which statement is not true about using diet soda pop? responses it saves you about 120 calories per 8 oz serving. it saves you about 120 calories per 8 oz serving. it is a good low calorie substitute for milk. it is a good low calorie substitute for milk. it will decrease your intake of simple sugars. it will decrease your intake of simple sugars. artificial sweeteners in limited amounts are fine to use for most people.

Answers

Answer 1

The statement which is not true about using diet soda pop is that it is a good low calorie substitute for milk.

Low calorie means that forty calories or less per serving. Light or fatless means the food has tierce less calories, five hundredth less fat, or five hundredth less atomic number 11 than the food with that it's being compared, sometimes the full-calorie version of a similar food.

Milk is a white liquid food created by the exocrine gland glands of mammals. It's the first supply of nutrition for young mammals before they're ready to digest solid food. Immune factors and immune-modulating parts in milk contribute to take advantage of immunity. Milk is a wonderful supply of vitamins and minerals, together with “nutrients of concern,”

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Related Questions

nurse manager is reviewing isolation guidelines with a newly licensed nurse which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indiates understanding of isolation guidelines?

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"I will wear a cover gown when caring for a client who has herpes simplex" statement by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of isolation guidelines.

Lack of social interaction is referred to as isolation and can cause loneliness. It is a state of social isolation that can be brought on by things like lack of mobility, unemployment, or health problems. Isolation might include spending a lot of time alone at home, not having access to resources or participating in the community, and having little to no contact with friends, family, and acquaintances.

Any of these things may make it difficult to create and maintain social networks, which can result in isolation and loneliness.

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which nutrient provides a major source of dietary sulfur?

Answers

Proteins nutrient provides a major source of dietary sulfur.

What are nutrients?

Nutrients are chemical compounds in food that are used by the body to function properly and maintain health. Examples include proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, and minerals.

Minerals, like calcium and iron, are important for growth, development and maintenance of the tissues and cells in our bodies. Vitamins, like vitamin A and vitamin C, are important for growth, development and maintenance of the tissues and cells in our bodies.

People with healthy eating patterns live longer and are at lower risk for serious health problems such as heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and obesity. For people with chronic diseases, healthy eating can help manage these conditions and prevent complications.

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a patient is found lying on the floor after falling 13 hours ago. which of the following laboratory values is expected with a musculoskeletal complication associated with this presentation?
A) elevated creatine kinase ***
B) decreased potassium level
C) decreased WBC
D) elevated GFR

Answers

The laboratory values that are expected with a musculoskeletal complication associated with the presentation include elevated creatinine phosphokinase (Option A).

What do Elevated creatinine phosphokinase level values mean?

Elevated creatinine phosphokinase level values are generally observed in individuals who suffered damage in the muscle tissues, which is due to the increase in the concentration levels of this enzyme.

Elevated creatinine phosphokinase level values are associated with the functioning of this enzyme which is mainly associated with the functioning of muscle skeletal cells as well as the brain and the heart in the body (heart muscles).

Therefore, with this data, we can see that elevated creatinine phosphokinase level values are associated with complications and or damage of the muscle cells because this protein is mainly observed in these types of cells as well as in the brain of normal individuals.

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a postpartum woman has been unable to urinate since giving birth. when the nurse is assessing the woman, which finding would indicate that this client is experiencing bladder distention?

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Uterus is marshy. -A swollen bladder can be felt as a spherical lump and is dull to the touch. In addition, the uterus would be boggy and lochia would be more than usual.

When assessing a postpartum patient for urinary retention What signs and symptoms the nurse could observe?Uncomfortable stomach. bladder swollen. urine output decreased (less than 30 ml/hr) or missing for two hours in a row. Frequency.Women should have a lochia discharge following birth. Absence of flow is unusual and indicates dehydration brought on by an illness and a fever.Mastitis, which requires medical treatment, might be indicated by a swollen, sensitive region on the breast.Your ability to urinate may also be hampered by temporary swelling following delivery. After peeing, urine that is still in the bladder might expand the bladder. The muscles of the bladder may also suffer harm. This may result in bladder damage that is permanent.

