Answer:
d. visceral.
Explanation:
The visceral reflex is one that happens autonomously in the body, aiming to maintain the balance of the body through quick responses to some specific impulses. An example of a visceral reflex is the reduction in body temperature with the release of sweat from the sweat glands.
The visceral reflexes are controlled by the autonomic nervous system, using the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
In pea plants, flowers are either white or purple: the purple color is produced by pigments called anthocyanins. The production of anthocyanins is a two-step process: the first step is controlled by the C gene and the second by the P gene. Both genes must produce functional proteins for anthocyanin to be produced. This is an example of:
Answer:
This is an example of gene translation.
Explanation:
Gene translation refers to the genetic process where a set of genes is used to create amino acids that will be responsible for creating a protein needed to perform some function or characteristic of the organism. In the question above, we can see that anthocyanin, responsible for the pigment of flowers, is created through the work of proteins that are created from gebes C and P. This is an example of gene translation, as it presents the formation of proteins regulated by genes.
Which of the following is the best definition of anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Anaerobic respiration is a process of cellular respiration. In this type of cellular process of respiration, oxygen is not needed to break down complex food substances such as glucose. Energy is generated in the process which is used for other cell functions.
Therefore, the answer is C.
Describe the normal process of osteogenesis for compact and spongy bone using the three different types of bone cells and their functions
Answer:
Osteoblasts penetrate the disintegrating cartilage and replace it with spongy bone. This forms a primary ossification center. Ossification continues from this center toward the ends of the bones. After spongy bone is formed in the diaphysis, osteoclasts break down the newly formed bone to open up the medullary cavity.
que contiene el condón?
Answer:
plss translate it in English so i Can easyly answer it.
Explanation:
Thank you.
Cystic fibrosis is most common in individuals of Northern European descent, affecting 1 in 3200 newborns. Assuming that these alleles are at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of the disease-causing CFTR alleles in this population
Answer:
0.0177
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease, thereby an individual must have both copies of the CFTR mutant alleles to have this disease. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium states that p² + 2pq + q² = 1, where p² represents the frequency of the homo-zygous dominant genotype (normal phenotype), q² represents the frequency of the homo-zygous recessive genotype (cystic fibrosis phenotype), and 2pq represents the frequency of the heterozygous genotype (individuals that carry one copy of the CFTR mutant allele). Moreover, under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the sum of the dominant 'p' allele frequency and the recessive 'q' allele frequency is equal to 1. In this case, we can observe that the frequency of the homo-zygous recessive condition for cystic fibrosis (q²) is 1/3200. In consequence, the frequency of the recessive allele for cystic fibrosis can be calculated as follows:
1/3200 = q² (have two CFTR mutant alleles) >>
q = √ (1/3200) = 1/56.57 >>
- Frequency of the CFTR allele q = 1/56.57 = 0.0177
- Frequency of the dominant 'normal' allele p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.0177 = 0.9823
Which is true if energy in ecosystem
Explanation:
energy flows in only one direction through an ecosystem.
7. Shawn plotted the data in a bar graph with two bars: one representing the number of bees per colony in the control cages and the other representing the number of bees per colony in the cages exposed to the fungicide. If the results support the hypothesis that fungicides harm bee development, what would you expect this bar graph to show? Describe the expected pattern in a few sentences.
Answer:
The first bar increases in length as compared to the second bar.
Explanation:
The length of the bar of control cages in graph increases because the number of bees per colony increases while on the other hand, the length of the bar of the cage that is exposed to fungicides decreases because the bees are negatively affected from the application of fungicides. They act abnormal in behaviour and adversely affected the reproduction of bees that greatly affected its population.
The energy source for active transport is ________ , while the force driving facilitated diffusion is ________.
Answer:
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Explanation:
Below is a mature eukaryotic mRNA transcript. Translate this mRNA into a protein, also showing the tRNA anticodons involved. Make sure you start and end translation in the right place! Label the ends of the polypeptide chain as N and C terminus.
mRNA: 5'GMUUACAUGCGGCUCAGUUGAGGCGAAAAAA 3'
tRNA:
amino acids:
Answer:
mRNA ⇒ 5'GMU UAC AUG CGG CUC AGU UGA GGC GAA AAA A 3'
tRNA ⇒ UAC GCC GAG UCA ACU
protein ⇒ N - MET ARG LEU SER Stop - C
Explanation:
In protein synthesis, the ribosome reads mRNA in the 5´ to 3´ direction, and, according to the codons that are being readen, tRNA transfers the correct amino acids to build the polypeptide chain. A codon is a short sequence of three nucleotides that store the genetic information for the aminoacids´ assembly. Each tRNA has two important sites. One of them that couples with the codon of the mRNA molecule, named anticodon. The other site couples with an amino acid. tRNA allows amino acids to align according to the nucleotidic sequence in the mRNA molecule.
Once the new amino acid links to the growing peptidic chain, the binding between the amino acid and the tRNA molecule breaks. The tRNA is now free to join another amino acid and repeat the cycle.
The protein is synthesized from the amino terminus to the carboxy terminus, while the added amino acids to the chain are coded by a codon formed by three bases in the mRNA. mARNs also have a start and end codon that are the signals of the synthesis initiation and finish. When the ribosome reaches the end codon, protein synthesis is over.
