Which of the following is not a reason for a direct materials quantity variance? a.purchasing of inferior raw materials

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: d. increased material cost per unit

Explanation:

Direct materials quantity variance has to do with the difference between the budgeted quantity of materials and the actual quantity of materials used. It speaks to only the quantity used and nothing else.

An increased cost of the material is not relevant to the quantity of material used because whilst for instance it measures if there was a price change in the material, the materials quantity variance checks if there has been a change in quantity.


Related Questions

On July 1, 20X1, James and Short formed a partnership. James contributed cash. Short, previously a sole proprietor, contributed property other than cash, including realty subject to a mortgage, which the partnership assumed. Short’s capital account on July 1, 20X1, should be recorded at

Answers

Answer:

James and Short LLC

Short's capital account on July 1, 20X1 should be recorded at the fair value of contributed property minus the mortgage liability, which the partnership assumed.

Explanation:

The fair value of contributed property is the current market value of the contributed property by Short.  It is the market value that will determine how the contributed property can be valued.  The market value assumes that the contributed property is being sold in pieces and not as a whole.  This is why the value is considered a fair basis for recognizing the capital contribution of Short into the partnership.

Two investment advisors are comparing performance. Advisor A averaged a 20% return with a portfolio beta of 1.5 and Advisor B averaged a 15% return with a portfolio beta of 1.2. If the T-bill rate was 5% and the market return during the period was 13%, which advisor was the better stock picker?

Answers

Answer:

Advisor A

Explanation:

t bill rate = 0.05

market rate = 0.13

the beta of the market is always 1

the rate of return= 0.05 + (0.13 - 0.05) x 1

= 0.13

which is 13%

this is for advisor A.

with a return of 20% and 1.5 beta

0.05 + ( 0.20 - 0.05) x 1.5

= 27.5% for advisor b

when the return is 15% and beta is 1.2

0.05 + (0.15 - 0.05) x 1.2

= 17%

Therefore advisor a is better

what is not a major benefit of co-locating team members from different cultures in one place instead of having a team

Answers

Incomplete question. Here are the options:

A. Short distance to the customer markets

B. Reduced burden from travelling and international meetings

C. Enhanced communications and a sense of community

D. Identical working hours without time zone difference

Answer:

A. Short distance to the customer markets

Explanation:

It is noteworthy to remember we are concerned about what is not a major benefit of co-locating team members from different cultures in one place instead of having a team.

The other benefits like; reduced burden from travelling and international meetings, enhanced communications and a sense of community and having Identical working hours without time zone difference are major in nature as they have a direct impact on cost savings and work efficiency.

You have invested 20 percent of your portfolio in Homer, Inc., 40 percent in Marge Co., and 20 percent in Bart Resources. What is the expected return of your portfolio if Homer, Marge, and Bart have expected returns of 2 percent, 18 percent, and 3 percent, respectively?

Answers

Answer:

Expected return = 8.2%

Explanation:

A portfolio is a collection of assets/ investment. The return on a portfolio is the weighted average of all the return of the individual assets weighted according to the percentage of total funds allocated to each assets.

Expected return on portfolio:

E(R) =( Wa*Ra) + (Wb*Rb)  + (Wc*Rc) + Wn*Rn

W= Weight i.e proportion of fund invested in each asset class

Wa = 20%, Wb- 40%, Wc- 20%

Ra-2%, Rb-18%, Rc- 3%

E(R) = (0.2 *2%) + (0.4× 18%) + (0.2*3%) = 8.2%

Expected return = 8.2%

You purchased 1,000 shares of stock in Natural Chicken Wings, Inc., at a price of $43.37 per share. Since you purchased the stock, you have received dividends of $.95 per share. Today, you sold your stock at a price of $46.62 per share. What was your total percentage return on this investment?

