Answer:
Explanation:
hypothalamus release thyrotropin releasing hormone(TRH) which stimulate the pituitary gland to release TSH
The activity of the thyroid gland is regulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), also called thyrotropin. TSH is released from the anterior pituitary in response to thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
How do you stimulate TSH production?Eating a portion of Essential Fats at every meal which includes extra olive oil, flaxseed oil, raw unsalted nuts and seeds, avocados, and oily fish, will improve thyroid hormone levels as our cell receptors become more able to take up thyroid hormone.
Learn more about thyroid-stimulating hormones here: brainly.com/question/9251938
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The basal side of epithelium is always connected to?
A) basement membranes
B) connective tissue
C) epithelial cells
D) blood vessels
Answer:
Basement membranes
Explanation:
The medical term ____________________ describes a pus-filled lesion on the eyelid resulting from an infection in a sebaceous gland.
Answer:
the medical term is hordeolum
What two factors must be internally balanced for survival? a) energy and water b) water and materials c) materials and age d) materials & energy
Answer: b is the answer hope i helped :)
If this is correct can I get brainlist pls and thank you
have a blessed day :) d
Explanation:
AZT is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor. How does this drug prevent the replication of a retrovirus
Answer:
AZT is a thymidine analog
Explanation:
Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiviral drug used for the treatment of the Human immunodeficiency virus infection (HIV/AIDS) by preventing the transmission of HIV from infected cells. AZT is capable of suppressing the activity of the enzyme reverse transcriptase of the retroviral HIV genome, which enables it to copy RNA into DNA. In infected cells, this double-stranded DNA is integrated into the host genome which is then instructed to produce identical HIV copies. AZT is a thymidine analog that is incorporated into DNA and thus interferes with DNA synthesis, thereby inhibiting cell proliferation.
What are the phagocytes cell in the skin
Answer: The mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS), which includes macrophages and dendritic cells, has also been implicated in the regulation of skin salt homeostasis and blood pressure [35]
Explanation:
Answer:
The phagocytes cell in the skin are the monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, tissue dendritic cells and mast cells. One litre of human blood contains about six billion phagocytes.
When pathogens are detected, the immune system produces millions of white blood cells, which fight the infection. Blood vessels near the wound expand, and white blood cells move from the vessels to enter the infected tissues. Many of these white blood cells are phagocytes which engulf and destroy bacteria.
"If an organism were to die in an environment that had no saprotrophs or detritivores, what would you expect to see if you observed the area 2 weeks later?"
Answer: The options are not given, here are the options.
A. There will be no difference as compared to an area that has saprotrophs and detritivores. •
B. There would be nothing left, it will have completely decomposed. •
C. The body would remain, and be just as it was when it died except for weathering. •
D. The body would be decomposing at about half the normal speed.
The correct option is C.
The body would remain, and be just as it was when it died except for weathering.
Explanation:
"If an organism were to die in an environment that had no saprotrophs or detritivores, The body would remain, and be just as it was when it died except for weathering because detrivores and feed on organic matter and excrete the nutrients, without detrivores and saprotroph the the organic matter in the dead organisms will still remain the same.
Detrivores are organisms that feed on dead organic matter and releasing nutrients to the ecosystem through it's wastes.
Saprotroph are decomposers that survive on or in dead organic matter secreting enzymes and releasing nutrients to the ecosystem. Examples is fungi.
Without detrivore and and saprotroph the dead organisms will remain the same except from weathering be side weathering is carried out through the activities of air, water or some agents.
How does your body know when cells are missing
Answer:
Receptors provide information to nervous system about missing cells.
Explanation:
Your body know when cells are missing due to nervous system. The network of nervous system spreads throughout human body which provide information about what is going on in the body. If the cells are missing due to injury, the nervous system gives instruction to the body to produce more cells and transported that cells to the region where these cell are required. So receptors are responsible to provide information to nervous system about missing cells.
The body knows cells are missing as a result of the receptors sending
to the central nervous system.
The human body consists of cells which have neurons. These neurons are
responsible for the passage of messages and information to other parts of
the body.
When a cell is missing from the body, signals are passed to the central
nervous system which consists of the brain and spinal cord and they then
relay impulses which helps to fix the issue so as to ensure optimal
functioning of the body.
