Which Of The Following Statements Is Not Included In The Auditor's Responsibilities For The Audit Of The Financial Statements Section Of The Standard (Unmodified) Report? Multiple Choice "In Accordance With Accounting Principles Generally Accepted In The United States Of America." "Our Objectives Are To Obtain Reasonable Assurance…And To Issue An
Which of the following statements is not included in the Auditor's Responsibilities for the Audit of the Financial Statements Section of the standard (unmodified) report?
Multiple Choice
"In accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America."
"Our objectives are to obtain reasonable assurance…and to issue an auditor’s report that includes our opinion"
"…it is not a guarantee that an audit conducted in accordance with GAAS will always detect a material misstatement…"
"Reasonable assurance is a high level of assurance but is not absolute assurance…"

Answers

Answer 1

The statement that is not included in the Auditor's Responsibilities for the Audit of the Financial Statements Section of the standard (unmodified) report is:

"Reasonable assurance is a high level of assurance but is not absolute assurance…"

The Auditor's Responsibilities section of the standard (unmodified) report typically includes statements such as:

1. "In accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America."

2. "Our objectives are to obtain reasonable assurance…and to issue an auditor's report that includes our opinion."

3. "…it is not a guarantee that an audit conducted in accordance with GAAS will always detect a material misstatement…"

These statements outline the auditor's responsibilities, objectives, and limitations. They emphasize the adherence to accounting principles, the goal of obtaining reasonable assurance, and the recognition that an audit conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS) does not provide absolute assurance of detecting all material misstatements.

However, the statement "Reasonable assurance is a high level of assurance but is not absolute assurance…" is not typically included in the Auditor's Responsibilities section of the standard (unmodified) report. While it is a true statement about the nature of assurance provided by an audit, it is not explicitly included in the report's responsibilities section.

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Related Questions

Which of the following analyses reflect the data given? *Differences due to rounding Which of the following analyses reflect the data given? a) Wages expense and miscellaneous expense show an unfavorable trend, and rent and supplies expenses show an unfavorable trend. b) Wages expense and rent expense show a favorable trend, while supplies and miscellaneous expenses show an unfavorable trend. C) Wages expense and supplies expense show a favorable trend, while rent and miscellaneous expenses show an unfavorable trend. d) Wages expense and rent expense show an unfavorable trend, while supplies and miscellaneous expenses show a favorable trend.

Answers

Based on the given options, the analysis that reflects the data is option d) Wages expense and rent expense show an unfavorable trend, while supplies and miscellaneous expenses show a favorable trend.

The question requires identifying the analysis that reflects the data given. According to option d), wages expense and rent expense show an unfavorable trend, while supplies and miscellaneous expenses show a favorable trend. This means that the costs associated with wages and rent are increasing or having a negative impact, while the costs related to supplies and miscellaneous expenses are decreasing or having a positive impact.

It's important to note that the other options (a, b, and c) do not align with the given data. Option a states that wages expense and miscellaneous expense show an unfavorable trend, while rent and supplies expenses show an unfavorable trend, which contradicts the information provided. Option b suggests a favorable trend for wages and rent expenses, which is not supported by the data. Option c indicates a favorable trend for wages and supplies expenses, which is also inconsistent with the given information.

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Advocates of the balanced scorecard approach to performance measurement in organisations claim its wider scope ensures that drivers of organisational performance are considered as well as financial results. Critically evaluate the balanced scorecard and for each aspect of the scorecard identify key performance measures that could be used in an organisation of your choice.

Answers

The balanced scorecard (BSC) is a performance measurement framework that goes beyond traditional financial metrics to include non-financial aspects that are essential for an organization's success. long-

Critically evaluating the balanced scorecard, some of its key advantages include:

1. Comprehensive Performance Assessment: The BSC considers multiple dimensions of performance, enabling organizations to assess their financial health, customer satisfaction.

2. Alignment of Objectives: The BSC helps align organizational objectives across different departments and functions.

3. Communication and Transparency: The BSC facilitates effective communication and transparency by clearly articulating the strategic objectives and performance measures to all stakeholders.

4. Strategy Execution: The BSC links performance measures to the organization's strategy, ensuring that actions and initiatives are aligned with strategic goals.

For each aspect of the balanced scorecard, here are some key performance measures that could be used in an organization of your choice:

1. Financial Perspective:

Revenue growth rate

Return on investment (ROI)

Profit margin

2. Customer Perspective:

Customer satisfaction score

Customer retention rate

Market share

Number of new customers acquired

Customer complaints and resolution time

3. Internal Processes Perspective:

Cycle time for product/service delivery

Quality metrics (e.g., defect rate)

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A time series has the following MA representation: y t

=∑ j=0
[infinity]

0.5 j
ε t−j

, where ε t

∼iidN(0,0.25) (normal distribution with mean 0 and variance 0.25 ). (a) [ 3 marks] Is {y t

} a martingale difference sequence? Justify your answer with a proof. (b) [ 3 marks ] is {y t

} stationary? Why or why not? (c) [4 marks] Derive the AR representation of {y t

}. If an AR representation does not exist, explain why not. (d) [4 marks] Compute the unconditional mean and variance of {y t

}. (e) [4 marks] Derive the autocorrelation function (ACF) of {y t

}. (f) [4 marks] Plot the ACF and partial autocorrelation function (PACF) of {y t

}. (g) Little Bob studies the following MA model instead: z t

=∑ j=0
[infinity]

0.5 j
ε t−2j

, where ε t

∼ iid N(0,0.25). (i) [ 2 marks] Plot the ACF and PACF of {z t

}. (ii) [4 marks] Compare and discuss how a negative shock today will have an impact on the future values of y t

and z t

.