Answers

Answer:

9.68%

Explanation:

Percent Return on Investment is calculated as Net Profit / Cost of Investment x 100

Net Profit= $46,620 (1,000 x $46.62 per share) + $950 (1,000 x $.95 per share) - $43,370 (1,000 x $43.37 per share) = $4,200

Cost of Investment= $43,370 (1,000 x $43.37 per share)

Percent Return on Investment=  $4,200 / $43,370 x 100 = 9.68%

Refer to the following lease amortization schedule. The five payments are made annually starting with the inception of the lease. A $2,000 bargin purchase option is exercisable at the end of the five-year lease. The asset has an expected economic life of eight years.
Lease Payment Cash Payment Effective Interest Decrease in Balance Balance
34,600
1 8,000 ?? ?? 26,600
2 8,000 2,660 5,340 21,260
3 8,000 2,126 5,874 15,386
4 8,000 1,539 6,461 8,925
5 8,000 ?? ?? ??
6 2,000 182 1,818 0
What is the effective annual inerest rate?
A. 9%
B. 10%
C. 11%
D. 20%

Answers

Answer:

B. 10%

Explanation:

The computation of the effective annual interest rate is shown below:-

Effective annual interest rate = Lease payment third effective interest ÷ Lease payment second balance × 100

= $2,126 ÷ $21,260 × 100

= 10%

Therefore for computing the effective annual interest rate we simply applied the above formula.

Hence the correct option is B.

If the price that determined where marginal revenue equaled marginal cost were below the bottom of the average variable cost curve, then the profit-maximizing, monopolistically competitive firm would

Answers

Answer: c. shut down because it would cost more to produce and sell output than it would to shut down and lose all fixed costs.

Explanation:

The profit maximizing, monopolistically competitive firm maximises profit at the point where marginal revenue equals marginal costs.

If this point is below Average variable costs then that means that the company is not making enough to cover its variable costs. Should this be the case then the company should shutdown operations because variable costs are only there when the company is producing. If they shutdown then they will no longer incur them which would be the cheaper option.

They would take losses on the fixed costs but these have already been incurred so it would be better to lose the fixed costs than continue to make losses on variable costs.

The Sapote Corporation is a manufacturing corporation. The corporation has accumulated earnings of $450,000 and the corporation cannot establish a reasonable business need for any of that amount. What is the amount of the accumulated earnings tax (if any) that will be imposed on the corporation?

Answers

Answer: $40,000

Explanation:

As this is a manufacturing company, they are exempt of Accumulated earnings tax of the amount of $250,000. Anything above that will be subject to an Accumulated Earnings tax rate of 20%.

Accumulated Earnings tax = 20% * (450,000 - 250,000)

Accumulated Earnings tax = 20% * 200,000

Accumulated Earnings tax = $40,000

Sheffield Corporation purchased machinery on January 1, 2017, at a cost of $250,000. The estimated useful life of the machinery is 4 years, with an estimated salvage value at the end of that period of $24,000. The company is considering different depreciation methods that could be used for financial reporting purposes.Required:Prepare separate depreciation schedules for the machinery using the straight-line method, and the declining-balance method using double the straight-line rate.

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

(A) Depreciation Schedules Under Straight line method

Depreciation rate under straight line method = 1 ÷ Useful life of asset

= 1 ÷ 4

=25%      

Depreciable cost = Cost of the Asset - Salvage value

= $250,000 - $24000

= $226,000

Year    Depreciable   Depreciation     Annual        Accumulated   Book

                cost      rate                Depreciation  Depreciation  Value

                                                            Expense

2017     $226,000       25%             $565,00          56,500       $193,500

                                                                                  ($250,000 - $56,500)

2018     $226,000       25%             $565,00          $113,000      $137,000

                                                                                   ($193,500 - $56,500)

2019     $226,000       25%             $565,00          $169,500    $80,500

                                                                                    ($137,000 - $56,500)

2020     $226,000       25%             $565,00         $226,000    $24,000

                                                                                    ($80,500 - $56,500)

For computing the annual depreciation we simply multiply the depreciable cost with depreciation rate.

