The connection between blood calcium and bone calcium In the event that dietary calcium is low, blood calcium is sacrificed in order to maintain bone calcium.
What is the connection between the calcium levels in the blood and bone?The bones serve as a calcium storage site: When blood levels are too high, the body stores calcium in the bones, and when they are too low, it releases calcium. PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin control this process.
How would we manage blood calcium and bone calcium?Blood calcium levels are regulated by the parathyroid hormone (PTH), which is produced and secreted by the parathyroid glands. When blood calcium levels are low, it is released. By stimulating osteoclasts, which break down bone and release calcium into the bloodstream, PTH raises blood calcium levels.
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Which statement is true of water's tensile strength?
(a) It results from hydrogen bonding.
(b) It helps to pull water through plants.
(c) It involves both cohesion and adhesion.
Both (a) and (b).
(a), (b), and (c).
Answer: a, b, c
Explanation:
It results from hydrogen bonding, It helps to pull water through plants. and It involves both cohesion and adhesion.
What is Tensile strength?The amount of load or stress that a material can withstand before stretching and breaking is known as its tensile strength. Tensile strength, as its name suggests, refers to a material's resistance to tension brought on by mechanical loads.
One of the most significant and frequently measured qualities of materials used for structural purposes is their capacity to resist breaking under tensile stress.
The tensile strength is the highest tensile stress that a material can withstand before failing, though the precise definition of failure will typically depend on the kind and design of the material.
Therefore, It results from hydrogen bonding, It helps to pull water through plants. and It involves both cohesion and adhesion.
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_____ provides employees with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use in their present jobs. a. Development b. Recruiting c. Networking d. Training
Answer:
D
Explanation:
1. What 3 codons oct as termination signals?
2. What codon means start?
FILL IN THE BLANK. if energy levels are low in a cell, the cytosolic concentration of___will be high and___will be turned on.
If energy levels are low in a cell, the cytosolic concentration of ATP will be high and glycolysis will be turned on.
Define ATP.
All living species' cells include the energy-conveying chemical adenosine triphosphate (ATP). The chemical energy generated by the breakdown of food molecules is captured by ATP and then released to power other cellular functions.
By dissolving glucose into two compounds with three carbons each, the cytoplasmic pathway of glycolysis produces energy. Hexokinase, an enzyme, aids in the process of phosphorylation, which traps glucose. In this reaction, ATP is used, and the end product, glucose-6-P, inhibits hexokinase. The ten steps of glycolysis are divided into five preparatory steps and five pay-off steps. The rate-limiting enzyme is phosphofructokinase.
High-energy substances like 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate and phosphoenolpyruvate catalyze the substrate-level phosphorylation that produces ATP .All of the body's cells use glycolysis to produce energy. Pyruvate in aerobic environments and lactate in anaerobic environments are the end products of glycolysis. For additional energy production, pyruvate enters the Krebs cycle.
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some substances are not normal components of urine because they are completely reabsorbed. choose the substances that satisfy this requirement under healthy conditions.
a. Filtered Plasma Proteins
b. Amino Acids
c. Glucose
d. Lactate
The substance that satisfies the requirement, under healthy conditions, is Amino Acids and glucose. The correct options are b and c.
What is urine?Urine is the wastewater that excretes from the body. Human pee is composed of 95 percent water. Minor amounts of urea (2%), creatinine (0.1%), uric acid (0.03%), chloride, sodium, potassium, sulfate, ammonium, and phosphate, as well as other ions and molecules, make up the remaining components. The filtrate contains components such as glucose, amino acids, Na+, and so on.
Therefore, the correct option is b. Amino Acids and c. Glucose.
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Select the scenarios that can result in active immunity.
bone marrow transplant
antibodies cross the placenta
immunization with a vaccine
infection with a pathogen
plasma transfusions to treat Ebola virus infection
The scenarios that can result in active immunity are infection with a pathogen and immunization with a vaccine.
