attorney General, Who is your superior and helps manage the State Attorney's Office, contacts you and orders you to take more guilty pleas in case you have a good chance of winning acquittals so that they can raise the conviction rate. Is this ethical? What should you do in this situation?

What legal grounds exist for an appeal? What court handles appeals, and how do you file for an appeal to be heard by them?

Explain sentencing Limitations in the State of Firestone as set by both statutory and Constitutional law. What are some types of punishments that could be issued other than incarceration? Can these punishments be issued in conjunction with the max incarceration time?

Roger is forbidden by his mother to cross the street without an adult. One day, as Roger is walking down the sidewalk alone, a car swerves off the road and onto the sidewalk. In order to avoid being hit, Roger jumps into the street. Explain if Roger has broken his mother's rule by its content and by the intent of the rule?

Explain the difference between a lay witness and an expert witness. How should you introduce a witness as an expert?

Dani is being battered to the point of serious bodily injury by an unidentified subject; as a result of this, she draws a legally obtained weapon and open fires on them. Unbeknownst to Dani, she is walking slow and Deputy Xavier is in her line of fire (though she does not see them), and is shot by Dani. Deputy Xavier returns fire, killing Dani. Between Dani and Deputy Xavier, who is justified in their usage of deadly force? 1) Dani 2) Deputy Xavier 3) Both of them 4) Neither of them

Which of these is NOT a reason a judge should dismiss a juror? 1) Conflict of interest 2) Legal competence 3) Potential bias 4) Employment

Which of these questions would you be most likely to object to? 1) where did the crime occur? 2) was there physical contact between the suspect and the victim? 3) was it the defendant who shot the victim and disposed of the murder weapon 4) how many times did the suspect fire their weapon?

On what grounds would you object to your selected question in 14(a)?

What party can walve their presentation of evidence? 1) The plaintiff/prosecution 2) the defense 3) both the plaintiff/prosecution and the defense 4) neither the plaintiff/prosecution nor the defense

Answers

Answer 1

The first question is about unlawful declaration of State of Emergency; the rest are related to legal proceedings and ethics.

(1) What can one do when the Governor unlawfully declares a State of Emergence? Secondly, pick and describe a scenario in which the Governor can legally declare a State of Emergency.

If the Governor unlawfully declares a State of Emergency, individuals can challenge the declaration in court through a lawsuit. They can argue that the Governor exceeded his/her legal authority, and therefore the declaration should be deemed invalid.

(2) Explain the requirements necessary for reasonable suspicion, probable cause, and beyond a reasonable doubt, and provide an example of when each is required.

Reasonable suspicion is a standard required for police officers to conduct a brief, investigatory stop of an individual. It is based on specific, articulable facts that, taken together with rational inferences from those facts, provide reasonable suspicion that the person has committed or is about to commit a crime. An example of when reasonable suspicion is required is when a police officer observes an individual acting suspiciously in a high-crime area and stops them for questioning.

(3)What does it mean to sustain an objection? What does it mean to overrule an objection?

To sustain an objection means that the judge agrees with the objection raised by a party, and therefore the objection is accepted. The judge will usually instruct the jury to disregard the evidence or testimony that was the subject of the objection.

To overrule an objection means that the judge disagrees with the objection raised by a party, and therefore the objection is rejected. The evidence or testimony that was the subject of the objection is allowed to be presented to the jury.

(4) You are representing Kevin, a Firestone State Trooper, in a civil case. The plaintiff, Sarah, is alleging that your client falsely arrested her for an offense she did not commit. During discovery, Sarah presents only a picture of the arrest record from the database. Given that Sarah is not alleging that she was overtimed, what motion could you make during pre-trial and what grounds should you use for the motion? What standards would you have to meet for the motion to be accepted?

You could make a motion for summary judgment during pre-trial, arguing that there is no genuine dispute of material fact and that Kevin is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. The grounds for the motion would be that Sarah has presented no evidence beyond the arrest record to support her claim of false arrest.

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Related Questions

This purpose of joint operations is to defend national interests, not only in conflict but throughpreventative measures to deter potential adversaries who could threaten the vital interests of theU.S. or its partners.
Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges
Deter and defeat aggression
Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent

Answers

The purpose of joint operations is to defend national interests, not only in conflict but through preventative measures to deter and defeat aggression that could threaten the vital interests of the U.S. or its partners. Therefore, the correct answer is the second option.