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a two-factor study with two levels of factor a and three levels of factor b uses a separate group of n

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The effect of one independent variable depends on the level of the second independent variable. A two-factor study with two-factor A levels and three-factor B levels uses a separate group of n = 5 participants for each treatment condition.

There is always the possibility of two main effects and one interaction. You can always compare the means of each main effect and interaction. There are key effects or interactions when the appropriate agents are different. They can have different df values, but they all have the same denominator.

The sampled population must be normally or nearly normally distributed. The samples must be independent. The variances of the populations must be equal. If the p-value is less than your significance level you can reject the null hypothesis. The difference between the two variances is statistically significant.

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why do people drink alcohol?how do they become alcoholic

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The reason why people become alcoholics is that they are simply addicted to the taste. Drinking alcohol can also be a coping mechanism for some people. They may be depressed or have low self-esteem and drinking is a way to escape reality.

in the definition of psychology behavior means

Answers

Answer:

According to Doron and Parot, behavior is the activity of an organism interacting with its environment.

Explanation:

Answer:  the term behavior means overt actions and reactions.

Explanation:

the placebo effect is the disappearance of symptoms without any apparent reason or treatment.

Answers

False: The placebo effect does not cause symptoms to go away for no discernible cause or benefit from a given medication.

The placebo effect is what, exactly?

A person's expectation that an activity will be helpful leads to the placebo effect, a positive health consequence. Independent of every specific treatment, the way a healthcare professional engages with a patient may also result in a favorable reaction.

Give an illustration of the placebo effect.

Participants who take the medication see a rise in blood pressure and heart rate as well as faster reaction times. However, when the exact same individuals are given the identical drug and informed that it will help people relax and sleep, most report feeling relaxation instead.

I understand the question you are looking for is

True or False: The placebo effect is the disappearance of symptoms without any apparent reason or treatment.

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what does the advent of behavioral modernity refer to

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Answer: The biological transition is when hominids became hominins.

Explanation: A period when early anatomically modern humans became fully human in symbolic thought and elaboration in cultural creativity.

The advent of behavioral modernity refer to biological transition.

What do you mean by biological transition?

The biological transition include the intrauterine and neonatal periods; puberty, including both adrenarche and gonadarche; pregnancy and the postpartum period; and the perimenopausal and menopausal periods.

The stages are shock, anger, acceptance and commitment. People's initial reaction to the change will likely be shock or denial as they refuse to accept that change is happening. Once the reality sinks in and people accept the change is happening, they tend to react negatively.

Transitions signal relationships between ideas—relationships such as: “Another example coming up—stay alert!” or “Here's an exception to my previous statement” or “Although this idea appears to be true, here's the real story.”

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Diabetes and hypertension two most common causes of chronic __________ in united states.

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Diabetes and hypertension two most common causes of renal failure disease in the united states.

Too much glucose, also known as sugar, in your blood, damages your kidneys’ filters. over the years, your kidneys can come to be so damaged that they do not do an excellent process of filtering wastes and extra fluid from your blood. Often, the primary signal of kidney disorder from diabetes is a protein in your urine.

Excessive blood strain, additionally known as high blood pressure, is a blood strain this is better than regular. Your blood strain changes all through the day primarily based on your activities. Having blood strain measures consistently above normal can also result in a prognosis of excessive blood strain (or hypertension).

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the nurse is preparing the delivery room before the birth occurs. what supplies would the nurse have available to care for the newborn?

Answers

Warmer bed, Suction outfit, Identification bands. Keep the space dry and pristine. Keep the diaper folded down to the refuse on your child.

What about the delivery room?Either constantly or formally every hour, a nanny will check on your labor and the heart rate of your future child.Still, an anesthesiologist will walk you through the procedure and give you the drug within the operating room, If you admit an epidural.Among the most typical are Vaginal Delivery, birth naturally, planned cesarean section.Neonatal care installations that treat sick preterm babies and babies.Care ahead, during, and after labor( perinatal) is handed by women's and child health units to meters and healthy babies.Extreme menstrual cramps( which regard 45% of reported pain situations) were the most frequently used comparison, followed by poor reverse pain( 16) and a fractured bone( 15).Given how well they know you, they will know how to console you and what to say or do to enable you to do so.Your birth mate can be someone you authentically trust and who has a thorough understanding of you, including your partner, mama , mama - in- law, friend, or relative.One of a sanitarium's most adaptable spaces is the labor room.A labor, delivery, and recovery room is what it's known as( LDR).Utmost birth centers and some hospitals use this kind of room for patient care.