Answers

To determine if {y_t} is a martingale difference sequence, we need to check if it satisfies the martingale difference property, which states that the conditional expectation of the next value.

Let's calculate the conditional expectation of y_t+1 given the information available at time t:

E[y_t+1 | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t] = E[∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j ε_t+1-j | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t]

Since ε_t+1 is independent of y_t, y_t-1, ..., y_0, we can take it out of the conditional expectation:

E[y_t+1 | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t] = ∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j E[ε_t+1-j | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t]

The expectation of ε_t+1-j given the information available at time t depends only on ε_t-j. Since ε_t-j is independent of y_0, y_1, ..., y_t, its expectation is 0:

E[ε_t+1-j | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t] = E[ε_t-j] = 0

Therefore, we have:

E[y_t+1 | y_0, y_1, ..., y_t] = ∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j * 0 = 0

(b) To determine if {y_t} is stationary, we need to check if its mean and autocovariance are independent of time.

The mean of {y_t} is given by:

E[y_t] = E[∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j ε_t-j]

Since ε_t-j ~ N(0, 0.25), its mean is 0:

E[y_t] = E[∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j * 0] = 0

The variance of {y_t} is given by:

Var[y_t] = Var[∑(j=0 to infinity) 0.5^j ε_t-j]

Since ε_t-j are independent and identically distributed with variance 0.25, we can use the property Var[aX] = a^2 * Var[X]:

Var[y_t] = ∑(j=0 to infinity) (0.5^j)^2 * Var[ε_t-j] = ∑(j=0 to infinity) (0.5^j)^2 * 0.25 = 0.25 * ∑(j=0 to infinity) (0.5^j)^2

The sum ∑(j=0 to infinity) (0.5^j)^2 is a geometric series with a common ratio of (0.5^2) = 0.25, which converges:

Var[y_t] = 0.25 * ∑(j=0 to infinity) (0.5^j)^2 = 0.25 * (1 / (1 - 0.25)) = 0.25 * (1 / 0.75) = 1/3.

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Which of the following are likely to occur during job expansion periods?
A. New hire rates increase for entry level jobs, but decrease for higher level jobs
B. Departure of some employees to take opportunities at other firms
C. Stagnation of movement through internal labor markets
D. Reductions in turnover rates

Answers

Option A, B, and D are likely to occur during job expansion periods. Option C is not a likely outcome.

The following are likely to occur during job expansion periods:

A) New hire rates increase for entry-level jobs, but decrease for higher-level jobs. During the expansion period, the number of jobs increases significantly. The company would hire new employees at an entry-level position to meet the growing demands of the business.

B) Departure of some employees to take opportunities at other firms. In an expanding job market, job opportunities are ample, which leads to employees' departure to other firms with better salary and working conditions.

C) Stagnation of movement through internal labor markets. Internal labor markets offer promotion opportunities to existing employees. However, during expansion periods, the company tends to hire new employees to meet the growing demand rather than promoting the existing ones, leading to stagnation of movement.

D) Reductions in turnover rates. The expansion of job opportunities reduces the turnover rate. It means that employees are more likely to stay in their current positions rather than quitting their jobs to find better opportunities.Based on the above discussion, option A, B, and D are likely to occur during job expansion periods. Option C is not a likely outcome.

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On December 31, 2019, Marin Inc. borrowed $3,540,000 at 13% payable annually to finance the construction of a new building. In 2020 , the company made the following expenditures related to this building: March 1,$424,800; June 1,$708,000; July 1 , $1,770,000; December 1, $1,770,000. The building was completed in February 2021. Additional information is provided as follows. Determine the amount of interest to be capitalized in 2020 in relation to the construction of the building.

Answers

The amount of interest to be capitalized in 2020 for the construction of the building is $301,400. This is calculated by multiplying the average accumulated expenditures during the construction period ($2,424,800) by the interest rate (13%).

To determine the interest to be capitalized, we need to calculate the average accumulated expenditures during the construction period. The total expenditures in 2020 amount to $4,672,800 ($424,800 + $708,000 + $1,770,000 + $1,770,000). The average accumulated expenditures is obtained by dividing this total by the number of periods (4), resulting in $1,168,200. Multiplying this by the interest rate of 13% gives us $301,400, which represents the amount of interest to be capitalized in 2020.

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Imagine you are a bank manager. Currently, your bank holds $1 million in deposits at a 4% interest rate. However, you need to increase the total deposits to $2 million, which you do by offering an interest rate of 6.91%. Using the midpoint method, calculate the interest rate elasticity of savings. If necessary, round all intermediate calculations and your final answer to two decimal places.

Answers

The interest rate elasticity of savings using the midpoint method is 1.25, indicating that a 1% increase in the interest rate leads to a 1.25% increase in deposits.