What do immunity—both active and passive—mean?Immunity includes two types: active and passive. Active immunity is when our own immune system protects us from a pathogen. We acquire passive immunity to a virus when we gain immunity from another person.
When the immune system produces antibodies to disease after being exposed to the disease organism, this is known as active immunity. Natural or vaccine-induced immunity can be used to build up active immunity.
Individuals who are undergoing passive immunotherapy, also known as passive immunization, receive antibodies from a source other than their own body. Short-term immunity from infection is provided through passive immunity.
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which of the following are characteristics of at least some members of the supergroup alveolata? multiple select question. flagella or cilia secondary or tertiary plastids pseudopodia saclike, membranous vesicles at the cell periphery cellulose plates kinetoplasts within a large mitochondrion
Characteristics of at least some members of the supergroup Alveolata are:
- secondary or tertiary plastids
- saclike, membranous vesicles at the cell periphery
- flagella or cilia
- cellulose plates
In the field of science, Alveolata can be described as a group of protists that are monophyletic or supergroups. Some members of the supergroup Alveolata have secondary or tertiary plastids.
Some of the alveolata also have the ability to move via flagella or cilia. These are hair like projections that help in movement.
Cellulose plates, which means that the cellulose is divided into plates is also an essential feature in some of the Alveolata supergroups.
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Drag the labels onto the flowchart to indicate the sequence of events that occurs in the presynaptic cell (orange background) and the postsynaptic cell (blue background) after an action potential reaches a chemical synapse. the presynaptic cell (the sending neuron) to its synaptic terminal(s) Drag the labels onto the flowchart to indicate the sequence of events that occurs in the presynaptic cell (orange background) and the postsyna potential reaches a chemical synapse. neurotransmitter released into synaptic cleft action potential enters the presynaptic membrane a ) Ca2+ channels in presynaptic membrane open briefly neurotransmitter degraded or removed from cleft; ligand- gated ion channels close neurotransmitter binds to ligand-gated ion channels in postsynaptic membrane; channels open Ca2+ ions enter presynaptic cell neurotransmitter- containing vesicles fuse with presynaptic membrane
In a presynaptic membrane when the depolarization occurs
a) Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic membrane open briefly
b) Ca2+ ions enter presynaptic cell
c)neurotransmitter containing vesicles fuse with presynaptic membrane
d)neurotransmitter released into synaptic cleft
e) neurotransmitter binds to ligand-gated ion channels in postsynaptic membrane, channels open
f) neurotransmitters degrade or removed from the cleflike gated ion channels close
What is neurotransmitter?
Chemical messengers called neurotransmitters are vital for the proper operation of your body. They transfer chemical "messages" between one neuron (nerve cell) and the target cell that comes next. The following cell to be targeted can be a gland, muscle, or different kind of nerve cell.
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Which of the following statements are true about an IV set up? a. Line markings indicate how much fluid has infused into the patient. b. The injection port provides needle-less entry into the IV tubing. c. The IV bag includes information about the type and volume of IV solution d. The slide clamp compresses the tubing to allow IV flow rate to be increased or decreased e. The line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0"
The correct statements about the IV set are:
Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?
It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.
Features of IV set:
Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml. Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free materialHence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements
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The correct statements about the IV set are: option a, c and e.
Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.
Features of IV set:
Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml.Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free materialHence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements
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A red blood cell will undergo hemolysis in A.water B.0.9% NaCl C.5% glucose D.5% NaCl E.10% glucose
A red blood cell will undergo hemolysis in (A) water.
A type of blood cell that is made in the bone marrow and found in the blood. Red blood cells contain a protein called hemoglobin, which carries oxygen from the lungs to all parts of the body.
Red blood cells have many solutes in their internal environment, but distilled water has no solutes. As a result, water osmotically exits the distilled water and enters the cells. As a result, the cells fill with water and explode in a process known as hemolysis.
The medical name for the breakdown of red blood cells is hemolysis. Red blood cells are constantly destroyed by the body and replaced by new ones. Red blood cell destruction is a natural, healthy process. However, sometimes there are too few red blood cells because they break down too quickly. As a result, the disease hemolytic anemia develops.