(B) Depreciation Schedules Under Double declining balance method

Depreciation rate under Double declining Balance method

= 2 × Straight line method

= 2 × 25%

= 50%

Year   Book value   Depreciation     Annual        Accumulated   Book

           beginning      rate                Depreciation  Depreciation  Value

          of the year                                 Expense

2017    $250,000      50%               $125,000    $125,000     $125,000     2018    $125,000       50%             $62,500       $187,500      $62,500     2019     $62,500        50%            $31,250         $218,750      $31,250  

2020    $31,250                             $7,250         $226,000      $24,000

For computing the annual depreciation expenses we simply multiply the book value beginning of the year with depreciation rate.  

2020 Depreciation balance

= Book Value beginning 2020 - Salvage value

= $31,250 - $24,000

= $7,250      

The smartest thing a firm involved in an oligopoly market could do is to cut their prices and capture more of the market share from their competitors.

a) We learned in class that the best move would be to raise prices.

b) We also learned that cutting prices on an elastic demand curve will be a smart way of getting more revenues.

c) Cutting prices is no gaurantee of success. Indeed if the firm does capture more market share and customers, then their costs will go up and it will be harder for them because they will have lower profit margins - if they can earn any profit at all.

d) Both A and C are correct.

Answers

Answer:

Correct Answer:

c) Cutting prices is no gaurantee of success. Indeed if the firm does capture more market share and customers, then their costs will go up and it will be harder for them because they will have lower profit margins - if they can earn any profit at all.

Explanation:

An oligopoly market is a market form wherein a market or industry is dominated by a small group of large sellers. A pure monopoly maximizes profits by producing that quantity where marginal revenue = marginal cost. however, it is much more difficult for an oligopoly to determine at what output it can maximize its profit.

At an output level of 53,000 units, you calculate that the degree of operating leverage is 3.21. If output rises to 57,000 units, what will the percentage change in operating cash flow be? Suppose fixed costs are $175,000. What is the operating cash flow at 46,000 units? The degree of operating leverage? that the degree of operating

Answers

Answer:

If output rises to 57,000 units, what will the percentage change in operating cash flow be?

24.23%

What is the operating cash flow at 46,000 units?

$45,613.84

The degree of operating leverage (at 46,000 units)?

4.84

Explanation:

degree of operating leverage = [quantity x (price - variable costs)] / {[quantity x (price - variable costs)] - fixed costs}

degree of operating leverage x {[quantity x (price - variable costs)] - fixed costs} = [quantity x (price - variable costs)]

3.21 x {[53000 x (contribution margin)] - fixed costs} = [53000 x (contribution margin)]

(3.21 x 53000 x contribution margin) - (3.21 x 175000) = 53000 x contribution margin

let C = contribution margin

170130C - 561750 = 53000C

117130C = 561750

C = 561750 / 117130 = 4.795953

operating cash flow (at 53,000) = (53,000 x $4.795953) - $175,000 = $79,185.52

operating cash flow (at 57,000) = (57,000 x $4.795953) - $175,000 = $98,369.32

% change = ($98,369.32 - $79,185.52) / $79,185.52 = 24.23%

operating cash flow (at 46,000) = (46,000 x $4.795953) - $175,000 = $45,613.84

% change in operating cash flows = ($45,613.84 - $79,185.52) / $79,185.52 = -43.4%

% change in sales = (46,000 - 53,000) / 53,000 = -13.21

degree of operating leverage = $220,613.84 / $45,613.74 = 4.84

Link Co. purchased machinery that cost $3,000,000 on January 4, 2016. The entire cost was recorded as an expense. The machinery has a nine-year life and a $200,000 residual value. The error was discovered on December 20, 2018. Ignore income tax considerations. Before the correction was made, and before the books were closed on December 31, 2018, retained earnings was understated by:_________.a. $3,000,000.
b. $2,066,667.
c. $2,377,778
d. $2,333,333.