Joint operations are military operations in which two or more armed services from a single country participate. The aim of joint operations is to accomplish a specific objective while using the strengths and advantages of each service in a synergistic way. Joint operations usually include the planning and execution of strategies and tactics, as well as the management of resources across military departments to achieve a common objective.

The primary goal of joint operations is to defend national interests, not only in conflict but also through preventative measures to deter potential adversaries who could threaten the vital interests of the U.S. or its partners.

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______: When people use illegitimate means to gain success, in particular professional and organized criminality, including drug trafficking.

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Innovation : When people use illegitimate means to gain success, in particular professional and organized criminality, including drug trafficking.

Those who pursue illegal activity while holding onto their dream of success, such as those who engage in illegal drug dealing to make money, are pursuing the "American Dream" in this way. Dr. Melton also made the argument that some people leave society and end up as drug addicts or drifters after realizing they cannot achieve the "American Dream," which can result in abnormal behavior.

Innovation: The acceptance of cultural goals by an individual or group but rejection of the accepted, established methods for achieving those goals. Families involved in organized crime are one example. They adhere to the "American Dream," but they go beyond the law to achieve their objectives.

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when filing an appeal, an appellant usually must show

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Their decision i think

the supreme court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in .

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The Supreme Court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in Dred Scott v. Sandford case.

The Dred Scott v. Sandford case was heard by the United States Supreme Court on March 6, 1857, and ruled on March 6, 1857. This ruling was delivered by the United States Supreme Court’s Chief Justice Roger B. Taney. The case was between a slave named Dred Scott and his master’s widow, who was then residing in Missouri. Scott’s master had moved to Illinois and the Wisconsin territory, both of which were free territories. Dred Scott argued that he and his family should be freed since they had lived in free territory. Taney dismissed this argument and stated that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights.

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true/false. small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most.

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The given statement "small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most." is false as have limited jurisdiction to hear civil cases between private litigants.

Small-claims courts only have limited authority to hear civil disputes involving private parties. Small claims courts may also perform other judicial duties and may go by different names in different jurisdictions. The maximum amount of money that a small-claims court can award in judgments is typically in the tens of thousands of dollars or pounds. The plaintiff typically forfeits any right to seek an amount greater than the court can grant by filing a lawsuit in small claims court. Reducing a claim to meet the requirements of this venue may or may not be permitted by the plaintiff.

Small-claims courts typically have jurisdiction over private disputes involving small sums of money. The routine collection of small debts forms a large portion of the cases brought to small-claims courts, as well as evictions and other disputes between landlords and tenants, unless the jurisdiction is already covered by a tenancy board.

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valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort. valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice T/F

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The statement "valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort, valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice" is true because it is considered an unfair labor practice under the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA).

The correct answer is true.

The NLRA is a federal law that protects employees' rights to organize and engage in concerted activity to improve their wages, benefits, and working conditions. This includes the right to form or join a union, bargain collectively with their employer, and engage in other concerted activities for mutual aid and protection.

Valley Mart's statement that employees would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort is considered an unfair labor practice under the NLRA because it is a form of interference, restraint, or coercion that can intimidate employees and chill the exercise of their protected rights.

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in which of the following ways does the british democracy differ from most other parliamentary democracies in europe?

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The British democracy differs from the majority of other parliamentary democracies in Europe in that the ruling party may adopt policies with essentially no checks from other levels of government.

The Westminster Parliament represents the idea of full power to legislate on all topics, free from any restrictions from underlying principles of international law or human rights, and now also from EU legislation.

The UK is a parliamentary democracy in europe. After the passage of the First Reform Act in 1832, which gave the vote to 7% of males and reallocated house seats for fairer representation, the UK became a democracy. This was the initial reform in a series that aimed to increase the electorate.

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Correct Question:

In what ways does the british democracy differ from most other parliamentary democracies in europe?

Under common law, which of the following was true in regard to arson?a. Negligence was sufficient to establish arsonb. Criminal intent was not necessaryc. The requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completelyd. You could commit arson

Answers

Under common law, criminal intent was not necessary in regard to arson. Arson is the criminal act of intentionally and requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completely under common law. Arson was established if the damage or destruction of the property was caused by fire.

Additionally, common law arson was a crime that required actual, malicious intent to set fire to a structure or property. A person could not be convicted of unlawfully setting fire to buildings or other property. Criminal intent was not necessary under the common law of arson. Criminal intent was the foundation for the most serious charges in most criminal cases under the common law, but arson was an exception.