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If RNA polymerase malfunctions,
one of the subunits of rRNA will not be transcribed from DNA.
amino acids will not be joined to their tRNA.
mRNA cannot bind to rRNA.
an mRNA will not be formed.
mRNA cannot copy itself.
If RNA polymerase malfunctions, an mRNA will not be formed.
Functions of RNA polymeraseRNA polymerase is an enzyme that functions primarily during the transcription of genes. It ensures that DNA sequences are transcribed to RNA sequences by adding complementary bases to the primer.
During transcription, genetic information on a DNA is transcribed into genetic codes in a special type of RNA known as messenger RNA or simply mRNA.
The coding strand of the double helix DNA act as the template for the transcription while RNA polymerase adds complementary RNA bases to the DNA primer which must have bonded to the DNA initially.
Thus, without the RNA polymerase enzyme working as it should, the addition of bases to the primer will not happen, and this will prevent the formation of mRNA.
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Covalent modification generally turns off genes by attracting proteins that bind to methylated cytosines and block gene transcription.
a) DNA Methylation
b) miRNA
c) RNAi
d) tRNA
The correct option among the following was DNA Methylation.
define DNA Methylation ?
A biological process called DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to the DNA molecule. Without altering the sequence, methylation can modify the activity of a DNA region. DNA methylation often suppresses gene transcription when it occurs at a gene promoter. DNA methylation plays an important role in a variety of critical processes in mammals, including ageing, cancer, X-chromosome inactivation, genomic imprinting, and transposable element suppression.
Adenine and cytosine are the two nucleobases on which natural, enzymatic DNA methylation occurs as of 2016. N6-methyladenine[1], 5-methylcytosine[2], and N4-methylcytosine are the modified bases. [3]
The DNA nucleotide cytosine is methylated to create 5-methylcytosine at position 5 on the pyrimidine ring. This is the same place that separates thymine from the homologous RNA base uracil, which has no methyl group. 5-Methylcytosine undergoes spontaneous deamination and is changed into thymine. A T:G mismatch emerges from this. If A is substituted for G, the original C:G pair becomes a T:A pair, thus altering a base and producing a mutation. Repair mechanisms then fix it back to the original C:G pair.
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Which organelles are found in an animal cell?check all that apply. Endoplasmic reticulumcentriolescell wallvacuoleslysosomesmitochondriachloroplastscell membrane.
The organelles present in an animal cell are-endoplasmic reticulum, centrioles, vacuoles, lysosomes, mitochondria, and cell membrane.
The endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane. It facilitates the production of chemical compounds as well as their transport into and out of the nucleus.
During meiosis and mitosis, centrioles are crucial to cell division.
Vacuoles play a key role in the storage of waste materials and aid in regulating the pH of the cell.
The waste molecules are broken down into simpler substances by lysosomes.
The mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell because they contribute to the production of ATP, which the cell uses as energy for a variety of tasks.
The cell's protective barrier is the cell membrane. It controls how things get into and out of the cell.
The complete question is:
Which organelles are found in an animal cell? check all that apply.
(A). Endoplasmic reticulum
(B). Centrioles
(C). Cell wall
(D). Vacuoles
(E). Lysosomes
(F). Mitochondrial
(G). Chloroplasts
(H). Cell membrane
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Answer and match them
Answer:
Answered (?)
Explanation:
1. C
2. E (?)
3. F
4. D
5. B
6. A
I wasn't sure about E because for me I would say that means 'extinction' but that's not an answer, I tried my best and hope this helps!
Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite, with the soma in between, are called.
Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite, with the soma in between, are called bipolar neurons.