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Myristoyl-CoA is a saturated fatty acid with 14 carbons attached to coenzyme A. How many molecules of ATP would be generated from the complete oxidation of a single molecule of myristoyl-CoA
Answer:
Total ATP molecules produced = 94 molecules of ATP
Explanation:
Myristoyl-CoA, is a saturated fatty acid with 14 carbons which has been activated for oxidation by attachment to coenzyme A. When it has undergone complete oxidation, it will yield 7 acetyl-CoA molecules and 6 FADH₂ and 6 NADH molecules each.
Each of the 7 acetyl-CoA molecules obtained from its initial oxidation enters into the citric acid cycle and is completely oxidized to yield further ATP and FADH₂ and NADH molecules.
The overall yield of ATP from the various enzymatic steps is shown below:
Acyl-CoA dehydrodenase = 6 FADH₂
β-Hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase = 6 NADH
Isocitrate dehydrogenase = 7 NADH
α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase = 7 NADH
Succinyl-CoA synthase = 7 ATP (from substrate-level phosphorylation)
Succinate dehydrogenase = 7 FADH₂
Malate dehydrogenase = 7 NADH
Note: 1 FADH2 molecule yields 1.5 ATP; 1 NADH molecule yields 2.5 ATP molecules. Therefore,
Total ATP from FADH₂ molecules = 13 * 1.5 = 19.5
Total NADH molecules = 27 * 2.5 = 67.5
Total ATP molecules produced = 19.5 + 67.5 + 7 = 94
Total ATP molecules produced = 94 molecules of ATP
Production of maltose, by ___________________ condensation, dehydration, hydrolysis) of starch, in the presence of amylase, can be detected by colorimetric assay.
Answer:
Hydrolysis.
Explanation:
Maltose is produced by hydrolysis of starch, in the presence of amylase, can be detected by colorimetric assay. As per the assay of hydrolysis of starch we have concluded from the test of enzyme activity of amylase is that maltose being a reducing sugar which reacts and reduces the DNS (3,5-dinitrosalicylic acid) that is basically a pale yellow colored alkaline which results after some minutes into 3-amino,5-nitrosalicyclic acid which orange red colored alkaline after heating.
The free-energy changes of the individual steps in a pathway are summed to determine the overall free-energy change.
A. True
B. False
In angiosperms, what is the name of the outer epidermal layer that protects the plant body?
Answer:
cuticle
Explanation:
What is a biological approach to determining when a mother and her conceptus become separate individuals?
Answer:
Electroencephalography.
Explanation:
Electroencephalography is used to measure brain activity in terms of electrical activity. It is done by attaching electrodes on the scalp, or sometimes by placing electrodes directly in the brain. Using electroencephalography can help determine when the fetus starts having its own brain activities, which means that it is now a separate entity distinguishable from its mother. Using electroencephalography to see brain waves can give us a deeper insight into the age old complicated issue of when a mother and her conceptus become separate individuals.
what are biogeochemical ?
Which occurs when the body responds to the environment by maintaining a stable internal environment despite changing
external conditions?
spontaneous generation
homeostasis
growth and development
reproduction
Answer:
homeostasis
Explanation:
Homeostasis is the biological process by which living organisms maintain a stable internal environmetal condition despite changes in their external environment. Homeostasis is an important phenomenon for the optimal functioning of any living organism.
A vivid example of homeostatic process is the regulation of temperature in humans or some animals. Self-r regulating mechanisms help keep their temperature at a stable state irrespective of temperature changes in the external environment i.e. hot or cold external conditions. The steady state of internal temperature is very important for some physiological processes in living systems.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
the oceanic zone is
Answer:
The oceanic zone is the region of open sea beyond Continental shelf.
6. Members of the kingdom "Protista" are classified
into
A two domains.
C three species.
B three domains.
D three kingdoms.
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Domain is above Kingdom, so it cannot be A or B. Protista is a Kingdom, so it cannot be D. Therefore it must be C.
Members of the kingdom "Protista" are classified as "C" three species.
Protists are a group of all the eukaryotes that are not fungi, animals, or plants.
What are the characteristics of Protista?They are eukaryotes.Most have mitochondria.They can be parasites.They all prefer aquatic or moist environments.Thus, option "C" is correct.
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Name two structural characteristics that triglycerides and phospholipids have in common.
Answer:
They both have fatty acids.
Explanation:
which vary in number whereby triglycerides has three fatty acids while phospholipids have two fatty acids.