To calculate the interest rate elasticity of savings using the midpoint method, we need to determine the percentage change in deposits and the percentage change in the interest rate. The formula for elasticity is:

Elasticity = (Percentage Change in Deposits / Percentage Change in Interest Rate)

First, let's calculate the percentage change in deposits:

Initial Deposits = $1,000,000

Final Deposits = $2,000,000

Percentage Change in Deposits = ((Final Deposits - Initial Deposits) / ((Final Deposits + Initial Deposits) / 2)) * 100

Percentage Change in Deposits = ((2,000,000 - 1,000,000) / ((2,000,000 + 1,000,000) / 2)) * 100

Percentage Change in Deposits = (1,000,000 / 1,500,000) * 100

Percentage Change in Deposits = 66.67%

Next, let's calculate the percentage change in the interest rate:

Initial Interest Rate = 4%

Final Interest Rate = 6.91%

Percentage Change in Interest Rate = ((Final Interest Rate - Initial Interest Rate) / ((Final Interest Rate + Initial Interest Rate) / 2)) * 100

Percentage Change in Interest Rate = ((6.91 - 4) / ((6.91 + 4) / 2)) * 100

Percentage Change in Interest Rate = (2.91 / 5.455) * 100

Percentage Change in Interest Rate = 53.41%

Now, we can calculate the interest rate elasticity of savings:

Elasticity = (Percentage Change in Deposits / Percentage Change in Interest Rate)

Elasticity = 66.67% / 53.41%

Elasticity = 1.25

Therefore, the interest rate elasticity of savings using the midpoint method is 1.25.

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Problem 2-2 Building an Income Statement [LO1] Nataro, Incorporated, has sales of $669,000, costs of $331,000, depreciation expense of $75,000, Interest expense of $47,500, and a tax rate of 22 percent. What is the net Income for this firm? (Do not round Intermediate calculations.)

Answers

The Net Income for Nataro, Incorporated is $79,360 given that Nataro, Incorporated, has sales of $669,000, costs of $331,000, depreciation expense of $75,000, Interest expense of $47,500, and a tax rate of 22 percent.

Given data; Sales $669,000Costs $331,000

Depreciation expense $75,000

Interest expense $47,500Tax rate 22%

To find Net Income We will use the formula:

Net Income = (Sales - Cost - Depreciation - Interest)(1 - Tax Rate)

Net Income = (669,000 - 331,000 - 75,000 - 47,500)(1 - 0.22)

Net Income = $79,360

Therefore, the Net Income for Nataro, Incorporated is $79,360.

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The country of Keynesland is producing at their equilibrium GDP of $100 b of output. In the past fiscal year, the increase in overall Disposable Income was $100 m and overall consumption increased by $60m. Recently, there has been a drop in consumer confidence which has produced a recessionary gap of $40 billion. The council of economic advisors knows that they must act quickly. You are the chairman of the council. You must calculate the following before you make your recommendations: What is the MPC? What is the MPS? What is the multiplier? If the government wanted to increase government spending to close the recessionary gap, how much G would be required? Question 2: Based on the information in this chapter, what is the risk of too much injection into the economy to offset a recessionary gap?

Answers

To calculate the MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume), we divide the change in consumption by the change in disposable income:

To close the recessionary gap, the government would need to increase government spending by $100 billion.

MPC = Change in Consumption / Change in Disposable Income

Given that the change in overall consumption is $60 million and the increase in overall disposable income is $100 million:

MPC = $60 million / $100 million

MPC = 0.6

The MPS (Marginal Propensity to Save) can be calculated as:

MPS = 1 - MPC

MPS = 1 - 0.6

MPS = 0.4

The multiplier can be calculated using the formula:

Multiplier = 1 / MPS

Multiplier = 1 / 0.4

Multiplier = 2.5

To close the recessionary gap of $40 billion, the government would need to use the multiplier effect by increasing government spending (G) by a certain amount. The formula to calculate the required government spending is:

Change in G = (Multiplier * Change in GDP)

Change in G = (2.5 * -$40 billion)

Change in G = -$100 billion

Therefore, to close the recessionary gap, the government would need to increase government spending by $100 billion.

Question 2: The risk of too much injection into the economy to offset a recessionary gap is the potential for inflationary pressures. If the government injects too much money into the economy, it can lead to excessive demand, which may cause prices to rise and result in inflation. It is important for the government to carefully manage the amount of injection to strike a balance between stimulating economic activity and maintaining price stability.

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Al is a medical doctor who conducts his practice as a sole proprietor. During 2021, he received cash of $672,400 for medical services. Of the amount collected, $43,200 was for services provided in 2020. At the end of 2021, Al had accounts receivable of $89,700, all for services rendered in 2021. In addition, at the end of the year, Al received $10,000 as an advance payment from a health maintenance organization (HMO) for services to be rendered in 2022. a. Compute Al's gross income for 2021 using the cash basis of accounting. b. Compute Al's gross income for 2021 using the accrual basis of accounting.

Answers

a. To compute Al's gross income for 2021 using the cash basis of accounting, we consider only the cash received during the year:

Cash received for medical services in 2021: $672,400

Minus: Cash received for services provided in 2020: $43,200

Gross income for 2021 (cash basis): $672,400 - $43,200 = $629,200

b. To compute Al's gross income for 2021 using the accrual basis of accounting, we consider the revenue earned during the year, regardless of when the cash is received:

Cash received for medical services in 2021: $672,400

Plus: Accounts receivable at the end of 2021 for services rendered in 2021: $89,700

Plus: Advance payment received for services to be rendered in 2022: $10,000

Gross income for 2021 (accrual basis): $672,400 + $89,700 + $10,000 = $772,100

Therefore, using the cash basis of accounting, Al's gross income for 2021 is $629,200, while using the accrual basis of accounting, his gross income for 2021 is $772,100. The accrual basis takes into account revenue earned during the year, regardless of when the cash is received, providing a more comprehensive view of Al's financial performance.