One axon and one dendrite protrude from the soma of a bipolar neuron. The retinal bipolar cell, which receives signals from light-sensitive photoreceptor cells and transfers them to ganglion cells, which then transmit the signal to the brain, is an illustration of a bipolar neuron.A synapse is a point where the dendrites or cell bodies of two different neurons are connected by the branches at the end of their axons. From one neuron to another, nerve impulses are transmitted through this junction.A neuron is referred to as a unipolar neuron if just one process, known as a neurite, protrudes from the cell body. After that, the neurite divides into dendritic and axonal processes. Invertebrate nervous systems, particularly those of insects, include the majority of unipolar neurons.
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TRUE/FALSE. with all other factors being equal, turf grown in partial shade has a greater need for fertilizer than that growing in full sun.
It is false that, with all other factors being equal, turf grown in partial shade has a greater need for fertilizer than that growing in full sun because turf grown in full sun has a greater need for fertilizer than that growing in shade. The chemical process that causes fertilizer burn on the leaf and nutrient and water absorption by the roots is the same, but going the other way.
What is fertilizer?
Fertilizer, a natural or synthetic substance with chemical components that enhance plant growth and productivity. In addition to increasing the soil's natural fertility, fertilisers can replenish chemical elements that previous crops had taken from the soil.
Different fertiliser kinds are created by combining the two primary end products, ammonium nitrate and urea, with other chemicals to create NPKs (nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium), CAN (calcium ammonium nitrate), or UAN (urea and ammonium nitrate solution).
Therefore, It is false that, with all other factors being equal, turf grown in partial shade has a greater need for fertilizer than that growing in full sun.
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concept map connective tissues
Connective tissues are tissues that supports, protects, and gives structure to other tissues and organs in the body. All other types of tissues in the body are supported by connective tissues, which joins or divides them.
Like all tissue types, it is made up of cells encased in a space of liquid known as the extracellular matrix (ECM). In contrast to other types of tissue, connective tissue's cells are loosely rather than densely packed within the ECM.
Types of connective tissueTwo distinct forms of connective tissue are distinguished based on the cells present and the ECM structure.
Connective tissue proper; further broken down into loose and dense connective tissues.Specialised connective tissue; adipose tissues, cartilage, bone, blood, and reticular.learn more about connective tissues here;
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Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation
replicates DNA
transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation
transfers DNA vertically, to new cells
transcribes DNA to RNA
Answer: B
Explanation:
Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. So, the correct option is B.
What is Conjugation?Bacterial conjugation is defined as the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact or a bridge-like connection between two cells that occurs through a pilus. It is a parasexual mode of reproduction in bacteria.
The donor bacterium contains a DNA sequence known as a fertility factor or F-factor that allows the donor to produce a thin, tubelike structure called a pilus, which the donor uses to contact the recipient. does for. The pilus then draws the two bacteria together in which the donor bacterium transfers genetic material to the recipient bacterium.
Thus, Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. So, the correct option is B.
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an earthquake is a _______. group of answer choices chemical hazard physical hazard biological hazard lifestyle hazard cultural hazard
The mainshock is the term used to describe the greatest earthquake.Aftershocks that follow mainshocks are a given.These subsequent, smaller earthquakes take place in the same location as the primary shock.
Why not explain earthquakes?Despite the tectonic plates' constant gradual movement, friction causes them to become impermeable at their edges.It causes an earthquake which releases electrons in waves that pass through the earth's mantle and give rise to the shaking we experience when the stress just on edge exceeds the friction.
One quick answer: How do earthquakes form?Usually, subsurface rock abruptly rupturing and rapid movement along a fault are the causes of earthquakes.The shock waves that shake the earth are brought on by this quick release of energy.
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t24 human bladder carcinoma oncogene is an activated form of the normal human homologue of balb- and harvey-msv transforming genes
A transforming gene isolated from T24 human bladder carcinoma cells is closely related to the BALB murine sarcoma virus (MSV) onc gene (v-bas).
The 1.2-kbp polyadenylated transcript that this transforming gene produces, which contains v-bas-related sequences, is expressed from a 4.6 kilobase pair (kbp) area where it is localized. Moreover, higher amounts of a similar protein were found in T24 cells using antisera that are known to target the immunologically related onc gene products of the BALB- and Harvey-MSVs.