Each of the codons represents one of the 20 amino acids used to build the protein. Each amino acid can be codified by more than one codon. From the total 64 codons, 61 codify amino acids, and one of them is a start codon. The left three codons are stopping translation points.
The codons indicating the initiation or stop points during the translation process are:
• The start codon AUG is the most common sequence used by eukaryotic cells and places near the 5´extreme of the molecule.
• The end codons are UAA, UAG, UGA.
Protein synthesis initiates in the AUG start codon -Metionin-, and ends when reaching either of the stop codons UAA, UAG, UGA.
In the exposed example we have the following mRNA.
mRNA ⇒ 5'GMU UAC AUG CGG CUC AGU UGA GGC GAA AAA A 3'
Codons are separated by a space left between them. AUG is the start codon placed near the 5´ extreme. UGA is the end codon near the 3´ extreme. tRNA will add amino acids from the start codon, not before.
tRNA ⇒ UAC GCC GAG UCA ACU
Anticodons are separated by a space left between them.
protein ⇒ N - MET ARG LEU SER Stop - C
Each mRNA codon codifies for an amino acid. The start codon codifies for methionine. AUG = Met, CGG = Arg, CUC = Leu, AGU = Ser, UGA = Stop codon. The amino terminus is represented as an N and the carboxy terminus is a C. The first extreme to be translated carries the amino-terminal group, while the other extreme carries the carboxy-terminus group.
the flowers of the ____ bloom with sunrise and close with sunset.
Many of the phenotypes of DiGeorge syndrome have been traced back to one of the genes that is in the deleted region, TBX1. Some of the evidence for the important role of TBX1 in DiGeorge syndrome came from individuals who have some of the symptoms of DiGeorge syndrome without having the typical deletion. Closer examination showed that some of these individuals had SNV in the TBX1 gene. Which of the following SNVS would be most likely to create a similar phenotype to the deletion?
A. A variant in the promoter region of TBX1 that increases its expression
B. A variant in the intronic region of TBX1 that does not affect splicing. X
C. A nonsense variant near the 5' end of the TBX1 gene.
D. A silent variant near the 5' end of the TBX1 gene.
Answer:
D. A silent variant near the 5' end of the TBX1 gene.
Explanation:
TBX1 gene is wild type human being. It gives instructions for making protein called T-box 1. It plays an important role in tissue formation and organs during embryonic development.
Dark skin ( a result of increased melanin production in equatorial populations), is likely a response to ultraviolet radiation because UV radiation causes:
Answer: Skin cancer
Explanation:
Melanin is a pigment derived from an amino called acid tyrosine. The most common form of melanin is called eumelanin, which is a polymer of dihydroxyindole carboxylic acids and their reduced forms. When a person is exposed to the ultraviolet light (UV) from the sun, the melanocytes will produce eumelanin to prevent the skin from burning and damage to the cell nuclei (where DNA is found) of the epidermis. This melanin production causes the skin to darken. The eumelanin in the skin then acts as a natural sunscreen by blocking the damaging effects of sunlight. So, skin darkens when exposed UV light, thus providing greater protection when needed by producing more eumelanin, but it also becomes more likely to develop melanoma, which is a type of skin cancer. This is because UV rays damage the DNA of skin cells. The DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is the genetic material that has the instructios to the growth and functioning of an organisms). Skin cancers begin when eumelanin protection is not sufficient and this damage affects the DNA of the genes that control the growth of skin cells. This results in a tumor, which is the uncontrolled growth of cells (in this case, skin cells) because there will be a mutation in DNA that affects the function of the cells.
Explain why it is not advisable for two sickle cell carriers to marry.
Answer:
it results in pleiotropic effect and caused death of an offspring.
What are three techniques that can be used to show that the electron transport chain is found on the matrix side of the inner mitochondrial membrane. Select all that apply.
Answer:
Explanation:
Step 1: Generating a Proton Motive Force
The hydrogen carriers (NADH and FADH2) are oxidised and release high energy electrons and protons
The electrons are transferred to the electron transport chain, which consists of several transmembrane carrier proteins
As electrons pass through the chain, they lose energy – which is used by the chain to pump protons (H+ ions) from the matrix
The accumulation of H+ ions within the intermembrane space creates an electrochemical gradient (or a proton motive force)
Step Two: ATP Synthesis via Chemiosmosis
The proton motive force will cause H+ ions to move down their electrochemical gradient and diffuse back into matrix
This diffusion of protons is called chemiosmosis and is facilitated by the transmembrane enzyme ATP synthase
As the H+ ions move through ATP synthase they trigger the molecular rotation of the enzyme, synthesising ATP
Step Three: Reduction of Oxygen
In order for the electron transport chain to continue functioning, the de-energised electrons must be removed
Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor, removing the de-energised electrons to prevent the chain from becoming blocked
Oxygen also binds with free protons in the matrix to form water – removing matrix protons maintains the hydrogen gradient
In the absence of oxygen, hydrogen carriers cannot transfer energised electrons to the chain and ATP production is halted