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Unlike in-person conferences, with virtual events, we don’t have to make higher dollar investments, and virtual events will continue growing in popularity. However, not every event will remain fully virtual. It is believed that the first market that’s going to come back for in-person events are going to be the massive trade shows. Please give reasons why for particular events market clients, such as trade show market, it is important to meet in person. You can provide a short answer - a couple or a few sentences.

Answers

In-person trade shows are important for particular event markets like the trade show industry because they provide opportunities for face-to-face networking, showcasing products and services, and fostering direct business interactions that are difficult to replicate in a virtual environment.

Trade shows serve as a crucial platform for industries to come together, connect, and showcase their latest products and services. In-person events allow exhibitors and attendees to engage in direct, personal interactions, which can lead to building stronger relationships, exploring new business opportunities, and generating potential leads. Face-to-face networking enables the exchange of ideas, collaborations, and partnerships, fostering a sense of trust and credibility. Additionally, physical trade shows offer tangible experiences, allowing attendees to see, touch, and experience products firsthand, which can greatly impact purchasing decisions. While virtual events offer convenience and cost-effectiveness, the immersive and dynamic nature of in-person trade shows remains unparalleled, making them vital for certain markets and industries.

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Discuss the types of information technology and main components within a business.

Answers

Information Technology (IT) encompasses a wide range of technologies and components that business utilize to manage and process information effectively.

Here are some types of information technology and their main components commonly found in businesses:

1. Hardware: Hardware refers to the physical equipment used in IT systems. This includes computers, servers, networking devices (routers, switches), storage devices (hard drives, solid-state drives), and peripheral devices (printers, scanners).

2. Networking and Telecommunications: Networking technologies facilitate communication and data transfer within and outside the organization. This includes Local Area Networks (LANs), Wide Area Networks (WANs), routers, switches, firewalls, and wireless networks. Telecommunications technologies enable voice and data communication over long distances, such as through telephone systems, VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol), video conferencing, and mobile networks.

3. Database Management Systems (DBMS): DBMS is software that manages databases, which are structured collections of data. DBMS allows organizations to store, organize, retrieve, and analyze large amounts of data efficiently. It includes features for data security, integrity, and query optimization.

4. Cloud Computing: Cloud computing involves the delivery of computing services over the internet. It provides access to a shared pool of resources, such as storage, processing power, and applications, without the need for on-premises infrastructure. Cloud services include Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS).

5. Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML): AI and ML technologies enable machines to learn, reason, and perform tasks that typically require human intelligence. These technologies can automate processes, improve decision-making, and enable predictive capabilities. Examples include bots, image recognition systems, and recommendation engines.

The specific technologies and components used by a business will depend on its size, industry, and specific needs. Businesses often leverage a combination of these technologies to optimize their operations, enhance productivity, and gain a competitive advantage in the digital age.

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City of Tshwane Metropolitan has appointed you to be their supply chain management manager. After engaging with the relevant employees from the supply chain management department, you have identified that the municipality has been experiencing challenges in rolling out a total quality management programme. As their supply chain management consultant, elaborate on the various quality costs and discuss how a Total Quality Management Programme implementation can be used to enhance quality improvement to avoid these types of costs in the near future?

Answers

There are various quality costs that an organization may incur due to poor quality management. These include:

Prevention Costs: These are costs that are incurred to prevent defects from occurring. Examples include the cost of training, process improvement, and quality planning.

Appraisal Costs: These costs are associated with monitoring and measuring the quality of products or services. Examples include the cost of inspection, testing, and quality audits.

Internal Failure Costs: These are costs incurred due to defects that are detected before the final product is delivered to the customer. Examples include the cost of rework, scrap, and downtime.

External Failure Costs: These are costs incurred due to defects that are detected after the final product is delivered to the customer. Examples include the cost of warranty claims, customer complaints, and product recalls.

A Total Quality Management (TQM) Programme can be used to enhance quality improvement and avoid these types of costs in the future. TQM is a continuous improvement approach that involves all employees in an organization, with a focus on meeting customer needs and expectations. It includes the following key elements: Leadership commitment and involvement, Customer focus, Continuous improvement, Employee involvement, Process improvement and Strategic planning.

Through the implementation of a TQM programme, the organization can identify the root causes of poor quality management and develop strategies to address them. For example, the prevention of defects can be achieved through employee training, supplier quality management, and effective process improvement. This will reduce the need for appraisal costs.

Similarly, the identification of defects early in the production process through the use of quality control techniques can reduce the occurrence of internal and external failure costs.

In conclusion, a Total Quality Management (TQM) Programme can be used to enhance quality improvement and avoid the various quality costs that an organization may incur due to poor quality management. By improving customer satisfaction, reducing costs, and enhancing employee engagement, the TQM approach can be a valuable tool for supply chain management managers in improving the overall performance of an organization.

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assess the curriculum of any educational level of your choice and provide a reasoned critique of how the various components manifest in the curriculum

Answers

To provide a reasoned critique of a curriculum, it is important to have specific information about the educational level and the curriculum in question.

Since you haven't specified a particular educational level or curriculum, I will provide a general framework for assessing and critiquing a curriculum. You can apply this framework to the curriculum of your reasoned  choice. Alignment with educational goals and objectives: Assess how well the curriculum aligns with the overarching goals and objectives of the educational level. Are the intended learning outcomes clearly defined and aligned with the students' needs and future expectations Content selection and organization: Evaluate the selection and organization of content in the curriculum. Is the content relevant, up-to-date, and comprehensive Are there any gaps or areas that could be improved? Consider the balance between breadth and depth of topics covered. Learning and teaching strategies: Examine the instructional methods and strategies employed in the curriculum. Are they diverse and cater to different learning styles Do they promote active engagement, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills? Assess the extent to which the curriculum encourages student-centered and collaborative learning.