Answer:
Explanation:
which vary in number whereby triglycerides has three fatty acids while phospholipids have two fatty acids.
make sure to add
two fatty acids
glycerol
carboxyl group
1. Research 5 functions of the frontal lobe and explain them in detail with example.
2. Explain what you think might happen if someone damaged frontal lobe. You must mention the functions you have listed
Answer:
the front lobes are involved in motor function, problem solving,spontaneity,memory,language,initiation,judgement,impulse control,and social behaviour..
Explanation: particulary, an injury of the frontal lobecould leads to deficits in executive function such as anticipation , goal selection, planning and self correction
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The four principal types of stress are __________.
A. frustration, conflict, pressure, and anxiety
B. frustration, conflict, pressure, and change
C. anger, anxiety, depression, and annoyance
D. frustration, conflict, depression, and annoyance
Answer:
A
Explanation:
frustration, conflict, pressure, and anxiety
The four principal types of stress are frustration, conflict, pressure, and anxiety.
What is Stress?This is characterized by a feeling of emotional or physical tension in individuals.
There are four types of stress which are listed above thereby making option A the most appropriate choice.
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_____ is work done to keep equipment in good working order.
This question is incomplete; here is the complete question:
_____ is work done to keep equipment in good working order.
A. Defragmentation
B. Preventive maintenance
C. Virus protection
D. A maintenance schedule
The correct answer is B. Preventive maintenance
Explanation:
Maintenance refers to the processes done on machinery or equipment to preserve its proper functioning. Moreover, this maintenance is preventive if it is done to prevent equipment from breaking down or having any malfunctioning. Besides this, preventive maintenance is globally recommended because in this way equipment used at home or in business works properly. According to this, the correct answer is preventive maintenance.
Complete each sentence by putting the labels to the appropriate blanks. Then place each sentence in a logical order beginning with blood entering the right side of the heart.
a. Blood enters the right ventricle from the right atrium through the right atrioventricular valve which is also known as the_________.
b. From the left ventricle, the blood is pumped up to the___________ through the left semilunar valve which is sometimes referred to as the___________.
c. Beginning with the return from the systemic circulation, blood enters the________.
d. The right ventricle contracts next, which forces blood up through the right semilunar valve which is otherwise known as the__________.
e. After circulating through the blood returns to the_______.
f. From the left atrium, blood moves through the left________ which is also referred to as the________ or mitral valve.
1. bicuspid
2. tricuspid valve
3. right atrioventricular valve
4. right atrium
5. aortic valve
6. left atrioventricular valve
7. atrioventricular valve
8. pulmonary valve
9. left atrium
10. aorta
11. pulmonary capillaries
12. systemic capillaries
Answer:
c. Beginning with the return from the systemic circulation, blood enters the right atrium.
a. Blood enters the right ventricle from the right atrium through the right atrioventricular valve which is also known as the tricuspid valve
d. The right ventricle contracts next, which forces blood up through the right semilunar valve which is otherwise known as the pulmonary valve .
e. After circulating through the pulmonary capillaries, the blood returns to the left atrium.
f. From the left atrium, blood moves through the left atrioventricular valve which is also referred to as the bicuspid or mitral valve.
b. From the left ventricle, the blood is pumped up to aorta the through the left semilunar valve which is sometimes referred to as the aortic valve.
Explanation:
c. Beginning with the return from the systemic circulation, blood enters the right atrium.
a. Blood enters the right ventricle from the right atrium through the right atrioventricular valve which is also known as the tricuspid valve
d. The right ventricle contracts next, which forces blood up through the right semilunar valve which is otherwise known as the pulmonary valve .
e. After circulating through the pulmonary capillaries, the blood returns to the left atrium.
f. From the left atrium, blood moves through the left atrioventricular valve which is also referred to as the bicuspid or mitral valve.
b. From the left ventricle, the blood is pumped up to aorta the through the left semilunar valve which is sometimes referred to as the aortic valve.
Bree Wakefield is a 19 year old college student, living in a dormitory on the campus of her university. She started to feel poorly and began to miss classes. She was diagnosed with a disease of the CNS ?
Answer:
We don't know. Possibly not
Explanation:
CNS diseases are related to the nervous system
symptoms include memory loss or lack of coordination
which doesn't seem to be the case
she probably is feeling a mild headache
Choose a strategy to clone genes known only by a mutant phenotype in organisms with highly efficient transformation procedures and relatively small genomes.
a. cloning by complementation
b. direct sequencing of the mutant genome
c. PCR of the gene and transformation of an organism
d. cloning using a specific cloning vector
Answer:
Option a (cloning by complementation) `would be the correct choice.