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Karl, a 45-year-old barber, had worked in the same shop his entire life. Last year he disappeared and was found working as a car mechanic known as "K" 300 miles away, saying he had no memory of his former life. Karl's clinical diagnosis would most likely be a. schizophrenia. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. a fugue state. d. a conversion disorder. e. dissociative identity disorder.

Answers

Karl's clinical diagnosis would most likely be a fugue state, which is a temporary amnesia state (Option c).

What is a fugue temporary amnesia state?

A fugue temporary amnesia state is a condition in which the individual loses memory during a short period of time, which is generally accompanied by the recovery of the normal state.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that a fugue temporary amnesia state is a condition in which the individual suffering from this problem is unable to remember for a short period of time.

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A nurse is preparing to administer dabigatran to a client who has atrial fibrillation. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this medication is which of the following?
a. to convert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
b. to dissolve clots in the bloodstream
c. to slow the response of the ventricles to the fast atrial impulses
d. to reduce the risk of stroke in clients who have atrial fibrillation.

Answers

The purpose of dagigatran is to dissolve clots in the bloodstream

B. to dissolve clots in the bloodstream

What is dabigatran?

Dabigatran, or Pradaxa , is an anticoagulant used to treat and prevent stroke and blood clots to prevent  in people with atrial fibrillation. Specifically it is used to prevent blood clots following hip. It is used  to warfarin and does not require monitoring by blood tests. It is taken by mouth.

Common side effects is bleeding and gastritis. Other side effects may include bleeding around the allergic reaction and spine such as anaphylaxis. In cases of severe bleeding, it can be reversed with the antidote, idarucizumab. Use is not recommended breastfeeding or during pregnancy. Compared to warfarin it has fewer interactions with other medications. It is a direct thrombin inhibitor.

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True or false? the lungs have an efficient blood supply to take away the oxygenated blood and maintain the concentration gradient.

Answers

It’s true :)))))))))))

medical terminology ologist mean

Answers

Answer:  Specialist

Explanation: I still have the 350-word sheet from the medical terminology class  last year here so able to help you.

One who studies is the definition of ologist

According to the latest data, among children under 3 years of age, the most common food allergy is to?.

Answers

The most frequent triggers of food allergies in kids are eggs, milk, and peanuts, with wheat, soy, and tree nuts all making the list.

What is a food allergy?

When the body's immune system, which typically fights illnesses, perceives food as an invasion, a food allergy results. There is an allergic response as a result.

A person with a food allergy is always at risk for the subsequent response to be fatal, even if earlier reactions have been minor. Therefore, anyone who has a food allergy must completely avoid the offending food(s) and always carry injectable epinephrine for emergencies.

Food allergies can cause cramping, vomiting, diarrhea, hives, swelling, dermatitis, itching, trouble breathing, asthma, and low blood pressure, among other symptoms. Colic, blood in your child's stool, and slow growth are just a few signs that your child may be allergic to milk or soy.

Therefore, the most common causes of food allergies in children are eggs and milk.

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A nurse is caring for a client in crisis who has endured a physical assault. The nurse would expect to see which behavior associate with the integration phase of crisis?

Answers

The nurse would expect to see multiple types of behavior. Depending on their circumstances, each person deals with trauma in a unique way.

What integration phase of a crisis?

The acute phase's nightmares and feelings of shock, guilt, dread, shame, impotence, wrath, despair, and fear of being touched may resurface. Many survivors during this stage believe that their emotions indicate major mental disorders or that they are going insane.

During the integration period, the patient may experience depression or anxiety, or they may want to communicate. The nightmares and emotions.