Negligence was insufficient to establish arson under the common law of arson. The arson if they didn't intend to start a fire or cause harm. Common law is a body of law that has been established through legal decisions made by judges over the centuries. The doctrine of precedent is used in common law. The doctrine of precedent, also known as stare decisis, requires that lower courts must follow the decisions of higher courts that have dealt with similar cases in the past.

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The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state
infringement in the _________ case.
a. Schenk v. United States
b. McCulloch v. Maryland
c. Gibbons v. Ogden
d. Gitlow v. New York

Answers

The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state infringement in the d. Gitlow v. New York case.

What is Gitlow v. New York case?

Gitlow v. New York is a landmark U.S. Supreme Court case, decided on June 8, 1925, which upheld the constitutionality of the Espionage Act of 1917, which made it illegal to advocate the overthrow of the United States government by force or violence.

The majority of the justices ruled that the First Amendment didn't prohibit states from suppressing or punishing speech that posed a serious danger to national security, even if it didn't immediately incite an illegal act.

What is the Fourteenth Amendment?

The Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution was passed by Congress on June 13, 1866, and ratified by the states on July 9, 1868. It granted citizenship to all individuals born or naturalized in the United States and prohibited states from denying any person "life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.

The correct option is option d.

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fill in the blank. expansionary fiscal policy will cause gross domestic product to and the interest rate to .

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Expansionary fiscal policy will cause gross domestic product to increase and the interest rate to rise.

Expansionary fiscal policy involves increasing government spending and/or reducing taxes, which increases aggregate demand in the economy. This increased demand can lead to higher economic growth and an increase in gross domestic product (GDP).

However, an increase in demand can also lead to higher inflation, which can cause the central bank to raise interest rates in order to cool down the economy and control inflation. As interest rates rise, this can reduce investment and consumption, which can partially offset the positive effects of expansionary fiscal policy on GDP growth.

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fill in the blank. the risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack

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The risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack with a firearm.

The risk of a car bomb attack is very low, but it is still possible. It is important to be aware of the potential threat and take appropriate safety measures, such as installing protective barriers and surveillance systems.

Additionally, bank staff should be trained to be aware of suspicious activity and report it to the authorities. Finally, individuals should also take safety precautions such as parking in well-lit areas, avoiding leaving valuables in plain sight, and being aware of their surroundings.

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The complete question is:

Fill in the blank.

The risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack with a ________.

What part should intent play in determining the punishment for crime? (For instance, if a man attempts to kill another man but fails to kill him and, instead, only wounds him, should he receive any lighter a sentence than the man who intends to kill another man and succeeds in doing so?)

Answers

Answer:

Intent is an important factor in determining the punishment for a crime. In the case of attempted murder versus actual murder, the intent to kill is the same in both cases, but the outcome is different. The person who attempted to kill but failed may still be held responsible for their actions and face punishment, but the punishment may be less severe than that of the person who successfully killed another person.

This is because the severity of a crime is often determined by the harm caused, as well as the intent behind the action. However, the specific circumstances of the crime, including the intent of the perpetrator, the harm caused, and other factors, should all be taken into account when determining an appropriate punishment.

Overall, while intent should be considered when determining the punishment for a crime, it should not be the only factor taken into account. The severity of the harm caused and other relevant factors should also be considered to ensure that the punishment fits the crime.

. The ______ test is used if the classification involves either a suspect class or a fundamental constitutional right.
A. minimum rationality
B. quasi-strict scrutiny
C. rational basis
D. prior restraints
E. strict scrutiny

Answers

More context please then I can help

the initial responsibility of the first responding officer after they determine that a crime was committed is to crij

Answers

The initial responsibility of the first responding officer after determining that a crime was committed is to ensure the safety of the victim(s) and any witnesses.

The officer must secure the crime scene to prevent any contamination or destruction of evidence.

The first responder must assess the situation and determine the extent of any injuries or damage. If medical attention is required, the officer should immediately request medical assistance. If the offender is still on the scene or in the area, the officer should quickly apprehend the suspect and ensure that they are separated from the victim(s) and witnesses.

The first responding officer should also begin to gather information from witnesses and potential suspects. This may involve conducting interviews, collecting physical evidence, and taking photographs or videos of the crime scene. It is important for the officer to document as much information as possible to aid in the investigation of the crime.

The officer should also notify their supervisor and any necessary departments, such as detectives or forensics teams, to further investigate the crime. The officer may need to request additional resources, such as backup or a K-9 unit, depending on the severity of the crime and the situation.