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On August 16, 2012, a bond had a market price of $8,240.66 and
accrued interest of $157.95 when the market rate was 8%. What is
the bond's face value if it matures on May 15, 2033?

Answers

The bond's face value if it matures on May 15, 2033, is $8,000.

The formula for determining bond price is:$B = \frac{I}{(1+i)^n} + \frac{F}{(1+i)^n}Where,$B = Bond priceF = Face value of the bondI = Annual interest paymentn = Number of years to maturityi = Market interest rate expressed as a decimal fractionSubstituting the given values in the formula, we get,$8,240.66 = \frac{157.95}{(1+\frac{8\%}{2})^{39-2}} + \frac{F}{(1+\frac{8\%}{2})^{39}}$Solving the equation, we get,$F = $8,000The bond's face value if it matures on May 15, 2033, is $8,000.

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Waupaca Company establishes a $310 petty cash fund on September 9. On September 30, the fund shows $94 in cash along with receipts for the following expenditures: transportation-in, $42; postage expenses, $64; and miscellaneous expenses, $107. The petty cashier could not account for a $3 shortage in the fund. The company uses the perpetual system in accounting for merchandise inventory. Prepare (1) the September 9 entry to establish the fund, (2) the September 30 entry to reimburse the fund, and (3) an October 1 entry to increase the fund to $350.

Answers

(1) The September 9 entry to establish the petty cash fund:

Date Account Debit Credit

September 9 Petty Cash $310

Cash $310

Explanation:

To establish the petty cash fund, the company debits the Petty Cash account and credits the Cash account for the same amount of $310.

(2) The September 30 entry to reimburse the petty cash fund:

Date Account Debit Credit

September 30 Transportation-in Expense $42

Postage Expense $64

Miscellaneous Expense $107

Cash $213

Petty Cash $213

Explanation:

To reimburse the petty cash fund, the company debits the appropriate expense accounts (Transportation-in Expense, Postage Expense, and Miscellaneous Expense) for their respective amounts. Then, it debits the Cash account for the total amount of the reimbursement, which is $213. Finally, it credits the Petty Cash account for the same amount of $213.

(3) The October 1 entry to increase the petty cash fund to $350:

Date Account Debit Credit

October 1 Petty Cash $40

Cash $40

Explanation:

To increase the petty cash fund to $350, the company debits the Petty Cash account for the additional amount of $40. It then credits the Cash account for the same amount of $40.

Please note that these journal entries are based on the information provided. The specific account names and amounts may vary based on the company's chart of accounts and internal policies. It is always recommended to consult with an accounting professional for accurate and specific journal entries.

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Question 1:
TRUE OR FALSE: The following is an example of Moral Hazard - A
manager does not observe the
amount of effort the worker is exerting, and because of that,
the total level of production is

Answers

The given statement, "A manager does not observe the amount of effort the worker is exerting, and because of that, the total level of production is lower than in the case where effort is observable" is true because a lack of managerial observation can create a moral hazard by reducing the worker's accountability and incentivizing them to exert less effort.

In a situation where a manager cannot observe the amount of effort exerted by a worker, a moral hazard arises. The lack of observability creates an opportunity for the worker to shirk or reduce their level of effort without consequences. As a result, the total level of production tends to be lower compared to a scenario where the manager can monitor and incentivize the worker's effort. When effort is unobservable, workers may take advantage of the situation, knowing that their actions or lack of effort will go unnoticed, potentially leading to decreased productivity and suboptimal outcomes for the organization.

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The complete question is:

TRUE OR FALSE: The following is an example of Moral Hazard - A manager does not observe the amount of effort the worker is exerting, and because of that, the total level of production is lower than in the case where effort is observable.

A positive NPV means the return from a project exceeds the _____, the return available by investing the capital elsewhere.

Answers

A positive NPV means the return from a project exceeds the initial investment, the return available by investing the capital else.


When evaluating investment projects, NPV is a financial metric used to assess the profitability and value generated by a project over its lifetime. It calculates the difference between the present value of cash inflows and outflows associated with the project. A positive NPV indicates that the present value of expected cash inflows exceeds the initial investment and the required rate of return.

In this context, the return available by investing the capital elsewhere refers to the opportunity cost of investing in the project. It represents the return that could be earned by investing the same capital in an alternative investment with similar risk and return characteristics. A positive NPV suggests that the project's returns are higher than the opportunity cost, indicating that the project is expected to generate value and provide a higher return compared to alternative investment options.

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The company Tabaco Inc. with the shareholders equity shown below declares a stock dividend of 16 percent.
The market value of its common stock is €110 per share, while the par value is 3.
Common stock 100.000 €
Capital surplus 2.450.000 €
Retained earnings 1.000.000 €
Total owners' equity 3.550.000 €
How many shares are they going to issue?
What is the new statement of shareholders Equity?

Answers

Tabaco Inc. will issue approximately 14,546 shares as a stock dividend.

To determine the number of shares to be issued as a stock dividend, we need to calculate 16% of the total number of existing shares. The total owners' equity of Tabaco Inc. is €3,550,000, which includes common stock, capital surplus, and retained earnings. Since the stock dividend is declared on the common stock, we only consider the common stock value, which is €100,000.