Therefore, the nurse would expect to see a variety of behaviors. Each person responds to trauma in a different way depending on their circumstances.

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Stella has been diagnosed with panic disorder and refuses to leave her home without her husband. She fears any situation in which she cannot escape or find help when a panic attack would strike. Stella suffers not only from panic disorder, but also from _____.
Please type the correct answer in the following input field, and then select the submit answer button or press the enter key when finished.
agoraphobia

Answers

Stella suffers not only from panic disorder, but also from agoraphobia as fears any situation in which she cannot escape or find help when a panic attack would strike.

A panic attack is a sudden episode of intense concern that triggers severe physical reactions once there's no real danger or apparent cause. Panic attacks is terribly horrifying. Once panic attacks occur, you would possibly suppose you are losing management, having a attack or perhaps dying.

Agoraphobia is a mental disorder that always develops when one or additional panic attacks. Symptoms embrace concern and rejection of places and things that may cause feelings of panic, entrapment, helplessness or embarrassment. Treatments embrace speak medical aid and medicine.

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what percentage of bone loss might occur in the six to eight-year period following menopause?

Answers

20 percent of bone loss might occur in the six to eight-year period following menopause.

Why is their a loss of bone in 8 year period following menopause ?Preventing bone loss is a major concern for women during the menopause and post-menopausal stages. Menopause accelerates bone loss and raises the risk of osteoporosis. According to research, up to 20% of bone loss can occur throughout these stages, and osteoporosis affects nearly one in every ten women over the age of 60 worldwide.One in every two postmenopausal women will have osteoporosis, and the majority will fracture at some point in their lives. Fractures (broken bones) cause discomfort, reduced mobility, and diminished function. Fractures are linked to a lower quality of life and an increased risk of death.

What is menopause, when does it normally occur, and what causes it?Menopause, also known as the climacteric, is the phase in a woman's life when her menstrual periods stop and she is no longer able to bear children. Menopause is typically experienced between the ages of 47 and 54.Menopause is commonly defined by medical professionals as the absence of menstrual bleeding for a year.

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thurstone proposed that there are a few stable and independent mental abilities that he referred to as mental abilities.

Answers

Answer:

Thurstone proposed that there are a few stable and independent mental abilities that he referred to as: primary mental abilities.

Explanation:

A medical student makes a transverse cut of a cadaver's leg. The two resulting sections could be referred to as the superior and inferior sections anterior and posterior sections left and right sections frontal and sagittal sections.

Answers

A medical student makes a transverse cut of a cadaver's leg. The two resulting sections could be referred to as the superior and inferior sections.

A cadaver, also called a corpse, is a deceased person's body that is used by medical professionals, students, and other researchers to study anatomy, locate illness areas, ascertain the causes of death, and provide tissue for repairing defects in living people. In order to further their studies, medical school students study and dissect corpses. Archaeologists and art students are among the other people who study cadavers.

When referring to body components that are at one end of the body, the terms superior and inferior sections (cranial and caudal) are employed. The head (cranial) is where superior structures are located, while the feet are where inferior (caudal) structures are located. makes a distinction between the superior (upper) and inferior sections (lower) parts of the body. plane of sagittal. horizontal line that separates the body's right and left sides.

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dietary recommendations for individuals trying to gain weight as muscle include which of the following?

Answers

Individuals must choose nutrient rich foods if they are trying to gain weight as muscle.

What should be the dietary recommendations for muscle weight gain?

It's crucial to keep in mind that weight-gain diets do not call for eating processed foods, foods loaded in fat or sugar, or items like wings, hamburgers, chips, or soda.

The dietary recommendations should be-

Increase the consumption of meats, poultry, and fish (sources of high quality protein), 1% milk instead of 2%, and whole grain foods (pasta, rice, potatoes), to other food exchanges, add fruit (apricots and pineapples are examples of good snacks), fresh vegetables (broccoli and cauliflower), milk is a calorie-dense healthy beverage, and saturated fats should be limited but not entirely avoided. eat three meals that are balanced and two to three snacks each day.

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jamal, at age 6, is already an excellent athlete, fast runner, and accomplished gymnast. he has excellent .