Answers

Answer:

c. $2,377,778

Explanation:

Recording the entire cost as expense would have understated Retained Earnings by $3,000,000

Annual Depreciation on machine = Purchase cost - Residual value / Useful life

= ($3,000,000 - $200,000) / 9

= $311,111

Depreciation would have been recorded for $622222 for 2 years had machinery been correctly recorded ($311,111 * 2) = $622,222

On December 20, 2018, the net understatement of Retained Earnings = $3,000,000 - $622,222

= $2,377,778

A firm recently issued $1,000 par value, 15-year bonds with a coupon rate of 9%. Coupon interest payments will be paid semi-annually. The bonds sold at par value, but the firm paid flotation costs amounting to 5% of par value. The firm has a corporate tax rate of 21%. What is the firm's after-tax cost of debt for these bonds?

Answers

Answer:

The firm's after cost of debt is 7.48%

Explanation:

Floatation cost increases the cost because a diminished portion of the whole amount was received.

Given that;

r = 9%

t = 21%

f = 5%

After tax cost of debt = r ( 1 - t ) / ( 1 - f )

0.09 ( 1 - 0.21 ) / 1 - 0.05 )

= 0.0711 / 0.95

=0.0748421053

= 7.48%

If there were 40000 pounds of raw materials on hand on January 1, 130000 pounds are desired for inventory at January 31, and 310000 pounds are required for January production, how many pounds of raw materials should be purchased in January

Answers

Answer:Pound of raw materials needed to be purchased = 400000 pounds

Explanation:

Opening inventory at January 1 =40000 pounds

Closing inventory at January 31- =130000 pounds

Pounds required for production ==310000 Pounds

Pound of raw materials needed to be purchased=  Pounds required for production + Closing inventory at January 31 --Opening inventory at January 1       =

=310, 000 pounds+130, 000 pounds -40000 pounds

=400000 pounds

_____ refers to the growth and spread of investment, trade, production, communication, and new technology around the world.

Answers

Answer:

Globalisation

Explanation:

Globalisation occurs when there is integration and interrelation between companies, governments, and people accross the globe. It is referred to as a capitalistic expansion where local individuals and businesses integrate into a global unregulated market.

Advanced in communication and transportation has also facilitated globalisation by easing flow of information and goods across different parties across the world.

Globalisation tends to result in spread of investment, trade, production, communication, and new technology around the world.

Top managers of are alarmed by their operating losses. They are considering dropping the laminate flooring product line. Company accountants have prepared the following analysis to help make this​ decision:


Total Blue-Ray Discs DVD Discs
Sales Revenue $432,000 $305,000 $127,000
Variable Costs $246,000 $150,000 $96,000
Contribution Margin $186,000 $155,000 $31,000
Fixed Costs:
Manufacturing $128,000 $71,000 $57,000
Selling and Administrative $67,000 $52,000 $15,000
Total Fixed Costs $195,000 $123,000 $72,000
Operating Income (loss) $(9000) $32,000 $(41,000)


Total fixed costs will not change if the company stops selling DVDs.

Required:
a. Prepare a differential analysis to show whether Movie Street should drop the DVD product line.
b. Will dropping DVDs add $41,000 to the operating income? Explain.

Answers

Answer:

a)

                               Blue-ray discs       Blue-ray discs         Differential

                               and DVD discs      only                          amount

Sales Revenue           $432,000             $305,000             $127,000

Variable Costs           ($246,000)           ($150,000)            ($96,000)

Contribution M.           $186,000              $155,000              $31,000

Fixed Costs:

Manufacturing   ($128,000)            ($128,000)             $0S&A expenses    ($67,000)             ($67,000)              $0

Operating Income         ($9000)              ($40,000)             $31,000

b) Will dropping DVDs add $41,000 to the operating income?