Explanation:
In species containing extremely efficient transforming techniques as well as comparatively small genomes, cloning by rearrangement testing is performed to clone gene products mostly by a mutated gene as the rearrangement test was being used to detect mutations.This strategy for cloning through mechanism begins with identifying another yeast mutant that affects something like a plasmid representing a cloned genetic material.The other options in question aren't relevant to the particular circumstance. Therefore the answer to the above seems to be the right one.
What is the wavelength of an earthquake wave if it has a speed of 10 KM/S and a frequency of 5HZ?
Answer:
2nm
Explanation:
(10KM/S)/(5HZ) = 2nm
Which best defines the term matter?
Anything that can be seen
Anything that takes up space and has mass
All the living things on earth
O Anything in the atmosphere
Answer:
Anything that takes up space and has mass
Explanation:
This food web reveals that, as matter flows
through trophic levels,
A. matter from consumers, such as the green lynx
spider, is eventually recycled by decomposers,
such as a fungus.
B.matter from producers, such as the cutleaf daisy,
is immediately recycled by decomposers, such
as a bacterium.
C. matters from all organisms, such as the Bald
eagle, is dissipated at each level and none of it
is recycled.
D. matter from the Sun is recycled after many years
by consumers, such as a Bachman's sparrow.
Answer:
There is no food web attached to this question but it can be answered because matter flows uniformly through trophic levels in all food webs.
The correct answer is;
A. matter from consumers, such as the green lynx spider, is eventually recycled by decomposers, such as a fungus.
Explanation:
A food web is an interconnected series of food chain showing how organisms feed on one another to obtain energy. A food web always start with a unique set of autotrophic organisms i.e. capable of producing their own food called PRODUCERS. Producers such as the cutleaf daisy in this question create the organic matter via the process of photosynthesis, which gets transferred to organisms that feed on them called CONSUMERS e.g green lynx spider
Consumers are heterotrophic i.e rely on other organisms for source of energy. As they feed on other organisms and get fed on, the matter gets transferred until the last consumer dies. The dead matter in the dead organism gets decomposed by organisms called decomposers e.g fungi and it gets recycled back into the soil as nutrients for use by plants.
Therefore, dead matter from consumers, such as the green lynx spider, is eventually recycled by decomposers, such as a fungus.
what is the key to the recognition of a trait whose expression is determined by the effects of two or more genes
Answer:
Explanation:
Polygenic inheritance occurs when many loci of a gene contributes to it genetic make up.
No particular allele can be selected for contributing to a particular traits all the allele are equally expressed.
Over expressitivity example is pleiotrophy effect have more than 5 fingers or toes
The offspring express more dominant traits that the normal mendelian principle
This signs indicate polygenic inheritance.
¿Qué características crees que deben tener los métodos anticonceptivos para ser eficaces en el control de la natalidad?
Answer:
Los métodos anticonceptivos para ser eficaces en el control de la natalidad deben ser seguros para las personas que los utilizan, es decir, no tener efectos adversos, o al menos, la menor cantidad posible. Ser reversibles, es decir, que no generen infertilidad de por vida. Deben ser además fáciles de usar, cómodos y fáciles de conseguir, esto es, económicos. Además deben ser eficientes en su objetivo de evitar la concepción, que es para lo que fueron creados.
Explanation:
La tasa de eficacia de un método anticonceptivo se mide por la cantidad de embarazos que se producen cada 100. Esta parece ser la característica más importante, y si bien es una de las más importantes, hay que tener en cuenta todos los otros factores mencionados, es decir que la gente pueda acceder a ellos, sean cómodos, seguros y a un precio coherente.
Describe the structure of G protein ?
Answer:
G protein can refer to two distinct families of proteins.
Explanation:
heterotrimric G proteins are large in shape, G proteins are activated by G protein coupled receptors and are made up of alpha (a) beta(b) and gamma(y) subunits.
g You can find the results of the seedling experiment hereLinks to an external site.. Carry out the hypothesis test that you have identified in the previous problem; which is closest to the p-value that you obtain?Group of answer choices0.040.080.090.61
Answer:
0.080
Explanation:
The seedling experiment is the mobilization of reserves during the seed experiment. Development of embryo exist in the seedling. When the test is carried out the p-value obtained is near to 0.781 which is approximately 0.080. The calculation is 10 * 0.07 / 8.75 after solving the equation which we get is 0.080.