Answers

Gross motor skills are the abilities required to coordinate the body's muscles during powerful motions like crawling, walking, jumping, running, and more.

What is A List of Gross Motor Skills?In their early years of development, children learn to coordinate their massive body muscles.Examples of typical gross motor skills include the following: catching and throwing a ball while learning to walkWalking back and forth, climbing a ladder, riding a tricycle, balancing while walking along a low wall, and putting a tennis ball over the net.Below are some illustrations of gross motor skills for children of different ages, from newborns to those in elementary or primary school.There is a list of common gross motor exercises that children of different ages can complete.As each child develops at their own rate and may reach some milestones earlier or later, this is only a guideline.Children naturally develop their gross motor abilities via play, but it is also possible to design movement activities that give them lots of opportunity to explore movement and develop their bodies.The best gross motor exercises are listed below. They are simple and will give kids lots of practice developing their stronger muscles.Allowing kids to use a few, carefully selected gross motor toys, such as balls, scooters, and skipping ropes, is also beneficial.The most important factor is to allow children a lot of playtime. Babies need lots of time on the floor to explore movement, and older children need lots of time for unstructured indoor and outdoor play.Here are some examples for toddlers, preschoolers, and children in elementary school

The Complete Question is,
Jamal, at age 6, is already an excellent athlete, fast runner, and accomplished gymnast. He has excellent ________. a) gross motor skills b) fine motor skills c) reaction time d) hand-eye coordination

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select all that apply. technological fluency information need expression of information rote hardware and software learning content and communication focus

Answers

Technological fluency in information transmission is a construct of information technology. Expression of information. Technical understanding of the expression of information is a construct of information technology.

What is technology fluency?

The capacity to utilize a variety of devices, programs, and apps - even ones that have never been used before - with ease and understanding is known as technology fluency.

Digital literacy is the ability to find, comprehend, organize, evaluate, and adapt digital content. It also refers to being critical and discerning.

An essential element of the digital revolution is tech proficiency. A workforce that can apply tech concepts to the workplace can break down boundaries, have clearer dialogues that produce better results, and contribute to the success of the company on a completely new level.

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Which statement is true about people with bulimia nervosa?

a) they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging
b) they show signs of extreme weight loss
c) they live in a state of semistarvation
d) they experience bone loss and amenorrhea

Answers

The statement that is true about people with bulimia nervosa is that they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging.

So option A is correct.

What is bulimia nervosa?

Bulimia nervosa is described as an emotional disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an obsessive desire to lose weight, in which bouts of extreme overeating are followed by fasting or self-induced vomiting or purging.

So from the description of bulimia nervosa, we can conclude from the options given that the correct statement is Option A ( they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging).

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Dex's addiction to drugs is affecting his job. He has been written up twice, lately, for missing shifts at work. Dex's case illustrates the _____ associated with abnormal behavior.

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Dex's addiction to drugs is affecting his job. He has been written up twice lately, for missing shifts at work. Dex's case illustrates the distress associated with abnormal behavior.

Comorbidity is when two or more mental disorders occur in the same person at the same time. Most psychologists agree that mental health problems are caused by a combination of biology and environment.

I'm trying to explain how to interact with Psychologists who often classify behavior as abnormal using her four Des deviations distress dysfunction and danger. A simple definition of anomaly is difficult because it is relative but the definition has some important characteristics.

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Sofia has heard that buying vitamins is a waste of money because the body cannot store them. What is the best response to this statement?.

Answers

The best answer to this is that this is more accurate for water-soluble vitamins than for fat-soluble vitamins.

It varies. If you use vitamins improperly, they are a waste of money. Additionally, if you use vitamins properly, they are the deal of a lifetime.

When compared to generic supplements that include questionable substances that your body doesn't need, vitamins may appear to be a waste of money. On the other hand, vitamins and minerals are essential for your health. Without them, your body will stop functioning. That does imply death.

Vitamins can either be fat or water-soluble. Moisture vitamins (B, C) cannot be stored by the body, thus any extra you consume from dietary sources is excreted. This means that water-soluble vitamins cannot be consumed in excess.