No, dropping the DVDs product line will decrease operating income by $31,000, resulting in a total loss of $40,000. Even though the DVDs product line by itself is not profitable, it absorbs a large percentage of the fixed costs and if you get rid of it, all the fixed costs will be absorbed by the Blue-rays product line.

United Apparel has the following balances in its stockholders’ equity accounts on December 31, 2018: Treasury Stock, $650,000; Common Stock, $400,000; Preferred Stock, $1,600,000; Retained Earnings, $1,200,000; and Additional Paid-in Capital, $6,800,000. Required: Prepare the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet for United Apparel as of December 31, 2018

Answers

Answer:

United Apparel Balance sheet as of December 31, 2018

Stockholders’ Equity section

Common Stock Capital ............................................$400,000

Preferred Stock Capital.............................................$1,600,000

Additional Paid-in Capital..........................................$6,800,000

Total Paid-in Capital....................................................$8,800,000‬

Retained Earnings.......................................................$1,200,000

Less: Treasury Stock...................................................($650,000)

Total Stockholders Equity..........................................$9,350,000

If a bank that faces a 10% reserve ratio received a deposit of $50,000 and makes a loan to a customer for $5,000, what is the consequence if the bank then deposits the rest of the funds at the Federal Reserve?

Answers

Answer:

Excess reserve increases by $40,000

Required reserve increases by $5,000

Explanation:

In order to calculate the reserve, we need to multiply the Deposit received by a required reserve ratio.

DATA

Reserve ratio = 10%

Deposit received = $50,000

Loan to customer = $5,000

Solution

Reserve =  Deposit x Required reserve ratio

Reserve = $50,000 x 10%

Reserve = $5,000

After providing a $5,000 loan to the customer and keeping $5,000 as a reserve remaining $40,000 would be deposited in the Federal Reserve.

All of the following actions by a custodian in an account opened under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act are permitted except:_______.
A. donating funds to the account to make additional investments
B. withdrawing funds from the account for the custodian's use
C. managing the investments in the account with the objective of generating enough income for college tuition
D. selling securities in the account to generate proceeds for other investments

Answers

Answer: B. withdrawing funds from the account for the custodian's use

Explanation:

Under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act, the Custodian's duty is to manage the account for the minor and allocate the assets within in such a way that it will bring about the best returns for the minor.

Custodians should not abuse this power for their own benefit or gain which is why the custodian withdrawing funds from the account for their own use is a violation of the act.

Praveen Co. manufactures and markets a number of rope products. Management is considering the future of Product XT, a special rope for hang gliding, that has not been as profitable as planned. Since Product XT is manufactured and marketed independently of the other products, its total costs can be precisely measured. Next year’s plans call for a $350 selling price per 100 yards of XT rope. Its fixed costs for the year are expected to be $315,000, up to a maximum capacity of 550,000 yards of rope. Forecasted variable costs are $245 per 100 yards of XT rope.
Required:
1. Estimate Product XT's break-even point in terms of (a) sales units and (b) sales dollars.
2. Prepare a CVP chart for Product XT. Use 7,000 units (700,000 yards/100 maximum number of sales units on the horizontal axis of the graph, and $1,400,000 as the maximum dollar amount on the vertical axis.
3. Prepare a contribution margin income statement showing sales, variable costs, and fixed costs for Product XT at the break-even point.