By using restriction enzymes and heteroduplex analysis, it was discovered that the T24 oncogene could not be distinguished from the v-bas normal human homologue. These findings suggest that the normal human v-bas homologue has been activated as a human transforming gene by relatively minimal genetic changes.
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Why is the lagging strand synthesized in a discontinuous fashion? The lagging strand is complementary to the leading strand. DNA synthesis must occur in a 5' to 3' direction, which imposes spatial constraints on the synthesis of the lagging strand. The DNA polymerase enzyme that synthesizes the lagging strand can only synthesize short sequences of DNA before it falls off the template. The template of the lagging strand is discontinuous. All of these arc reasons why the lagging strand is synthesized in a discontinuous fashion. Indicate whether each of the following statements about the genetic code is true or false. a. The genetic code includes specific start and stop codons. T/F b. The genetic code is the same in almost all living organisms. T/F c. Deleting a single base from an mRNA molecule usually alters one codon only. T/F d. Stop codons have a dual function because each one also codes for an amino acid. T/F e. Most codons code for more than one amino acid. T/F f. Most amino acids are specified by more than one codon. T/F g. Only 20 different codons are used to code for amino acids. T/F h. In some cases, it is possible to change the sequence of bases in a codon and it will still code for the same amino acid T/F Indicate whether each of the following statements about the processing of mRNA transcripts is true or false. a. During transcript processing, noncoding regions, called exons, are removed and the coding regions, called introns, are spliced together. T/F b. The poly-A tail appears to play a role in the stability of mRNAs by protecting them from degradation. T/F
1) It is to be noted that all of the above are reasons why the lagging strand is synthesized in a discontinuous fashion. (Option D)
2)
a) Note that it is TRUE to state that the genetic code includes specific start and stop codons
b) It is also TRUE that the genetic code is the same in almost all living organisms.
c) It is FALSE to state that Deleting a single base from an mRNA molecule usually alters one codon only.
d) It is also FALSE to state that Stop codons have a dual function because each one also codes for an amino acid.
e) It is a FASLE statement to indicate that most codons code for more than one amino acid.
f) To state that most amino acids are specified by more than one codon is a TRUE statement.
g) To say that only 20 different codons are used to code for amino acids is FALSE.
h) The statement that in some cases, it is possible to change the sequence of bases in a codon and it will still code for the same amino acid is TRUE.
3) With regards to the processing of mRNA transcripts:
a) It is FALSE to say that "During transcript processing, noncoding regions, called exons, are removed and the coding regions, called introns, are spliced together"
b) The statement "the poly-A tail appears to play a role in the stability of mRNAs by protecting them from degradation." is a TRUE one.
What are some of the terms indicated above?mRNA - In molecular biology, messenger ribonucleic acid is a single-stranded RNA molecule that matches to a gene's genetic sequence and is read by a ribosome during the protein synthesis process.
Stop Codons - A stop codon is a three-nucleotide sequence (trinucleotide) in DNA or messenger RNA (mRNA) that instructs the cell to stop protein production. There are 64 trinucleotide codons in total: 61 of these define amino acids, whereas three are stop codons.
Amino Acids - Organic substances that possess both amino and carboxylic acid functional groups are known as amino acids. Although hundreds of amino acids occur in nature, the alpha-amino acids that constitute proteins are by far the most significant. The genetic coding contains only 22 alpha amino acids.
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Full Question:
1) Why is the lagging strand synthesized in a discontinuous fashion?
A)The lagging strand is complementary to the leading strand. DNA synthesis must occur in a 5' to 3' direction, which imposes spatial constraints on the synthesis of the lagging strand.
B)The DNA polymerase enzyme that synthesizes the lagging strand can only synthesize short sequences of DNA before it falls off the template.
C) The template of the lagging strand is discontinuous.
D) All of these arc reasons why the lagging strand is synthesized in a discontinuous fashion.
