Activator proteins facilitate RNA polymerase binding at promoters to increase levels of transcription
What are activator proteins?
A protein (transcription factor) known as a transcriptional activator promotes the transcription of a gene or group of genes. Since they work to encourage gene transcription and, in certain situations, are necessary for it to happen, activators are thought to have positive control over gene expression. The majority of activators are DNA-binding proteins that interact with promoter- or enhancer-proximal components. An "activator-binding site" is the DNA site that the activator binds to. "Activating region" or "activation domain" refers to the portion of the activator that interacts with the overall transcription machinery through protein-protein interactions.The DNA-binding domain of activator proteins binds to a DNA sequence that is unique to the activator, and the activation domain works to increase gene transcription by interacting with other molecules.Transcription:
A section of DNA that codes for a particular gene gets transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA) in the cell's nucleus during transcription. The cytoplasm is where translation takes place after the mRNA transports the genetic data from the DNA there. The information included in the mRNA sequence is used to create proteins during translation. The mRNA binds to a ribosome, a component that can read the genetic code. Another RNA type known as transfer RNA (tRNA) transports an amino acid, a component of proteins, to the ribosome when the mRNA passes through it. The mRNA's complementary sequence recognizes the amino acid-carrying tRNA and they bond.The amino acid that each tRNA carried unites with the other amino acids to create a chain of amino acids when it attaches to the mRNA strand.The ribosome releases the finished protein once all of the amino acids specified in the mRNA fragment have been connected.Hence, activator proteins increases the level of transcription.
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a retiree, tired of minnesota winters, moves to tucson, arizona. he hopes the warm dry climate will ease his chronic respiratory problems. he soon experiences a new kind of weather, a massive dust storm. with which of the following fungi might he become infected? group of answer choices paracoccidioides brasiliensis coccidioides immitis histoplasma capsulatum blastomyces dermatitidis aspergillus fumigatus
In a massive dust storm, the retiree might become infected with b) Coccidioides immitis.
Coccidioides immitis is a fungus that lives in dry soil. In the scenario mentioned in the question, as the condition of the Tuscon, Arizona are warm and dry, hence in such areas the fungal species Coccidioides immitis will be residing.
In case of a dust storm, the Coccidioides immitis living in the soil will pass into the respiratory tract of the retiree and cause respiratory problems. the fungal infection can be serious as the person would not have been exposed to this fungus before.
The question will correctly be written as:
A retiree, tired of Minnesota winters, moves to Tucson, Arizona. He hopes the warm dry climate will ease his chronic respiratory problems. he soon experiences a new kind of weather, a massive dust storm. With which of the following fungi might he become infected? group of answer choices
a) paracoccidioides brasiliensis
b) coccidioides immitis
c) histoplasma capsulatum
d) blastomyces dermatitidis
e) aspergillus fumigatus
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The 150-million-year-old Archaeopteryx has many characteristics associated with birds, such as feathered wings. It also has characteristics associated with living reptiles. Which of the following characteristics is present in both Archaeopteryx and most living reptiles?wings supported by elongated fourth digitsclaws on the ends of each digit and a long bony tailthe presence of a beak with no teethlarge size and the ability to fly
The characteristics common to living reptiles and Archaeopteryx are: Long, bony tail and claws on the ends of each digit.
Archaeopteryx is the extinct species that belonged to the genus of bird-like dinosaurs. It is also known by the name Urvogel. Some of its characteristics are: a set of teeth, long bony tail, flat sternum, three claws on the wings, etc.
Claws are the arched narrow structures that emerge out from the digit of birds and reptiles. Claws are useful in the catching, holding and eating of food. They can also be used as protection from the enemies. Birds also used them for walking, perching, and swimming.
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Fault trees are an approach to hazard analysis that, for each identified hazard, break down that hazard to find how that hazard can occur.The hazard is placed at the root of the tree and the causes of the hazard are identified; Each of these causes is then further broken down and analysed until the fundamental software or hardware behavior that leads to these causes is identified.
