What is the first step to solving the quadratic equation x2=9over 16

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

If you're asking for the probability that the coin is heads and the die is even. Hope this helps :)

1/3*1/2= 1/6

Answer:

The answer is 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because the dice has 6 sides so the possibility of getting a even is 1/6

Answer:

44t + 11

Step-by-step explanation:

11(4t + 1)

Distribute 11 amongst the values inside the parenthesis

11(4t) + 11(1)

Multiply

44t + 11

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

[tex]44t + 11[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]11(4t + 1) \\ = 44t + 11[/tex]

Answer: 20x + 20

Step-by-step explanation: In this problem, the 5 "distributes" through the parentheses, multiplying by each of the terms inside.

So we have 5(4x) + 5(4) which simplifies to 20x + 20.

We can write this as:

3 books / 1 week

This tells us that Sanjit reads 3 books per week.

Let's say he read for 3 weeks, we would multiply to find the number of books he read.

3 * 3 = 9 books

So, Sanjit can read 3 books in 1 week.

Best of Luck!

Answer:

3 books/1 week

Step-by-step explanation:

3 books

------------

1 week

Answer: 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Ella tiene que bajar los 6 pisos, mas 2.

6+2=8

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The ptobability of getting a quarter is 5/25 to the simpliest form is 1/5

The four probability is basic probability, compound event, independent and dependent event and the probability line.

I hope it'll help you much

Thank you for asking

Sounds like a Bayes Theorem problem.

Events:

F: Roger makes his first serve.  We'll write ~F for "not F".

P(F) = .63

P(~F) = 1 - .63 = .37

W: Roger wins the point.  We don't know P(W) but we are given

P(W | F) = .78

P(W | ~F) = .57

We're asked for

P(~F | W)

The basic conditional probability theorem is

P(~F and W) = P(~F | W) P(W) = P(W | ~F) P(~F)

P(~F | W) = ( P(W | ~F) P(~F) ) / P(W)

We write

P(W) =  P(W | F) P(F) +  P(W | ~F) P(~F)

Substituting gives Bayes' Theorem:

P(~F | W) = ( P(W | ~F) P(~F) ) / ( P(W | F) P(F) +  P(W | ~F) P(~F) )

We know all the parts so we substitute,

P(~F|W) = ( .57(.37) ) / (.78(.63) + .57(.37) ) = 0.30029901751388294

Let's call that 30%

Answer: 30%

Answer:

0.3

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to reverse this because we only know the outcome. P(A|B) = P(B|A) * P(A) / P(B), so P(B|A) is B given that A happens, P(A) in this case is the probability that he missed the first serve. P(B) is the probability of winning the point. P(B) = P(B|A') * P(A') + P(B|A) * P(A), which means P(B) is the probability  of the point scored given that the serve was made multiplied by the probability of the serve being made plus the probability of B given that serve is missed multiplied by the probability that the serve is missed. This is 57% * 37% + 78% * 63%=0.21+0.49=0.7. So P(B)=0.7. P(B|A)*P(A)/P(B) would be 57% * 37% / 70% = 0.3. The probability that Federer missed his first serve given that he scored the point is 0.3.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

factorize the given equation like this

m^2-7m+1

m^2-2m+1-5m

(m-1)^2-([tex]\sqrt{5m}[/tex])^2

(m-1+[tex]\sqrt{5m}[/tex])(m-1-[tex]\sqrt{5m}[/tex])

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8N-2=33+N

Step-by-step explanation:

find interest and subtract it from 30,000

Answer:

She will have $78,080 dólars in her account and $17,080 is the interest she will earn in 2 years

Step-by-step explanation:

i = prt

i = ($61,000)(.14)(2)

i = $17,080

$78,080

Answer:

$78080

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the given formula :

I = P × R × T

I = 61000 × 14/100 × 2

I = $17080

She have = 61000 + 17080 = $78080

Answer:

[tex]\frac{7}{16}[/tex]

Since there are 16 pastries in total, and 7 of them are chocolate, this will become your probability.

So, since the total is 16, this will be the denominator, and the 7 will be the numerator.

So, it will be [tex]\frac{7}{16}[/tex]

Answer:

x ≈ 1.893 ( to 3 dec. places )

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the rule of logarithms

log [tex]x^{n}[/tex] = n logx

Given

[tex]3^{x}[/tex] = 8 ( take the log of both sides )

log[tex]3^{x}[/tex] = log8, that is

xlog3 = log8 ( divide both sides by log3 )

x = [tex]\frac{log8}{log3}[/tex] ≈ 1.893

The measure of arc HD, which represents the arc between points H and D, is also 102 degrees.