In summary, the initial responsibility of the first responding officer after determining that a crime was committed is to ensure the safety of the victim(s) and witnesses, secure the crime scene, gather information and evidence, and notify necessary departments and resources to further investigate the crime.

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____: the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.

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A political realignment is the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.

In American politics, the term "realignment" refers to the process in which a party's electoral support base undergoes a fundamental shift, resulting in long-term changes in the balance of power between the two major political parties. The electoral realignment can be attributed to a variety of factors, including demographic shifts, significant events or policy decisions, changes in political culture, and changes in party organizations' strategies.

A realignment occurs when a political party undergoes a major shift ins its political ideology and agenda, resulting in significant changes in its base of support. This shift may result in the creation of a new electoral majority, or it may result in a significant weakening or even the complete collapse of a party's former electoral coalition. As a result, the opposing party may rise to power, and a new era of political dominance may emerge.

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assume that print todays date is a function that uses no parameters. write a statement that calls (invokes) this function.

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Assuming that print today's data is a function with no parameters, the statement that calls this function is: print_todays_date()

How to write the statement ?

In programming, a function is a block of code that performs a specific task. Functions are often used to break down a program into smaller, more manageable pieces of code that can be reused throughout the program.

When you define a function, you give it a name and a set of parameters (if any) that it takes as input. In the case of the "print today's date" function, it doesn't take any parameters, so you can simply write the name of the function followed by a set of empty parentheses, like this: print_todays_date().

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Which of the following dictated that the same 10-year penalty be imposed for the possession of 50 grams of crack cocaine as for the possession of 5,000 grams of powder cocaine in the 1980s
The Federal Anti-Drug Abuse Act

Answers

The Federal Anti-Drug Abuse Act of 1988 mandated that the same 10-year penalty be imposed for the possession of 50 grams of crack cocaine as for the possession of 5,000 grams of powder cocaine.

This Act was passed with the intention of targeting the sale and possession of crack cocaine, which was more accessible and affordable in inner-city communities.

The Act failed to consider the racial implications of the disparity between the sentences, as the African-American population was disproportionately impacted by the harsh penalties.

This discrepancy was addressed in the Fair Sentencing Act of 2010, which reduced the disparity in sentencing.

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the law prohibits anyone under the age of 18 from using any type of wireless device while driving, except in an emergency situation.True or false

Answers

In the United States, the answer is partially true. In most states, there are laws restricting the use of wireless devices while driving, especially for young and inexperienced drivers. However, these laws can vary from state to state, and not all states specifically prohibit the use of wireless devices by drivers under the age of 18.

It is important to note that these laws are intended to improve road safety, as the use of wireless devices while driving can significantly increase the risk of accidents. Driver distraction is one of the leading causes of traffic accidents, and the use of wireless devices can increase distraction and the likelihood of accidents.

In summary, in the United States, many laws restrict the use of wireless devices while driving, especially for young and inexperienced drivers. While not all states specifically prohibit the use of wireless devices by drivers under the age of 18, many laws are designed to improve traffic safety and reduce the risk of accidents caused by driver distraction.

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It is true that the law prohibits anyone under the age of 18 from using any type of wireless device while driving, except in an emergency situation.

According to the law it is illegal for anyone under the age of 18 to use any type of wireless device while driving. This also includes talking on the phone, texting, or surfing the internet. Some states have laws that specifically prohibit texting while driving regardless of age. It would be an only exception in case it is an emergency situation, such as calling 911. If anyone use any type of  wireless device while driving, sometimes it may lead to dangerous situations like accidents where they put themselves and others also in danger.

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What are the guiding principles for first responders' to take when arriving at a potential crime scene?

Answers

Secure the area remove the people tape the scene look for survivors remain calm call the core or

U.S. firms, their foreign subsidiaries, or foreign firms that are licensees of U.S. technology cannot sell a product to a country in which the sale is considered by the U.S. government to affect theoverall balance of payments of the United States.national security of the United States.relationship of the U.S. with the world community.competitive balance of world trade.competitive balance of free competition inside the U.S.

Answers

U.S. technology cannot sell a product without an export licence to a country in the sale is considered by the U.S. government to affect the overall balance of payments of the United States is; National security of the United States.

What is an export license?

An export license is a government document issued by a country's export control agency, authorizing the export of certain goods in specific quantities to a particular destination. An export license is usually required for any items that are controlled, regulated, or banned by national and international export control laws.

The export control agency is responsible for regulating and overseeing all activities related to the export of goods, including granting export licenses and enforcing export regulations.

Why are export licenses necessary?