Hazards are placed at the root of the tree and determining the cause of the hazard is the correct option for the following hazard analysis questions.
Fault Tree Analysis (FTA) explores how selected “top” faults (abnormal conditions) or fault events such as accidental/unwanted releases of hazardous materials can be resolved to their causes. Hazard analysis is defined as the process of gathering and interpreting information about the hazards and conditions leading to their existence in order to determine what is food safety related and must be addressed in the HACCP plan. Hazard analysis is used as the first step in the risk assessment process. The result of hazard analysis is the identification of different types of hazards. A hazard is a potential condition that may or may not exist.
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where would you find iron regulatory protein (irps)? group of answer choices cytosol nucleus mitochondria golgi apparatus
Similar to how iron is imported and transported within cells, mitochondrial iron import and transport are tightly controlled, careful processes intended to prevent undesired.
Which of these are hollow rods that help the cell form and are supported?The third main component of the cytoskeleton, microtubules, are hard, hollow rods with a diameter of around 25 nm. Microtubules are dynamic, constantly assembling and disassembling within the cell, much like actin filaments.
What form does the packaging and modification of proteins take?Figure 1: Proteins are modified and organized for transport within the cell by the Golgi apparatus. In cells, the Golgi apparatus and ER are frequently found together.
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classify the effector muscle involved in the response to the stretch reflex being tested by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.
Patellar reflex: Quadriceps femoris, Calcaneal reflex: Gastrocnemius and Soleus, Biceps reflex: Biceps brachii, Triceps reflex: Triceps brachii, Plantar reflex: Gastrocnemius, Soleus and Flexor digitorum longus.
A reflex is an uncontrollable movement that happens very instantly in reaction to stimuli. The reflex, which happens through a reflex arc, is an involuntary reaction to a stimulus that doesn't require or receive conscious cognition. Before an impulse reaches the brain, reflex arcs respond to it. examines descending motor pathways, motor nerves, synaptic connections in the spinal cord, and afferent nerves. Reflexes are suppressed by lower motor neuron lesions (such as those that damage the anterior horn cell, spinal root, or peripheral nerve) and are increased by upper motor neuron lesions. The amount of CNS damage may be determined by stimulating the abdominal reflex, which is done by massaging the belly.
The complete question is:
Classify the effector muscle involved in the response to the stretch reflex being tested by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.
(A). Patellar reflex:
(B). Calcaneal reflex:
(C). Biceps reflex:
(D). Triceps reflex:
(E). Plantar reflex:
The options are Quadriceps femoris, Soleus, Biceps brachii, Triceps brachii, Gastrocnemius, Soleus, and Flexor digitorum longus.
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what is the complete hemoglobin molecule composed of
The complete hemoglobin molecule is composed of the following below:
Polypeptide chains (globins)Heme groupsIron ions.What is Hemoglobin?This is referred to as a type of protein which is present in the red blood cells of almost all organisms and it comprises of heme groups and iron ions which ensures that it functions adequately in the body system.
It has a very high affinity for oxygen and is responsible for binding and transporting it to different parts of the body such as the brain, legs etc so as to prevent cell death which makes it a very important compound in the circulatory system.
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what is the morphology of your bacteria labster
The morphology of the bacteria labster is referred to as a gram-negative bacillus and is denoted as option A.
What is Bacillus?This is used to describe an entire class of bacteria and it is characterized by the rod-shape which can be seen when they are observed under a microscope in the laboratory. They are involved in various purposes ranging from industrial uses to being causes of different types of diseases.
The bacteria which is referred to as labster is unicellular and microscopic in nature and it is also an example of a gram negative bacteria which is therefore the reason why option A was chosen as the correct choice.
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The options are:
a) Gram-negative bacillus.
b) Gram-positive bacillus.
c) Gram-positive coccus.
d) Gram-negative coccus.