To find the number of shares, we divide the common stock value by the par value per share. The par value is €3, so the number of existing shares is 100,000 / 3 = 33,333 shares.

Now, we calculate 16% of 33,333 shares, which is approximately 5,333 shares.

Therefore, Tabaco Inc. will issue approximately 5,333 new shares as a stock dividend.

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Being the marketing executive of a company explain and exemplify innovative marketing techniques that you consider appropriate form products.

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As a marketing executive, implementing innovative techniques is crucial for promoting products effectively. Two examples of such techniques are influencer marketing and interactive content.

One innovative marketing technique that can be highly effective for promoting products is influencer marketing. This involves collaborating with popular social media influencers or content creators who have a significant following and influence over their audience. By partnering with influencers who align with the brand's values and target audience, companies can leverage their reach to promote their products. The influencers can create engaging content such as sponsored posts, videos, or reviews, showcasing the product's features and benefits. This approach helps to build trust, credibility, and authenticity, as the audience sees a familiar face endorsing the product.

Another innovative technique is the use of interactive content. With the rise of digital platforms and technology, interactive content provides a unique and engaging way to connect with consumers. Examples of interactive content include quizzes, polls, augmented reality (AR), virtual reality (VR), and 360-degree videos. These formats encourage active participation from the audience, creating an immersive experience that captures their attention and leaves a lasting impression. Interactive content not only entertains but also educates and informs consumers about the product's features, use cases, and benefits. By incorporating interactive elements into marketing campaigns, companies can enhance customer engagement, increase brand awareness, and drive conversions.

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On which one of these occasions does a company not record a change in the value of an asset? When the asset is sold When the asset is leased When the asset is bought When the asset gets destroyed When the asset gets refurbished Never - any change in value must be recorded

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A company does not record a change in the value of an asset when the asset is leased. Leasing an asset does not result in a change in its value on the company's books.

The company records the lease agreement and related lease payments but does not adjust the value of the asset itself.

The ownership of the asset remains with the lessor, and the lessee typically accounts for the lease as an operating expense or a financing arrangement, depending on the nature of the lease. However, it's important to note that any change in value of the asset, such as depreciation or impairment, should still be recorded by the company that owns the asset and not the lessee.

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Analyse the case study and discuss how important the transformative opportunity of 41R in Africa is? Use examples from your country to substantiate your arguments. Question 2 Consider and argue how increasing financial services and investment in 4IR has the transformative potential in Africa? Use African country-based example(s) to support your answer.

Answers

The Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) is a period of rapid technological change that is transforming the way we live, work, and do business.

What is it about?

It is characterized by the convergence of digital, biological, and physical technologies, and is leading to the development of new products, services, and business models.

The 4IR has the potential to be a transformative force for Africa. The continent has a young and growing population, a large and growing middle class, and a rapidly expanding digital economy. These factors make Africa an ideal place to adopt and develop 4IR technologies.

There are many examples of how the 4IR is already transforming Africa. In Kenya, for example, mobile money has revolutionized the way people access financial services. In South Africa, drones are being used to deliver medical supplies to remote areas. And in Nigeria, artificial intelligence is being used to improve agricultural productivity.

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It is defined as a term given to the decision- making process based on the scientific method with reliance on quantitative analysis methods in solving the administrative problem. O a. Quantitative analysis b. Operation research O c. All are correct d. Marketing research

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The term given to the decision-making process based on the scientific method with reliance on quantitative analysis methods in solving administrative problems is Operations Research (Option b).

Operations Research (OR) is a discipline that utilizes mathematical and analytical methods to optimize decision-making and solve complex problems in various fields, including administration, business, engineering, and more. OR involves the application of scientific and quantitative techniques to improve efficiency, effectiveness, and decision outcomes.

Quantitative analysis (Option a) is a broader term that encompasses various mathematical and statistical methods used for analyzing data and making informed decisions. While quantitative analysis is a component of Operations Research, it refers to a broader set of techniques beyond the scope of OR.

Marketing research (Option d) focuses specifically on studying and analyzing consumer behavior, market trends, and competitive dynamics to support marketing decision-making. Although it may involve some quantitative analysis, it does not encompass the entire decision-making process based on the scientific method with reliance on quantitative analysis methods


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Which one of the following statement is INCORRECT about the Pecking Order Theory? Firms prefer internal finance since funds can be raised without sending adverse signals. O Firms with high ratios of fixed assets to total assets tend to have higher debt ratios. This evidence exclusively supports the pecking order theory. O When external finance is required, firms issue debt first and equity as a last resort. O Most profitable firms borrow less not because they have lower target debt ratios but because they don't need external finance.

Answers

The incorrect statement about the Pecking Order Theory is: "Firms with high ratios of fixed assets to total assets tend to have higher debt ratios. This evidence exclusively supports the pecking order theory."

The Pecking Order Theory, proposed by Myers and Majluf, suggests that firms prefer internal financing over external financing to avoid adverse signaling effects. The theory states that when external financing is necessary, firms prioritize debt issuance over equity, and they tend to issue equity as a last resort. Additionally, profitable firms borrow less not because they have lower target debt ratios, but because they have fewer financing needs.

The incorrect statement suggests that firms with high ratios of fixed assets to total assets tend to have higher debt ratios, exclusively supporting the Pecking Order Theory. However, this statement is incorrect because it does not align with the theory. According to the Pecking Order Theory, the debt ratios of firms are primarily driven by the availability and cost of external financing, not by the fixed asset ratios. Therefore, this statement contradicts the principles of the Pecking Order Theory and is incorrect.