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All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. ureters. B. stomach. C. spleen. D. bladder.

Answers

The ureter, stomach, bladder are all hollow abdominal organs except the spleen.

Which of the abdominal organs is solid and which is hollow?Both solid and hollow organs are housed in the abdominal cavity.Solid organs include the gallbladder, spleen, pancreas, liver, kidneys, and adrenal glands. The GI tract is a collection of hollow organs connected by a long, twisting tube that runs from the mouth to the anus. The GI tract is made up of hollow organs such as the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and anus. The stomach is a hollow muscular organ. It receives food from the esophagus (gullet or food pipe), mixes it, breaks it down, and then passes it in small quantities to the small intestine. The entire digestive system is comprised of a single muscular tube that extends from the mouth to the anus.

What exactly is the spleen?The spleen is a small organ found just above the stomach, inside the left rib cage. In adults, the spleen is about the size of an avocado. The spleen is part of the lymphatic system (which is part of your immune system).It performs several important tasks in keeping your body healthy.

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1. Which of the following is the FIFTH step of CPR?

Call 9-1-1
Check for breathing
Open the victim's airway
Provide mouth-to-mouth breathing
2. Which of the following are the common causes of choking?

Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating slowly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing after eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and not drinking before or during meals
3. Which of the following is the correct order when you witness a victim needing CPR?

Check the scene, check the victim, call 911, and start compressions immediately
Check the scene, call 911, check the victim, and start compressions immediately
Call 911, check the scene, check the victim, and start compressions immediately
Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately
4. What is the main function of the circulatory system?

Carbon dioxide leaving the body
Moving blood between the heart and lungs
Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood
Filtering the air as it enters the body
5. Which of the following is the 4th leading cause of injury related deaths?

Car accident
Plane crash
Choking
Falling
6. Which of the following is the SIXTH step of using an AED?

Press the shock button
Attach the AED pads
Open the victim's shirt and wipe the chest dry
Tell everyone to "stand clear"
7. To administer back blows, what position should the person be in?

Bent forward at the waist
Standing straight up
Bent forward at the knees
Laying down
8. Which part of your hand should be used to administer back blows?

Fist
Heel
Palm
Wrist
9. At what rate per minute should compressions be administered?

100
150
200
250
10. Which of the following makes up 1 CPR Cycle?

30 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths
30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
100 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
100 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths
11. Which of the following is the lower respiratory system responsible for?

Secreting a mucus that filters, warms, and cleanses the air
Heart getting blood out to every cell in the body
Getting oxygen to the cells of the body
Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood
12. When using an AED, after the shock is delivered when should CPR resume?

Wait 30 seconds
Wait 1 minutes
Immediately
Do not continue CPR
13. Which of the following are considered to be signs of a heart attack?

Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the jaw, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the abdomen, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the abdomen, and pain when swallowing
14. When possible, what is the preferred method of CPR?

Compression-only
Single-person
Two-person
Rescue-breath-only
15. Compression-only CPR should only be used on which of the following types of victims?

Under the age of 8
Victims you witness collapse
Victims you do not witness collapse
Collapsed from choking

Answers

This prompt has to do with the biological systems related to Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

1) The FIFTH step of CPR is: Open the victim's airway (Option 3)

2) The common causes of choking are: "eating too quickly" and "laughing while eating" (Option B and C)

3) The correct order when you witness a person who needs CPR is "Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately" (Option D)

4) The main function of the circulatory system is: "Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood" (Option C)

5) The 4th leading cause of injury-related deaths is falling (Option D)

6) The SIXTH step of using an AED is: "Tell everyone to "stand clear" (Option D)

7) To administer back blows, the position the person should  be in is:  " Standing straight up" (Option B)

8) The part of your hand should be used to administer back blows is: "palm" (Option C)

9) The rate per minute at which compressions be administered is: 100 compressions minute (Option A)

10)  One CPR cycle is given as "30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths" (Option B)

11) The lower respiratory system is responsible for "Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood" (Option C)

12) When using an AED, after the shock is delivered CPR resume immediately (Option C)

13) The option that is considered to be signs of a heart attack are: "Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain" (Option A)

14) When possible, the preferred method of CPR is: "Compression-only" (Option A)

15) Compression-only CPR should only be used on: "Victims you witness collapse" (Option B)

What is Cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency procedure that combines chest compressions with artificial ventilation in an attempt to manually preserve intact cognitive abilities until further measures are taken to restore sudden blood circulation and breathing in a person who has gone into cardiac arrest.