Animal cells typically achieve cytokinesis by
a binary fission.
b chromosome condensation.
c. forming a cleavage furrow that pinches the cell into two.
d forming a cell plate across the middle of the cell.
- chromosome elongation.
Which of the following is FALSE about trabecular bone? Select one: a. comprises approximately 80% of the skeleton b. porous and spongy in composition c. very sensitive to changes in hormones and nutritional deficiencies d. very rapid turnover
comprises approximately 80% of the skeleton
Option A is correct answer.
What is trabecular bone?
In order to offer an indirect assessment of trabecular microarchitecture on lumbar spine DXA images, the trabecular bone score (TBS) is a novel gray-level textural analysis. In ex vivo studies, it has been demonstrated to be strongly correlated with CT measurements of connection density, trabecular number, and trabecular separation. 45–47 A dense trabecular network resulting from a high TBS value is linked to improved bone strength, whereas a low TBS value is linked to worse bone structure. TBS has the benefit of being performable in previously obtained DXA images from GE Lunar and Hologic Discovery, Delphi, and Horizon) instruments. 46,48 TBS has the advantage of being accessible from DXA images with the application of appropriate software.
The spinal column and the ends of the long bones contain trabecular bone, which has a sophisticated three-dimensional architecture and covers the entire interior vertebral space. Age-related alterations in the trabecular structure, cause osteoporosis. More dangerously, it will cause femoral head osteonecrosis. The disease ONFH is widespread in both children and adults. An artificial joint's useful life cannot exceed the patient's lifetime.
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The discovery of cells and the development of the cell theory would not have been possible without.
If improvements to the microscope had not been made, the discovery of the cell would not have been conceivable. In 1665, scientist Robert Hooke made improvements to the existing compound microscope in an effort to discover more about the microscopic world.
Explain discovery of cell ?
The term "cell" was initially applied to these minute units of life in 1665 by a British scientist by the name of Robert Hooke. Hooke was able to make a significant discovery despite the weak microscopes of his day. He was shocked to observe what appeared to be a honeycomb when he used his microscope to examine a small slice of cork. To depict what he saw, Hooke created the drawing in the picture below. As you can see, the cork was composed of numerous extremely small parts, or what Hooke called cells.
Soon after Robert Hooke found cells in cork, Anton van Leeuwenhoek in Holland used a microscope to make other significant discoveries. Because Leeuwenhoek manufactured all of the lenses for his microscope himself and was so skilled at it, his instrument had greater power than other microscopes of the time. In actuality, Leeuwenhoek's instrument was nearly as powerful as contemporary light microscopes. Leeuwenhoek was the first to see human cells and microbes with a microscope.
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TRUE/FALSE. when testing waterways for contamination with fecal matter which pathogen is often used as an indicator species
When testing waterways for contamination with fecal matter E.coli is often used as an indicator species.
Define pathogen.
Virulence, the degree to which the disease symptoms are severe, is used to describe a pathogen, which is an organism that causes disease in its host. Viruses, bacteria, unicellular and multicellular eukaryotes, as well as other taxonomically varied organisms, make up the diverse group of organisms known as pathogens.
Bacteria known as Escherichia coli, or simply E. coli, are present in the environment, food, and intestines of both humans and animals. There are many different types of E. coli bacterium. While the majority of E. coli strains are not harmful, there are those that can. Some strains of E. coli can cause diarrhea, while others can cause pneumonia, respiratory disorders like flu, and urinary tract infections, among other illnesses.
Stool from people and animals can contaminate groundwater and surface water, including streams, rivers, lakes, and water used for crop irrigation. Even though municipal water supplies use ozone, UV light, or chlorine to kill E. coli, certain E. coli outbreaks have been connected to tainted water supplies.
Private water wells are more of a worry because many of them lack a means of water sanitization. The likelihood of polluted water is highest in rural areas. Some people have contracted E. coli after swimming in lakes or pools that were tainted with feces.
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Describe two patterns of complex inheritance and explain how they are different from mendelian.