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Cost Flow Methods The following three identical units of Item K113 are purchased during April: Item Beta Units Cost April 2 Purchase 1 $302 April 15 Purchase 1 305 April 20 Purchase 1 308 Total 3 $915 Average cost per unit $305 ($915 ÷ 3 units) Assume that one unit is sold on April 27 for $442. Determine the gross profit for April and ending inventory on April 30 using the (a) first-in, first-out (FIFO); (b) last-in, first-out (LIFO); and (c) weighted average cost method. Gross Profit Ending Inventory a. First-in, first-out (FIFO) $fill in the blank 1 $fill in the blank 2 b. Last-in, first-out (LIFO) $fill in the blank 3 $fill in the blank 4 c. Weighted average cost

Answers

Gross Profit Ending Inventory

a. First-in, first-out (FIFO) $137 $554

b. Last-in, first-out (LIFO) $137 $361

c. Weighted average cost $137 $455

To determine the gross profit and ending inventory for April using different cost flow methods:

a. First-in, first-out (FIFO):

The unit sold on April 27 is assumed to be from the April 2 purchase, costing $302. The gross profit is calculated as the selling price minus the cost of the unit sold: $442 - $302 = $140. The ending inventory on April 30 consists of the remaining two units from the April 15 and April 20 purchases, totaling $305 + $308 = $613.

b. Last-in, first-out (LIFO):

Under LIFO, the unit sold on April 27 is assumed to be from the April 20 purchase, costing $308. The gross profit is $442 - $308 = $134. The ending inventory on April 30 consists of the two remaining units from the April 2 and April 15 purchases, totaling $302 + $305 = $607.

c. Weighted average cost:

The average cost per unit is calculated as the total cost divided by the total number of units: $915 ÷ 3 = $305. The gross profit is $442 - $305 = $137. The ending inventory on April 30 is calculated by multiplying the average cost per unit by the remaining units (2): $305 × 2 = $610.

Therefore, the gross profit and ending inventory for April using the different cost flow methods are as stated above.

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In order to evaluate a company's performance, executives can use three types of control: strategic, isomorphic, and financial. True O False

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The statement is False. In order to evaluate a company's performance, executives can use multiple types of control.

While executives can use multiple types of control to evaluate a company's performance, the statement that they can use three specific types of control—strategic, isomorphic, and financial—is incorrect. The evaluation of a company's performance typically involves a combination of various control mechanisms tailored to the specific needs and goals of the organization.

Strategic control focuses on assessing the alignment between the company's strategic objectives and its actual performance. It involves monitoring key performance indicators, evaluating the effectiveness of strategic initiatives, and making adjustments to ensure the company stays on track with its long-term goals.

Financial control, on the other hand, primarily involves evaluating the company's financial performance through the analysis of financial statements, budgeting, cost control, and financial ratios. It provides insights into the company's profitability, liquidity, and overall financial health.

Isomorphic control, however, is not a commonly recognized type of control. The term "isomorphic" typically refers to a phenomenon in which organizations adopt similar structures or practices due to external pressures or environmental influences. It is not a specific control mechanism used by executives to evaluate performance.

In summary, while executives can employ various types of control mechanisms to evaluate a company's performance, including strategic and financial control, the mention of isomorphic control as one of the three types is inaccurate.

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which kind of bond would occur between sodium and chlorine

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The type of bond that would occur between sodium and chlorine is an ionic bond.

Sodium (Na) and chlorine (Cl) have significantly different electronegativities. Sodium has a low electronegativity, while chlorine has a high electronegativity. In an ionic bond, sodium donates one electron to chlorine, resulting in the formation of a positively charged sodium ion (Na+) and a negatively charged chloride ion (Cl-). The opposite charges attract each other, creating a strong electrostatic force that holds the ions together in a crystal lattice structure. This bond formation leads to the creation of sodium chloride (NaCl), commonly known as table salt. Ionic bonds typically occur between atoms or ions with a large electronegativity difference, resulting in the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

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Consider the aggregate demand function,
D(EPF/PH, Y-T, I, G) = C(Y-T) + I + G + CA(EPF/PH, Y-T).
When Foreign price fell, how would the consumption, the current account and the aggregate demand change:
Increase, Decrease or No change?
Consumption:
Current account:
Aggregate demand:

Answers

When the foreign price falls, consumption is expected to increase, the current account is expected to improve (increase), and the aggregate demand is expected to increase.

When the foreign price falls, it means that foreign goods and services become relatively cheaper compared to domestic goods and services. This leads to an increase in consumption as consumers find it more affordable to purchase imported goods. The increase in consumption is represented by the term C(Y-T) in the aggregate demand function, where Y represents income, T represents taxes, and C represents the marginal propensity to consume.

A fall in the foreign price also improves the current account. The current account (CA) represents the balance of trade, including exports and imports of goods and services. When the foreign price falls, it leads to a decrease in imports, as domestic consumers are more likely to purchase cheaper foreign goods. This reduces the trade deficit and improves the current account.

The changes in consumption and the current account contribute to an increase in aggregate demand. Aggregate demand (AD) is the total spending in an economy and is determined by consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports. The increase in consumption and the improvement in the current account both contribute to an increase in aggregate demand, represented by the term C(Y-T) + G + CA in the aggregate demand function.

In summary, when the foreign price falls, consumption is expected to increase, the current account is expected to improve, and aggregate demand is expected to increase.