Answers

Answer:

1a. 3,000 units

1b. $1,050,000

2. See attachment.

3. contribution margin income statement

Sales  ($350 × 7,000 units)                            $2,450,000

Less Variable Cost  ($245 × 7,000 units))     ($1,715,000)

Contribution                                                       $735,000

Less Fixed Costs                                              ( $315,000)

Operating Profit                                                 $420,000

Explanation:

Break-even point (sales units ) = Fixed Cost ÷ Contribution per unit

                                                   = $315,000 ÷ ($350 - $245)

                                                   = 3,000

Break-even point (sales dollars) = Fixed Cost ÷ Contribution Margin Ratio

                                                     = $315,000 ÷ ($105/$350)

                                                     = $1,050,000

Despite the theoretical elegance of this hypothesis, empirical studies have come to the opposite conclusion. Despite the favorable effect of international diversification of cash flows, bankruptcy risk was only about the same for MNEs as for domestic firms. However, MNEs faced higher costs for each of the following EXCEPT:
A) agency costs.
B) political risk.
C) asymmetric information.
D) In fact, each of these costs were higher for the MNE than for the domestic firm.

Answers

Answer:

D) In fact, each of these costs were higher for the MNE than for the domestic firm.

Explanation:

It has been concluded through empirical studies, that Multinational Enterprises, MNEs encounters various factors leading to lower debt ratios and a higher cost of long-term debt, such as greater agency costs, political risk, asymmetric information, and foreign exchange risk,

Hence, given the question above, the right answer is option D "In fact, each of these costs was higher for the MNE than for the domestic firm."

Suppose that the value of an investment in the stock market has increased at an average compound rate of about 5% since 1912. It is now 2016. a. If someone invested $1,000 in 1912, how much would that investment be worth today?

Answers

Answer:

FV= $159,840.60

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Initial investment= $1,000

Number of years= 2016 - 1912= 104

Interest rate= 5%

To calculate the value of the investment today, we need to use the following formula:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

FV= 1,000*(1.05^104)

FV= $159,840.60

Three months ago, you purchased a stock for $54.14. The stock is currently priced at $57.36. What is the EAR on your investment?

Answers

Answer:

The EAR on the investment is 23.79%

Explanation:

Here, we are concerned with calculating the EAR on the stock investment.

Firstly, we start with calculating the return on shares

Mathematically, that is; P1 - P0

From the question P1 = $57.36 while P0 = $54.14

So Return on shares = $57.36-$54.14 = $3.22

We proceed with calculating the Return on shares in percentage

Mathematically;

Return on shares in % = Return on shares/P0 * 100

= 3.22/54.14 * 100 = 5.95%

Lastly we calculate the effective annual interest;

The effective annual interest = 5.95%/3 * 12 = 23.79%

The EAR on the investment is 23.79%

Calculation of EAR:

Since Three months ago, you purchased a stock for $54.14. The stock is currently priced at $57.36.

So, the difference of the price is

= $57.36-$54.14

= $3.22

Now return on shares should be

= 3.22/54.14 * 100

= 5.95%

Now EAR is

= 5.95%/3 * 12

= 23.79%

Learn more about rate here: https://brainly.com/question/19312178

The before-trade domestic price of tomatoes in the United States is $500 per ton. The world price of tomatoes is $400 per ton. The U.S. is a price-taker in the tomatoes market.
If trade in tomatoes is allowed, the United States:______
a) will experience increases in both consumer surplus and producer surplus.
b) may become either an importer or an exporter of tomatoes, but this cannot be determined.
c) will become an exporter of tomatoes.
d) will become an importer of tomatoes.

Answers

Answer:

d) will become an importer of tomatoes.

Explanation:

Consumer surplus would increase because the price at which they buy tomatoes would reduce while producer surplus would reduce because the price of tomatoes would reduce as a result of international trade.

Consumer surplus is the difference between the willingness to pay of a consumer and the price of the good.Because the price of tomatoes in the US is greater than the price of tomatoes in the world, when the US begins international trade, it would import tomatoes because it is inefficient in the production of tomatoes.  

Producer surplus is the difference between the price of a good and the least price the seller is willing to sell the product

Instruments had retained earnings of at December​ 31, . Net income for totaled ​, and dividends declared for were . How much retained earnings should report at December​ 31, ​?