A male who is colorblind and blooms, as well as a male who is colorblind and a normal female, are two examples of complicated inheritance patterns. There are recessive and dominant genes, according to one of Mendelian's rules. Only the dominant allele will be present if they are combined and generate a heterozygote.
One of the Mendelian laws (the third) states that each gene has both a dominant and recessive allele, and that if these two alleles are inherited together and create a heterozygote (one from the mother, one from the father), only the dominant allele's characteristic will be displayed.
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Place the following organs in the appropriate body cavity.
The abdominal depression, which is girdled by the caricatures and pelvis and houses the feathers, ureters, stomach, bowel, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas, and the pelvic depression, which is girdled by the pelvis and houses the bladder, anus, and reproductive system, can be separated from the abdominopelvic depression.
What about the body cavity?The internal organs, or viscera, are set up in the depressions or gaps of the body.The frontal and rearward depressions are the names of the two primary depressions.The diaphragm, a pate- shaped respiratory muscle, divides the frontal depression, which is the largest depression, into the thoracic and abdominopelvic depressions.The frontal depression and rearward depression are the two biggest fleshly depressions in humans.The anterior( or front) of the box is where the frontal depression is located.The thoracic depression and the abdominopelvic depression are divisions of it.The head and the reverse of the box are located in the rearward depression, which is located in the posterior( or back) of the body.A fleshly depression is an area of the body that's filled with fluid and serves to house and guard internal organs.Membranes and other structures divide the colorful fleshly depressions in humans.The frontal depression and the rearward depression are the two biggest fleshly depressions in humans.Lower fleshly depressions are resolved between these two body depressions.The topmost concave area in the body is the abdominal depression.Its lower limit is the upper airplane of the pelvic depression, and its upper hedge is the diaphragm, a distance of muscle and connective towel that divides it from the casket depression.The given question in the portal is incomplete. The complete question is given below.
Place the following organs in the appropriate body cavity.
A. Thoracic
B. Abdominopelvic
C. Spinal
D. Cranial
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Anaerobic conditions will most likely be generated in a natural water system with?.
Anaerobic situations will maximum possibly be generated in a herbal water gadget with low degrees of dissolved oxygen (DO) this is infected through pollution with excessive biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) values.
The required details for Anaerobic conditions in given paragraph
Anaerobic situations arise while the uptake or disappearance of oxygen is extra than its manufacturing through photosynthesis or diffusion through bodily shipping from the encompassing surroundings. Oxygen is typically fed on through microbial respiratory on account of the provision of natural material. Two examples of obligate anaerobes are Clostridium botulinum and the bacteria which stay close to hydrothermal vents at the deep-sea ocean floor. Aerotolerant organisms, which can't use oxygen for growth, however tolerate its presence. Facultative anaerobes, which could develop with out oxygen however use oxygen if it's miles present.
Most anaerobes require an surroundings with a low oxidation-discount potential (Eh gradient), which may be finished in affiliation with low pH, tissue destruction, byproducts from cardio bacterial metabolism, or low oxygen content.
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Iron acts as a __________ to many enzymes involved in making amino acids, collagen, hormones, neurotransmitters, and more.
Numerous enzymes that produce amino acids, collagen, hormones, neurotransmitters, and other substances also require iron as a cofactor. Iron is a crucial mineral that keeps the body's tissues oxygenated, protects against infections, and functions as a cofactor for numerous enzymes.
For the creation of blood, iron is crucial. Hemoglobin, enzymes a component of your blood's red blood cells, and myoglobin, a component of your body muscles, enzymes , both contain around 70% of the iron in your body. Your blood's hemoglobin helps carry oxygen from your lungs to your tissues.
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Which of these are commonly used to cleave peptide bonds in polypeptides?
- 2-mercaptoethanol (β-ME)
- dansyl chloride
- iodoacetate
- sodium dodecyl sulfate
- trypsin
The most often utilised enzyme to break peptide bonds in polypeptides is trypsin.
D is the ideal choice.