CPR, especially if given soon after a cardiac arrest, has been shown to increase or triple a person's chances of survival. Approximately 90% of persons who have an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest die.

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Approximately how many sexually active teens will contract a STI before graduating from high school
One out of every three
One out of every five
One out of every seven
One out of every ten
O
5 points

Answers

Answer:

Approximately one out of every three sexually active teens will contract an STI before graduating from high school.

Explanation:

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Other Questions
What is the Missouri merit plan? What is the term for non-bonding electrons sometimes present in covalent molecules?O Lone pairsO Valence electronsO ElectronsO Mobile electrons Find the exact value of sin(u + v) given that sinu = 5/3 and cos v =-4/5. (Both u and v are in Quadrant I.) a chart that is inserted directly in the current worksheet is called a(n) ____ chart. For what reasons does Laertes say Ophelia should not be with Hamlet? what type of proposal is written to obtain funding from agencies that support worthwhile causes?a. Grant Proposalb. Informal Proposal meiosis i and meiosis ii are very different from one another. can you identify what happens in each?sort each item to the appropriate bin. Diabetes and hypertension two most common causes of chronic __________ in united states. what is a good interest rate on a credit card Why does cyanide cause muscle weakness shortness of breath and dizziness? 7TH GRADE ENGLISH!!! HELP Which of the following sentences is the clearest example of an emotional appeal?If we have bike lanes, bicyclists can go as fast or as slow as they choose without worrying that they are delaying traffic and upsetting drivers.Last year, there were 17 serious accidents involving bicyclists and motorists in the city of Oakwood.More careful drivers and bicyclists will mean fewer accidents.People will arrive at work in the morning earlier and feeling less stressed. What is the purpose of the transition word Moreover As used in this sentence moreover water was also depleting quickly? Presented below is information related to Stellar Corporation for the current year. $ 609,300 1,499,300 Beginning inventory Purchases Total goods available for sale Sales revenue $2,108,600 2,415,000 Compute the ending inventory, assuming that (a) gross profit is 49% of sales, (b) gross profit is 60% of cost, (c) gross profit is 38% of sales, and (d) gross profit is 25% of cost. (Round ratios for computational purposes to 1 decimal place, e.g. 78.7% and final answers to O decimal places, e.g. 28,987.) Ending Inventory (a) Gross profit is 49% of sales $ (b) Gross profit is 60% of cost $ (c) Gross profit is 38% of sales $ (d) Gross profit is 25% of cost $ A ball is projected horizontally with some initial velocity off a cliff 249 meters high Itmakes contact with the ground in 5.8 seconds. [Neglect air resistancee.] What is the ball'sinitial horizontal velocity? [Show all work, including the equation and substitution withunits.] [2 pts] 12. The hourly temperatures at Eppley Airfield Airport in Omaha, Nebraska, in May 2014 are approximately normally distributed with a mean of 64.4F and a standard deviation of 12.2 F. The z-score of the lowest temperature is 2.49. What is the lowest temperature? Round your result to the ones place. When would you calculate an expected value? a. When your data points occur on different datesb. When your data points have various probabilities of occurringc. When you need to know the exact outcome of a future, unknown eventd. When you only have one data point Which type of website is generally considered to be most trustworthy and reliable?A. Organizational (.org)B. Foreign (for example , .uk, .ca)C. Commercial (.com)D. Educational (.edu) If we double only the spring constant of a vibrating ideal mass-and-spring system, the mechanical energy of the system. How do I calculate the geomagnetic coordinates? one thousand independent rolls of a fair die will be made. compute an approximation to the probability that the number 6 will appear between 150 and 200 times inclusively.