Answers

Answer:

B. $ 490,000

Explanation:

According to the given situation, the computation of retained earning in the year end is shown below:-

Ending retained earning = Beginning Retained Earnings + Net Income for the year - Dividend

= $360,000 + $180,000 - $50,000

= $490,000

Therefore for computing the ending retained earning we simply applied the above formula.

What is the present value of a perpetuity that pays you annual, end-of-year payments of $950? Use a nominal rate (monthly compounding) of 7.50%.

Answers

Answer:

The present value of the perpetuity is $12,242.27.

Explanation:

A perpetuity is an annuity that provide cash flow for an infinite period .Examples are Non -redeemable Preference Share.

Present Value (perpetuity) = Payments ÷ Required Rate

But, first change the 7.50 % nominal rate to Annual Effective Rate to match the period of Cash flow.

Effective Rate = (1 + r / m)^m - 1

                       = ( 1 + 0.0750 / 12) ^12 -1

                       = 7.76%

Therefore, Present Value (perpetuity) = $950 ÷  7.76%

                                                              = $12,242.27

At the certain interest rate, present value (PV) is the current value of a future sum of money or stream of cash flows.

The discount rate determines the present value of the cash flows, and the higher the discount rate, the lower the current value of future cash flows.

The present value of the perpetuity is $12,242.27.

A perpetuity is an annuity that payments out during an indefinite period of time. Non-redeemable Preference Share is an example.

Present Value (perpetuity) = [tex]\frac{\text{Payments}}{\text{Required Rate}}[/tex]

However, to match the Working capital period, change a 7.50 percent nominal rate to a Yearly Effective Tax rate.

[tex]\text{Effective Rate} = (1 + \frac{r}{m} )^m - 1= [1 + \frac{0.0750}{12}]^{12} -1= 7.76\%[/tex]

Therefore, Present Value (perpetuity)= [tex]\frac{\$950}{7.76\%} = $12,242.27[/tex]

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A firm's total cost function is given by the equation TC=4000+5Q+10Q and marginal cost is given by the equation MC=5+20Q
(A) Write an expression for each of the following cost concepts:
a. Total Fixed Cost
b. Average Fixed Cost
c. Total Variable Cost
d. Average Variable Cost
e. Average Total Cost
(B) Calculate the values of marginal cost and the costs in (a)-(e) above for Q=0,1,2,3.
(C) Determine the quantity that minimizes average total cost. Demonstrate that the predicted relationship between marginal cost and average cost holds.

Answers

The answer is A because of 5q allowing it to be MC

Following are the calculation to the given question:

[tex]\to TC = 4,000 + 5Q + 10 \ Q2\\\\\to MC = 5 + 20\ Q\\\\[/tex]

For point A)

[tex](a)\ TFC = 4,000\\\\(b)\ AFC = \frac{TFC}{ Q} = \frac{4,000}{ Q}\\\\(c)\ TVC = 5Q + 10\ Q2\\\\(d)\ AVC = \frac{TVC }{Q} = 50 + 10\ Q\\\\(e)\ ATC = \frac{TC }{ Q} = (\frac{4,000}{ Q}) + 50 + 10Q \ \text{Also, ATC = AVC + AFC}\\\\[/tex]

For point B)

TFC remains unchanged at 4,000, regardless of the price of Q.

i)

[tex]\to Q = 0[/tex]

AFC, AVC, and ATC cannot be calculated (division by zero is not possible).

ii)

[tex]Q = 1\\\\AFC =\frac{4,000}{ 1} = 4,000\\\\TVC = (5 \times 1) + (10 \times 1) =5 + 10 = 15\\\\AVC = \frac{TVC}{ Q} = \frac{15}{1} = 15\\\\ATC = 4,000 + 15 = 4,015\\\\MC = 5 + (20 \times 10 = 5 + 20 = 25[/tex]

iii)