What is a common method for breaking peptide bonds?Enzymatic cleavage is frequently used to selectively hydrolyze peptide bonds. Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and pepsin are examples of proteases that are frequently utilised in the hydrolysis of proteins. Trypsin cleaves at Arg and Lys (Phe and Leu).
How are the peptide bonds broken?Acid hydrolysis can cleave peptide bonds in a non-specific manner or can be used specifically by a variety of proteolytic enzymes that have an affinity for the bonds between particular amino acid residues.
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choose all the regions of the cns that the parasympathetic division of the ans arise from. multiple select question. lumbar spinal cord cervical spinal cord sacral spinal cord brain thoracic spinal cord
The regions of the Central nervous system that the parasympathetic division of the automated nervous system arise from are the sacral and spinal cord regions.
What is central nervous system (CNS)?The central nervous system (CNS) is defined as part of the nervous system that is made up of mainly the following:
the brain, the spinal cord, and the neurons (or nerve cells).The central nervous system has a primary function in the body which is to regulate the body physiological processes.
The parasympathetic nervous system is a division of the autonomic nervous system which functions mainly to counteract the actions of the sympathetic nervous system.
The parasympathetic nervous system is described as originating in the craniosacral region, that is, from the brainstem and also the sacral plexus.
Therefore, the parasympathetic division of the automated nervous system arise from the sacral and spinal cord regions.
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In which type of cell would you find a permanent (sap) vacuole: a plant cell or animal cell?.
Answer:
A plant cell!
Explanation:
A permanent vacuole is a membrane bound organelle found in plant cells and fungal cells
Answer:
A plant cell
Explanation:
Plant cells contain a cell wall made of cellulose to strengthen the cell. They also have a permanent vacuole which is filled with cell sap to help keep the cell turgid.
which of the following is not a step used by cytotoxic t cells to kill infected host cells? view available hint(s)for part e which of the following is not a step used by cytotoxic t cells to kill infected host cells? secretion of perforin secretion of granzyme activation of b cells recognition of infected host cell using its tcr
Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein is not the step used by cytotoxic t cells to kill infected host cells.
What are cytotoxic T cells?
One of the primary categories of immune cells made in your thymus are cytotoxic T-cells. Your helper T-cells trigger the cytotoxic T-cells when you are infected. CTLs work to combat the virus. A crucial component of your adaptive immunity are these T-cells.
Immune cells include cytotoxic T-cells. They eliminate virus-infected cells. Killer T-cells is another term for cytotoxic T-cells.
Cytotoxic One of the three primary cell types produced in your thymus are T-cells. In the front of your chest, there lies a little gland called the thymus. The other T-cell varieties consist of:
Helper T-cells, which stimulate the production of additional immune cells to combat infections.Regulatory T cells that, when necessary, inhibit other immune cells.Function of cytotoxic T cells:
A structure termed a CD8 receptor can be found on the surface of cytotoxic T cells. To determine when healthy cells are infected, the CD8 receptor interacts with molecules on cells known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) Class I molecules.The cytotoxic T-cells are activated when the CD8 receptor detects an infected cell. Cytotoxic T-cells produce chemicals that are intended to eradicate the infection.Hence, Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein is the correct answer.
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An error during G₁ phase would be most likely to affect a multicellular
organism in what way?
OA. The organism develops cells with too few or too many
chromosomes.
OB. The organism develops cells that are too large.
OC. The organism develops cells that are too small.
OD. The organism develops cells with DNA that contains errors.
SUBMIT
The organism develops cells that are too large. when an error occurs during the G1 phase of the cell cycle.
What is the G1 phase?
Cells decide in the G1 phase whether to pass the limitation point and enter the S phase or move on to G0. These choices are based on the integrity of the signalling apparatus that detects extracellular signals and the extracellular signals that the cell receives. In cancer, G1 progression is frequently dysregulated. This can happen as a result of mutations or the expression of CDKs, cyclins, or CKIs being dysregulated. Cancer patients also experience loss- or gain-of-function mutations in the CDK kinase upstream regulators.