2) Indicate whether each of the following statements about the genetic code is true or false.
a. The genetic code includes specific start and stops codons. T/F
b. The genetic code is the same in almost all living organisms. T/F
c. Deleting a single base from an mRNA molecule usually alters one codon only. T/F
d. Stop codons have a dual function because each one also codes for an amino acid. T/F
e. Most codons code for more than one amino acid. T/F
f. Most amino acids are specified by more than one codon. T/F
g. Only 20 different codons are used to code for amino acids. T/F
h. In some cases, it is possible to change the sequence of bases in a codon and it will still code for the same amino acid T/F
3) Indicate whether each of the following statements about the processing of mRNA transcripts is true or false.
a. During transcript processing, noncoding regions, called exons, are removed and the coding regions, called introns, are spliced together. T/F
b. The poly-A tail appears to play a role in the stability of mRNAs by protecting them from degradation. T/F
35. Which is an example of possible cross contamination? A. washing whole fruit in a utensil sink B. thawing fully-cooked food at room temperature C. using the same knife to spread mayonnaise and mustard when making a sandwich Back Next
Example of possible cross contamination is using the same knife to spread mayonnaise and mustard when making a sandwich back next.
What is cross contamination ?Cross-contamination can be defined as transfer of harmful bacteria from one person to another. There are different types of contamination such as chemical, physical and microbial. All food is at risk of contamination, that is why food handlers have a legal responsibility to ensure that food they prepare is free from contaminants and safe for the consume .cross-contamination is dangerous when raw foods come into contact with cooked foods.
Therefore cross contamination is the transfer of harmful bacteria from one person to another by using the same knife to spread mayonnaise and mustard when making a sandwich.
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Which one of the following pairs of people has the exact same genome?
A. Father and son
B. Mother and daughter
C. Identical twins
D. Fraternal twins
E. None of the other answer options is correct
Identical twins share the same genome because they result from a first zygote division into two identical cells that develop independently. C) Identical twins have the exact same genome.
What are identical twins?
Identical twins emerge after the division of an ovule fertilized by a sperm cell. This is, fertilization occurs first, and then the division of the diploid cells.
The fertilized diploid cell suffers a division, separate, and two identical cells are created carrying the same genetic material. Each of them will then suffer successive mitosis and develop a new individual.
As a result, identical twins always have the same genome and the same sex. The genetic sequences in the identical twins' genome are almost identical and minimum.
These identical twins are also known as monozygotic twins and are said to be natural clones.
Option C. Identical twins have the exact same genome.
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A trait that is found in and shared by two or more species, but is not derived from a common ancestor is known as?.
Wherein a trait turned into present inside the ancestral species it is stated to be a homologous trait. If the trait became now not a gift within the ancestral species but appeared independently in the lineages, it is known as an analogous trait that arose thru evolutionary convergence.
A synapomorphy is a shared, derived person, common among an ancestor and its descendants. A man or woman, or trait, is something observable approximately the organism.
Tendencies that get up via convergent evolution are called analogous structures they're contrasted with homologous structures, which have a not unusual starting place. the alternative to convergent evolution is 'divergent evolution wherein related species evolve extraordinary traits.
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the heritability of intelligence refers to
Answer:
Heritability of intelligence refers to: the amount of group variation in intelligence that can be attributed to genetics.
Explanation:
How can gene edit to make improvements to human health? (think Cancer, genetic diseases, HIV, etc)
Cancer is caused by a defective gene due to mutations. CRISPR-Cas9 tools can be used to edit out these parts of the gene.
What is DNA?The tool can snip out and replace a section of DNA with a given DNA. The tool is a harnessed mechanism from bacteria that is a mechanism to identify foreign genetic material such as that of bacteriophages and destroy them.
CRISPR/Cas9 edits genes by accurately slicing DNA, which is then repaired by the body's own mechanisms. The Cas9 enzyme and a guide RNA make up the system's two components. quickly converting cutting-edge technologies into transformational treatments.