[tex]Q = 2\\\\AFC = \frac{4,000}{ 2} = 2,000\\\\TVC = (5 \times 2) + (10 \times 2 \times 2) = 10 + 40 = 50\\\\AVC = \frac{50}{2} = 25\\\\ATC = 2,000 + 25 = 2,025\\\\MC = 5 + (20 \times 2) = 5 + 40 = 45\\\\[/tex]

iv)

[tex]Q = 3\\\\AFC = \frac{4,000}{ 3} = 1,333.33\\\\TVC = (5 \times 3) + (10 \times 3 \times 3) = 15 + 90 = 105\\\\AVC = \frac{105}{3} = 35\\\\ATC = 1,333.33 + 35 = 1,368.33\\\\MC = 5 + (20 \times 3) = 5 + 60 = 65\\\\[/tex]

For point C)

i)

[tex]ATC[/tex] is minimized when [tex]\frac{dATC}{dQ} = 0[/tex]

[tex](- \frac{4,000}{Q2} ) + 10 = 0\\\\\frac{4,000}{Q2} = 10\\\\Q2 = 400\\\\Q = 20\\[/tex]

ii)

Part (B) shows that as MC increases from Q = 0 to Q = 3, ATC decreases, validating the link.

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Conor Airlines Inc. recently issued $50 par value preferred stock that pays a 8.25% dividend rate per year. Yahoo.finance shows that the stock has a beta of 0.97. The current risk-free rate is 2.50% and the market return is 11%. Assuming that CAPM holds, what is the intrinsic value of this preferred stock?

Answers

Answer: $38.39

Explanation:

First calculate the required return according to CAPM;

Required return = Risk free rate + beta ( market return - risk free rate)

= 2.50% + 0.97 ( 11% - 2.50%)

= 10.745%

Then using the Dividend discount model and remembering that there is no growth rate;

Value = Next dividend / ( required return - growth rate)

= (50 * 8.25%) / ( 10.745% - 0)

= 4.125/10.745%

= $38.39

Answer:

$38.29

Explanation:

Ke = Rf+Beta*(Rm-Rf)

Ke=0.0250+0.97*(0.11+0.0250)

Ke=0.10745

Ke=10.75 appr.

Po= Dividend / (Ke-g)

Po= 50*0.0825 / (0.10745 - 0)

Po=4.125/0.10745

Po=38.3899

Po=38.29

Thus, the intrinsiv value of this preferred stock is $38.29

Sam has contracted with Dave to purchase Dave's racing bike, with payment and delivery of the bicycle to be made 10 days after the contract was made. Three days later Sam hears that Dave is going to sell the bike to Gene in three days at a higher price. If Sam really wants the bike, what should he do? Multiple Choice Immediately seek injunctive relief. Immediately sue for specific performance. Immediately sue for compensatory damages. Immediately sue for consequential damages.

Answers

Answer: Immediately seek injunctive relief.

Explanation:

An injunctive relief is an order by the court stopping an action from taking place. From the question, we are told that Sam has contracted with Dave to buy Dave's racing bike, with payment and delivery of the bicycle to be made 10 days after the contract was made.

We are further told that three days later Sam hears that Dave is going to sell the bike to Gene in three days at a higher price. If Sam really wants the bike, he should seek injunctive relief. By doing so, the court will stop Dave from selling the bike to Gene.

21. A noncancelable lease contains an option to purchase a leased asset at a price that is sufficiently lower than the asset's expected fair value so that the exercise of the option appears reasonably certain. The fair value of the asset exceeds the lessor's cost of the asset. Therefore, the lease will be accounted for by the lessor as a(n):

Answers

Answer: A. Sales-type lease

Explanation:

A Sales type lease is one where the present value of all the lease payments of the Asset being leased is more than the cost/ carrying amount of the Asset.

The present value of the lease Payments is the Fair Value of the asset and as seen from the question, the fair value of the asset is more than the cost of the Asset. The lease will therefore be accounted for as a Sales type lease by the lessor.

It is worthy of note that this entry affects only the lessor.

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