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according to milton friedman, continued inflation is always and everywhere

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It's important to note that Friedman's views on inflation are part of a broader school of thought known as monetarism, which places significant emphasis on the role of monetary factors in shaping economic outcomes, particularly inflation.

Milton Friedman, a prominent economist, famously stated that "inflation is always and everywhere a monetary phenomenon." This quote suggests that according to Friedman, the primary cause of inflation is excessive money supply growth. He argued that when the money supply expands faster than the growth in goods and services, it leads to a general increase in prices.

However, it is important to note that Friedman's statement does not explicitly state that continued inflation is always and everywhere inevitable. Instead, he emphasizes the monetary factors behind inflation. Friedman believed that controlling the money supply growth could effectively manage and control inflation.

It is worth mentioning , and there are various factors that can contribute to inflationary pat economists have differing views on the causes and management of inflation in an economy, such as supply and demand imbalances, fiscal policy, and external shocks.

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Answer the following questions with specific reference to relevant Articles of the Commercial Companies Law: 1. What is the liability of Nasser and Buti for the debts and other financial obligations of their company? (2 points) 2. Was the appointment of Ahmad, a non-partner, as a manager of the company in accordance with the law? (1 point) 3. What is Victor's liability for debts and other financial obligations of the company? ( 2 points) 4. Has Viktor acted in contravention of the law by performing managerial duties and entering deals on behalf of the company? (1 point) 5. Did Ahmad violate any rules by withdrawing the 50,000 AED from the company's account? (1 point) 6. Was Ahmad's dismissal lawful and in accordance with the law? (1 point) 7. In what capacity has Global Domination LLC joined the company? Is the transfer of shares considered effective? (2 points)

Answers

1. Nasser and Buti have unlimited liability for the debts and other financial obligations of their company. According to the Commercial Companies Law, partners in a general partnership are jointly and severally liable for the company's debts, which means they are personally responsible for fulfilling the company's obligations. This implies that creditors can seek recourse from Nasser and Buti's personal assets to satisfy the company's debts.

2. The appointment of Ahmad, a non-partner, as a manager of the company may not be in accordance with the law. The Commercial Companies Law specifies that only partners can be appointed as managers of a general partnership. If Ahmad is not a partner in the company, his appointment as a manager would likely be in violation of the law unless there are specific provisions allowing for such appointments in the company's articles of association or through a legal agreement.

3. Victor's liability for the company's debts and financial obligations depends on his role and status within the company. If Victor is a partner in the company, he would have unlimited liability similar to Nasser and Buti. However, if Victor is not a partner but an employee or a creditor, his liability would be limited to the extent of his employment or contractual obligations.

4. Without further information, it is unclear whether Viktor has acted in contravention of the law by performing managerial duties and entering deals on behalf of the company. The law may allow non-partners to undertake certain managerial functions if authorized by the partners or through other legal arrangements. It would be necessary to review the specific provisions of the Commercial Companies Law and the company's articles of association to determine whether Viktor's actions are compliant.

5. The withdrawal of 50,000 AED from the company's account by Ahmad would depend on the company's internal policies and the authority granted to him. If Ahmad had the necessary authorization to make such withdrawals, it would not be a violation of the law. However, if he exceeded his authorized limits or acted without proper authorization, it could be considered a violation.

6. Whether Ahmad's dismissal was lawful and in accordance with the law would depend on the specific provisions outlined in the Commercial Companies Law, the company's articles of association, and any relevant employment contracts or agreements. The dismissal process must adhere to the legal requirements, including any notice periods or grounds for termination specified in the applicable regulations.

7. The capacity in which Global Domination LLC joined the company and the effectiveness of the transfer of shares would need to be assessed based on the specific provisions of the Commercial Companies Law and the company's articles of association. The law may require certain formalities and procedures for share transfers and the entry of new entities as partners. Compliance with these legal requirements would determine the validity and effectiveness of Global Domination LLC's involvement.

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Cullumber Company acquired 28% of the outstanding common stock of Grinwold Inc. on January 1,2020 , by paying $1,555,400 for 55,550 shares. Grinwold declared and paid a $0.50 per share cash dividend on June 30 and again on December 31,2020 . Grinwold reported net income of $859,200 for the year. (a) - Your answer is partially correct. Prepare the journal entries for Cullumber Company for 2020, assuming Cullumber cannot exercise significant influence over Grinwold.

Answers

Cullumber should recognize $851,423 as income from its investment in Grinwold.

Based on the information provided, Cullumber Company acquired 28% of the outstanding common stock of Grinwold Inc. on January 1, 2020, for $1,555,400. Since Cullumber cannot exercise significant influence over Grinwold, it should account for the investment using the cost method.

The journal entries for Cullumber Company for 2020 are as follows:

January 1: Investment in Grinwold Inc. Stock $1,555,400 Cash $1,555,400

June 30: Cash dividends received $27,775 Investment in Grinwold Inc. Stock $27,775

December 31: Cash dividends received $27,775 Investment in Grinwold Inc. Stock $27,775

At the end of the year, Cullumber's investment in Grinwold should be reported on the balance sheet at cost, which is $1,555,400. Cullumber should also recognize its share of Grinwold's net income, which is computed as follows:

Net income of Grinwold $859,200 Less: Dividends received (55,550 shares × $0.50 per share × 28%) ( $7,777) Cullumber’s share of Grinwold’s net income $851,423

Therefore, Cullumber should recognize $851,423 as income from its investment in Grinwold. This amount is not recognized through a journal entry, but through a line item on the income statement.

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