Therefore,Cancer is caused by a defective gene due to mutations. CRISPR-Cas9 tools can be used to edit out these parts of the gene.
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During the cell cycle, the cell divides its nucleus and chromosomes during. The cytoplasm and cell membrane divide during. Before the cell can divide again, it must grow and synthesize proteins during the phase and duplicate its chromosomes during the phase.
During the mitotic (M) phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells. M phase involves two distinct division-related processes: mitosis and cytokinesis.
The fluidy substance that fills a cell's inside is called cytoplasm. Salts, water, and numerous organic compounds make up its composition. Membranes surround some intracellular organelles, such as the nucleus and mitochondria, and keep them from coming into contact with the cytoplasm. One cell (the mother) splits into two genetically identical new cells (the daughters) during the process of mitosis, a kind of cell division. In the context of the cell cycle, mitosis refers to the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.
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The most abundant component of plasma is:
Select one:
O A. ions.
• B. proteins.
• C. gases.
O D. water.
Answer: D water
Explanation:
Plasma contains about 90 percent water, with 10 percent being made up of ions, proteins, dissolved gases, nutrient molecules, and wastes. The proteins in plasma include the antibody proteins, coagulation factors, and the proteins albumin and fibrinogen which maintain serum osmotic pressure.
Which condition would be most likely to turn off this abnormally active signaling pathway?.
Conditions that may turn off abnormally active signaling pathways are the addition of a drug that prevents the final kinase from interacting with its target protein in the nucleus.
The MAP kinase pathway is a series of proteins in cells that link signals from receptors on the cell surface to DNA in the cell nucleus. Signaling begins when growth factors bind to receptors on the cell surface. The final stage is when the DNA in the cell nucleus has expressed a protein and produces changes in the cell, such as cell division.
The pathway involves several proteins including the MAP kinase which engages by adding a phosphate group to adjacent proteins and acts as an on-and-off switch.
This question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Normal signaling works with a Ras protein acting downstream of a receptor kinase. You examine a cell line in which Ras is always activated even in the absence of a signaling molecule. This causes constant activation of the kinases in the MAP kinase pathway. Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely to turn off this abnormally active signaling pathway?
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agine that you have a sample of dna that contains a single, specific dna sequence. before you run your gel, you split your sample into two tubes. you run the dna from the first tube in lane two of your gel. you take the other tube and use an enzyme called a restriction enzyme that cuts the dna into two pieces at a specific point in the sequence. you then run this sample that was cut on the gel. which of the next three lanes (lane 3, 4, or 5) could be the same sample from lane two after it was cut into two pieces?
After being divided into two halves, the sample from lane two may still be present in lane 4, which is possible. Lane 2 is around 700 base pairs long, and lane 4 will add up to about 700 base pairs as well, despite the restriction enzyme that divides the DNA into two parts.
What is gel electrophoresis?
A laboratory technique called gel electrophoresis is used to divide combinations of DNA, RNA, or proteins based on their molecular sizes. In gel electrophoresis, the molecules that need to be separated are forced through a gel that has tiny holes by an electrical field.It involves an electrical field, specifically one that is applied such that the gel has a positive charge on one end and a negative charge on the other. Negatively charged molecules like DNA and RNA will be drawn to the positively charged end of the gel. However, because proteins lack a negative charge, they must first be combined with sodium dodecyl sulfate, a detergent, in order to separate them using this method. The proteins are given a linear structure and a negative charge during this process, enabling them to move toward the gel's positive end and be separated. Finally, after utilizing it to separate the DNA, RNA, or protein molecules, bands representing of different molecular sizePrinciple of gel electrophoresis:
Since DNA is negatively charged, it will move toward the positively charged electrode when an electric current is supplied to the gel. The DNA fragments are organized in size order because shorter DNA strands travel through the gel more quickly than longer ones.
Steps in gel electrophoresis:
Pouring the gel first, getting your samples ready, the gel must be loaded, run, stained, exposed to an electric field while doing so.Hence all about the gel electrophoresis.
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