We have,

In the given figure, we have a circle with points P, K, L, H, and D on it. Secant RL and secant KH intersect inside the circle, forming an angle with a measure of 92 degrees.

Secant DR and secant LR intersect outside the circle at point R, forming an angle DRL with a measure of 38 degrees.

The intercepted arc closest to angle DRL has a measure of 18 degrees.

Since secant RL intersects the circle at some point, we can consider the arc between that point and point K.

The measure of this arc is given as 102 degrees.

Therefore,

The measure of arc HD, which represents the arc between points H and D, is also 102 degrees.

Learn more about arc lengths here:

https://brainly.com/question/16403495

#SPJ2

Answer:

i cant answer that i'm only in 8th

Step-by-step explanation:

The three numbers are 23 25 and 27

23 + 25 + 27 = 75

The smallest number is 23

Answer:

2x+2(x+5)) = 24

Step-by-step explanation:

2x+ 2(x+5) = 24

x is represented by the shorter side. Multiply by 2 because of the 2 sides. For the longer side, since it is 5m longer than the shorter side, you have to write (x+5). Multiply by 2 because of the 2 sides. Finally, add them both together since it is the area and set it equal to 24.

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

0 = –x^2 + 4x – 2

This is of the form

ax^2 +bx +c

a = -1  b = 4  x = -2

The discriminant is

b^2 -4ac

4^2 - 4(-1)(-2)

16 - 8

8

It’s the average distance between each data value and the mean.

Answer:

one measure of variability; the average of how much the individual scores of a data set differ from the mean of the set. - abbreviation: MAD

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The parabola is wider than the parent function

Step-by-step explanation:

If "a" is a fraction less than one, then the parabola becomes wider.

See graph (attached)

Answer:

x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

just use this app called photomath its free on apple and gives you answers.

Answer:  x = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

–x + (–1) = 3x + (–5)

−x−1−3x=3x−5−3x

−4x−1=−5

Add 1 to both sides.

−4x−1+1=−5+1

−4x=−4

Divide both sides by -4.

x = 1

Hope this helps :)

Answer:Perimeter, 50ft

Step-by-step explanation:since it is around the answer is 50 ft

Answer:

less than

[tex]1 \frac{1}{2} [/tex]

I believe

Answer: Infinite solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]8-(2x-9)=17-2x[/tex]

Begin by distributing the negative into the parenthesis.

[tex]8-2x+9=17-2x[/tex]

Combine like terms;

[tex]17-2x=17-2x[/tex]

Subtract 17

[tex]-2x=17-17-2x[/tex]

[tex]-2x=-2x[/tex]

Add 2x

[tex]-2x+2x=0\\0=0[/tex]

Equation: 8 - (2x - 9) = 17 - 2x

First, we distribute the - sign.

8 -2x + 9 = 17 - 2x

Then, we combine like terms if there any on both sides.

17 - 2x = 17 - 2x

Now, we can see the equations are equal to each other.

However, we can go a step further and solve for x.

17 - 2x = 17 - 2x

Subtract 17 from both sides.

-2x = -2x

Divide both sides by -2.

x = x

Therefore, x has no value or is 0.

Answer:

Triangle A: acute

Triangle B: acute

Triangle C: obtuse

Triangle D: right

Step-by-step explanation:

acute= less than 90 degrees each angle

obtuse=more than 90 degrees for one angle

right=equal exactly 90 degrees for one angle

Answer:

A=Acute

B. Acute

C.Obtuse

D.Right

Step-by-step explanation:

a,and b, and  are acute becuase there angles are less than 90 degrees.

d is obtuse beucase the angleismore than 90 degrees

D is right beucase the angle is 90 degrees and it hasthat square in the corner.

Answer:

(0,-41)

Step-by-step explanation:

You can see that for each 9 units that x goes up, y goes up by 19. If we continue this pattern, it will take 2 more jumps of 9 units for the x value to be 0 or to reach the y intercept. Adding 19 twice to -79 gives -41. Hope this helps!

Answer:

69.8%

Step-by-step explanation:

The weekly interest rate is computed using 52 weeks a year as per standard investment practice.

FV=PV*(1+r/52)^n*52

FV is the future value of $2000

PV is the present worth of $1,000

r is the unknown

n is the number of years which is 1

2000=1000*(1+r/52)^1*52

divide both sides by 1000

2000/1000=(1+r/52)^52

divide the index of the both sides by 52

(2000/1000)^(1/52)=1+r/52

1.013418991 =1+r/52

r/52=1.013418991 -1

r/52=0.013418991

r=0.013418991 *52=69.8%

Answer:

4%

Step-by-step explanation:

not really sure if thats right but i hopes it helps