Export licenses are necessary for a variety of reasons, including to: Prevent the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction Protect national security Ensure compliance with international laws and regulations Combat terrorism and other criminal activities Promote economic development and stability.

There are different types of export licenses, and the specific requirements and regulations will depend on the type of goods being exported and the destination country. However, in general, the purpose of an export license is to ensure that the export of certain goods does not pose a threat to national security, international relations, or other important interests.

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When talking to his investment clients, broker Adam often refers to tax shelters. This term typically means?

Answers

Explanation:

The term "tax shelter" typically refers to a legal method of reducing taxable income and, therefore, the amount of tax owed. Tax shelters can take many different forms, including investment opportunities such as individual retirement accounts (IRAs), 401(k) plans, and annuities, as well as certain types of business expenses or deductions.

In 100 words or more, discuss what the different options are for sketch perspectives and what the forensic lab plays within crime scene investigation.

Answers

Sketch perspectives are an essential part of crime scene investigation, as they provide a visual representation of the scene and help investigators to accurately document and interpret the evidence collected. There are different options for sketch perspectives, including hand-drawn sketches, computer-generated sketches, and 3D modeling.

What is investigation?

Investigation refers to the process of gathering information or evidence to establish facts and solve problems. It involves systematic and thorough inquiry or examination of a particular issue or event.

Forensic labs play an important role in crime scene investigation as they analyze and interpret the evidence collected by investigators. Forensic lab technicians use specialized equipment and techniques to analyze physical evidence, such as fingerprints, DNA, and ballistics, to identify suspects and provide evidence for criminal cases.

They work closely with investigators to provide accurate and timely results, which can help to solve crimes and bring perpetrators to justice. The forensic lab is a crucial component of the criminal justice system and plays an essential role in the investigation and prosecution of crimes.

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"Why are minorities (Predominately Black & Latino) arrested/incarcerated at a higher rate than other races"

Answers

Answer: Racial and Ethnic Disparity in State Prisons

Explanation:

Black and Latinx Americans in each state, identifies three contributors to racial and ethnic disparities in imprisonment

De jure discrimination and de facto discrimination are two ways in which some Americans are treated as less equal than others. Examples of public policies designed to address each of these forms of discrimination are
a. affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto).
b. the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de jure), and the Brown decision (de facto).
c. the Supreme Court's busing decisions (de jure), and affirmative action decisions (de facto).
d. None of these answers is correct.
e. the Brown decision (de jure), and affirmative action (de facto).

Answers

Option A, that is affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto).

WHAT'S AFFIRMATIVE ACTION

Affirmative action is a public policy that was put in place to correct de jure discrimination that African Americans faced.

This policy was designed to increase the representation of historically marginalized groups in education, employment, and other sectors where they had been previously excluded. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 is a law that was put in place to address de facto discrimination in the form of voter suppression.

The act was passed to ensure that every citizen of the United States could vote without facing any discrimination. Together, affirmative action and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 are important policies designed to address both de jure and de facto discrimination.

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true/false. When at the zero bound, one of the policy alternatives that we discussed would be for the Fed to lower or eliminate the reserve requirement ratio

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One of the policy options we explored was for the Fed to reduce or remove the reserve requirement ratio when it reached the zero bound. True.

The notion that interest rates cannot be decreased farther than zero is known as the "Zero Lower Limit." Historically, central banks have utilised monetary policy to influence the economy's interest rate in order to achieve its budgetary goal (s).

In fact, the Fed used a variety of other tactics to overcome the ZLB restriction after the crisis, including large-scale asset purchases (quantitative easing) and providing market participants with advance information on the direction of interest rates. The ZLB issue was not entirely solved by these policy improvements.

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Question 1
Blood type AB is the rarest blood type, occurring in only 4% of the population in the United States. In Australia, only 1.5% of the population has blood type AB. Suppose a random sample of 50 U.S. residents and 40 Australians is obtained. Consider the random variables described below:
X: the number of US residents (out of 50) with blood type AB.
Y: the number of Australians (out of 40) with blood type AB.
Z: the total number of individuals (out of 90) with blood type AB.
Which of the following is true about the random variables X, Y, and Z? Check all that apply.
X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04
Y is a binomial random variable with n = 30 and p = 0.015
Z is a binomial random variable with n = 90 and p = 0.055
Question 2
In Texas, 30% of parolees from prison return to prison within 3 years. Suppose 15 prisoners are released from a Texas prison on parole. Assume that whether or not one prisoner returns to prison is independent of whether any of the others return to prison. Let the random variable X be the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years. What are the values of the parameters for the binomial random variable X?
n =
p =

Answers

X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04, Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015.
The value of n is 15 and p is  0.30 of the parameters for the binomial random variable X

1. X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04

Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015

Z is not a binomial random variable, as it represents the total number of individuals with blood type AB, which is not a fixed number of trials with a constant probability of success.

2. The binomial distribution models the number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials, where each trial has the same probability of success. In this case, X represents the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years, where each parolee is either a success (returns to prison) or a failure (does not return to prison). Since each prisoner's return to prison is independent of the other prisoners' returns, we can model X as a binomial random variable with n = 15 (the number of trials) and p = 0.3 (the probability of success, or the proportion of parolees who return to prison within 3 years).

Therefore, final answer for question 1 is n = 40 and p =0.015 and for question 2 is n = 15 and p = 0.30.

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If a subsequent event occurs after the report date but prior to the release date of an audit report, resulting in management's revision of the financial statements of a non issuer, then the auditor may do any of the following, EXCEPT:
A) Maintain the original date of the report and state that the opinion is limited to the financial statements as they existed prior to the subsequent event.
B) Perform audit procedures necessary to obtain assurance about the revised financial statements.
C) Include an additional date in the audit report that is limited to the revision to the financial statements.
D) Revise the date of the audit report to reflect the necessity of additional audit procedures.

Answers

The auditor may do any of the following, EXCEPT revise the date of the audit report to reflect the necessity of additional audit procedures (option D).

An auditor is a qualified professional who reviews and validates the financial records and accounting statements of businesses or organizations to ensure that they comply with accounting principles and regulations. Auditors are responsible for ensuring the accuracy and completeness of an entity's financial reports, which may include annual financial statements, tax returns, and other financial documents. They have the expertise and knowledge to evaluate and certify the reliability of an entity's financial records and disclosures, as well as to detect errors, omissions, or fraudulent activities.

Auditors play a crucial role in ensuring that businesses and organizations operate in a transparent and ethical manner and that the public can trust the financial information they provide.

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What did the 13th 14th and 15th amendments do during reconstruction?

Answers

The Reconstruction Amendments, sometimes known as the 13th, 14th, and 15th Amendments to the Constitution, played a significant role in granting African Americans citizenship rights and protections.

Slavery was officially abolished by the 13th Amendment. African Americans were made equal citizens of the United States via the 14th Amendment.

The Dred Scott v. Sanford ruling, in which Chief Justice Roger B. Taney of the Supreme Court stated that black Americans were not citizens and as a result had "no rights which the white man was bound to respect," was reversed by this amendment.

Black American men now have the right to vote thanks to the 15th Amendment. Northern African Americans were steadfast supporters of these amendments, pushing for equality on behalf of both themselves and their recently freed colleagues.

Democrats in Pennsylvania's neighboring state of New Jersey resisted ratification, despite the fact that Pennsylvania was one of the first states to do so in February 1865.

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true/false. prosecuting attorneys exercise discretion when determining whether or not to bring charges against the arrestee.

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True. Prosecuting attorneys are responsible for deciding whether to bring criminal charges against an individual who has been arrested.

This decision is made based on various factors, such as the strength of the evidence, the seriousness of the offense, and the interests of justice. Prosecutors have discretion in determining whether or not to bring charges, and their decision can have significant consequences for the individual facing the charges. In some cases, prosecutors may decide not to bring charges if they feel that the evidence is weak or if the offense is minor. However, in other cases, they may pursue charges aggressively, seeking the maximum possible penalty for the alleged offense.

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QUESTION 2 "So, the Advocate Dali Mpofu is correct, we can afford free education for all South African children. But where I come from, I do not jubilate at free education, I want to revisit the curriculum; I want to know which publishing companies benefit from the education of our children, where they come from and what their philosophy of education is". Moss Mashamaite (2014). (a) Discuss the above extract with reference to Freire's views on education. (6)​

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According to the above extract Freire's views on education can be summed up as-

For Freire, education is never neutral. All education is political – either educating to support and maintain the status quo or helping to critique and change reality. Problem-posing education does not and cannot serve the interests of the oppressor.

Education mean today?

Education is defined as a cycle of learning that helps a person acquire and understand more complex stuff. According to the training they have received, the knowledge that has been had about a person provides an example of thought and behavior.

The  renowned definition of education?

Education is an intentional process with certain goals in mind, such as information transmission or the development of abilities and moral character. The growth of comprehension, reason, compassion, and honesty are only a few examples of these objectives.

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