What is Cell-cycle?
The procedure that a cell undergoes each time it divides. Chromosomes and other cell components duplicate to create two copies of themselves over the course of the cell cycle, which consists of a number of phases. Following this, the cell divides into two daughter cells, distributing one copy of the duplicated material to each. When each daughter cell has its own outer membrane around it, the cell cycle is finished. known as the mitotic cycle.
(B) The organism develops cells that are too large.
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Answer:
c
Explanation:
I got it correct
source trust me bro
social monogamy is characteristic of: group of answer choices baboons chimpanzees orangutans gibbons
Social monogamy is characteristic of gibbons. Monogamy refers to a social group that includes adult men, adult women, and their offspring.
Is monogamy in mammals natural and why are gibbons called monogamous??Of course, monogamy exists in nature, as do women seeking multiple partners. But nature seems to be pushing things towards polygamy in our evolutionary branch. Only 9% of mammalian species are monogamous. Only 29% in primates. Male and female gibbons are considered monogamous. They mate for life, forming families that stay together until the offspring grow up and leave the home. A couple's bond is strengthened by the time they spend grooming each other.Is monogamy a very common social strategy for primates?Monogamous Family Groups: This group pattern is most common in humans, but rare in nonhuman primates. It occurs among small Asian apes and some New World monkeys and monkeys.
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if a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble _____.
If a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble respiring and feeding.
What are the tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits?The tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits are a series of structures within this taxonomic group that function in order to make the process of respiration and feeding possible by filtering substances in the aquatic environment.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits play a fundamental role in filtering substances.
Complete question:
Fill in the blank. If a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble___.
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early hominin species, such as ardipithecus ramidus and australopithecus afarensis, evolved during the late epoch.
The earliest hominin species (such as Australopithecus) evolved during the late Pliocene epoch.
The geologic period known as the Pliocene spans from 5.333 million to 2.58 million years ago. In the Cenozoic Era, it is the second and most recent epoch of the Neogene Period.
The Miocene Epoch is followed by the Pliocene, which is then followed by the Pleistocene.
Despite being a brief epoch, the Pliocene saw enormous occurrences including the formation of ice caps, the drying of the Mediterranean, and the union of the Americas.
From a biogeographic perspective, this period is distinguished by the dramatically modernisation of animals.
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the cd4 receptors on a helper t cell are attracted to multiple choice gp 120 in hiv. ero 1 in hiv. gp 41 in hiv. p17 in hiv.
The CD4 receptors on a helper T cell are attracted to: A. GP 120 in HIV.
What is HIV?In Medicine, HIV is an abbreviation for human immunodeficiency virus and it can be defined as a type of venereal disease that gradually destabilizes, weakens, and destroys the immune system of an infected patient.
This ultimately implies that, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) are a type of diseases that makes it practically impossible for antigens to effectively and efficiently combat pathogens in the body of a living organism, thereby, making the CD4 receptor susceptible and prone to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
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Complete Question:
The CD4 receptors on a helper T cell are attracted to.
multiple choice
A. GP 120 in HIV. B. GP 41 in HIV. C. Ero 1 in HIV. D. p17 in HIV.
Which of the following events characterizes metaphase of mitosis?
I. Movement of chromosomes to the equatorial plane (metaphase plate) of the cell.
II. A spindle fiber attaches to each sister chromatid.
III. Separation of sister chromatids that are being pulled to the poles of the cell.
A
I.
B
II.
C
III.
D
I and II.
E
All of these
A.chromosomes aligning themselves at the equator.
What distinguishing features of mitosis' metaphase?A phase of cell division known as "metaphase" (mitosis or meiosis).Individual chromosomes are typically dispersed throughout the cell nucleus.The chromosomes of the cell condense and move toward one another, aligning in the center of the dividing cell, and the nucleus of the cell disintegrates during metaphase.
What distinguishes metaphase from other phases?Its alignment of a duplicated chromosomes at the metaphase plate, an equatorial plate, is what gives metaphase its name.Via microtubules attached to its kinetochore, one of the sister chromatids is joined to one pole of the cell, and the other sister chromatid is associated to the other pole.
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If two organisms belong to the same family what other taxonomic groups have in common.
If two creatures belong to the same family, they also share the following taxonomic groups: domain, kingdom, phylum, class, and order. A taxonomy system divides organisms into taxa. They are related if they belong to the same taxonomic group.
Both creatures would share the following classifications: Kingdom, Phylum, Class, and Order. Consider it a Kingdom hierarchy in taxonomic group. which organisms are dispersed according to each group and finally segregated or separated in the final taxonomic group groupings.
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in response to increased blood osmolarity, the osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus are stimulated to release more hormone.
Increased blood osmolarity, detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus, triggers the production of vasopressin (also known as antidiuretic hormone).
define vasopressin ?
Human vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), arginine vasopressin (AVP), or argipressin, is a hormone that is generated as a peptide prohormone in hypothalamic neurons and then converted to AVP. It then travels down the axon, ending in the posterior pituitary, and is released into the blod from vesicles in reaction to ecf hypertonicity (hyperosmolality). AVP serves two key purposes. For starters, it increases the quantity of solute-free fluids reabsorbed back into the bloodstream from the filtrate in the nephrons' renal tubules. Second, AVP restricts arterioles, increasing peripheral vascular resistance & blood pressure.
Vasopressin is produced in response to increased blood osmolarity as recognised by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus (also known as antidiuretic hormone).
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In the Calvin cycle, ____ and ___ bring chemical energy from the light-dependent reactions. Here, the enzyme ____ catalyzes carbon fixation as a molecule of ____ from the _____ is attached yo a 5-carbon sugar called ____.
In the Calvin cycle, ATP and NADPH bring chemical energy from the light-dependent reactions for enzyme RUBISCO catalyzes carbon fixation as a molecule of carbondioxide from the atmosphere is attached to a 5-carbon sugar called RUBP.
What is Calvin cycle?Calvin cycle is a series of biochemical reactions that take place in the stroma of chloroplasts in photosynthetic organisms.
Calvin cycle is also called light-independent reactions or dark reactions because it does not require light to occur. The light dependent reaction produces ATP and NADPH that serves as energy carrier and electron carrier respectively.
The Calvin cycle occurs in three stages as follows:
In fixation, which is the first stage of the Calvin cycle, CO2 is fixed from an inorganic to an organic molecule.In the second stage called reduction, ATP and NADPH are used to reduce 3-PGA into G3P; then ATP and NADPH are converted to ADP and NADP+, respectively.In the last stage of the Calvin Cycle, RuBP is regenerated, which enables the system to prepare for more CO2 to be fixed.Learn more about Calvin cycle at: https://brainly.com/question/3199721
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Compare the amount of solute to identify the correct term.
a. Hypertonic
b. Hypotonic:
c. Isotonic:
The amount of solutes in the given solution is as follows:
a. Hypertonic - contains more solute
b. Hypotonic - contains less solute
c. Isotonic - contains equal amount of solute
What are hypertonic, hypotonic, and isotonic solutions?Hypertonic solutions are solutions that contain more dissolved solute than there are in the reference solution or substance. Hence, hypertonic solutions are more concentrated than the reference solution.
Hypotonic solutions are solutions that contain less dissolved solute than there are in the reference solution or substance. Hence, hypertonic solutions are less concentrated than the reference solution.
Isotonic solutions are solutions that contain an equal amount of dissolved solutes as there are in the reference solution or substance. Hence, hypertonic solutions have the same concentration as the reference solution.
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Which of the following processes correctly describes alternative RNA spiling?
O It can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAS.
O lt is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transation.
O It increases the rate of transcription.
O It can allow the production of protens of different sizes and functions strom a single mPRA
Answer: d
Explanation:
