We are using indirect detection for ADHP. The steps for the method are as follows:
1. Add a primary antibody that binds to the target protein of interest (in this case, ADHP) to the sample.
2. Add a secondary antibody that binds to the primary antibody. This secondary antibody is typically conjugated to a detectable label (e.g. a fluorescent dye or an enzyme).
3. Incubate the sample for a period of time to allow for binding to occur.
4. Wash the sample to remove any unbound material.
5. Add a substrate to the sample that is specific to the label used on the secondary antibody. For example, if the label is an enzyme, the substrate may be a colorimetric reagent that produces a colored product when acted upon by the enzyme.
6. The sample is incubated to allow for the substrate to react with the enzyme and the color development to occur.
7. The results can then be visualized using a light microscope or other detection methods.
What is an Antibody?
An antibody also known as an immunoglobulin, is a large Y-shaped protein that the immune system uses to recognise and neutralize foreign objects such as pathogenic bacteria and viruses. The antibody detects a specific molecule of the pathogen known as an antigen.
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Which of the following always contains an amino functional group?
A. Carbonic acid
B. Alcohol
C. Protein
D. Fatty acid
E. Carbohydrate
The substance that always contains an amino functional group is protein. That is option C.
What is protein?Protein is defined as the macromolecule found in food and food products which are taken to help repair worn out tissues of the body and aid body metabolic activities.
Other organic compounds that can be found in food and food products include the following:
CarbohydratesFat and oil,Vitamins, minerals andwater.Of all the organic molecules, the protein are known to have amino functional group in their molecular structure.
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Why is blood considered a connective tissue?
Blood is considered a connective tissue because it consists of blood cells surrounded by a nonliving fluid matrix called blood plasma.
What is Blood?This is referred to as a type of body fluid which is present in the circulatory system and helps in the transport of oxygen and other forms of nutrients to different parts of the body and it connects the body systems through this process.
It is also considered a connective tissue because it consists of numerous blood cells surrounded by a nonliving fluid matrix called blood plasma which creates a network between different cells and organs.
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An error during G₁ phase would be most likely to affect a multicellular
organism in what way?
OA. The organism develops cells with too few or too many
chromosomes.
OB. The organism develops cells that are too large.
OC. The organism develops cells that are too small.
OD. The organism develops cells with DNA that contains errors.
SUBMIT
The organism develops cells that are too large. when an error occurs during the G1 phase of the cell cycle.
What is the G1 phase?
Cells decide in the G1 phase whether to pass the limitation point and enter the S phase or move on to G0. These choices are based on the integrity of the signalling apparatus that detects extracellular signals and the extracellular signals that the cell receives. In cancer, G1 progression is frequently dysregulated. This can happen as a result of mutations or the expression of CDKs, cyclins, or CKIs being dysregulated. Cancer patients also experience loss- or gain-of-function mutations in the CDK kinase upstream regulators.
What is Cell-cycle?
The procedure that a cell undergoes each time it divides. Chromosomes and other cell components duplicate to create two copies of themselves over the course of the cell cycle, which consists of a number of phases. Following this, the cell divides into two daughter cells, distributing one copy of the duplicated material to each. When each daughter cell has its own outer membrane around it, the cell cycle is finished. known as the mitotic cycle.
(B) The organism develops cells that are too large.
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Answer:
c
Explanation:
I got it correct
source trust me bro
If two organisms belong to the same family what other taxonomic groups have in common.
If two creatures belong to the same family, they also share the following taxonomic groups: domain, kingdom, phylum, class, and order. A taxonomy system divides organisms into taxa. They are related if they belong to the same taxonomic group.
Both creatures would share the following classifications: Kingdom, Phylum, Class, and Order. Consider it a Kingdom hierarchy in taxonomic group. which organisms are dispersed according to each group and finally segregated or separated in the final taxonomic group groupings.
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A horticulturalist wants to produce geraniums with specific characteristics.
She knows that the trait of red flowers is governed by the allele R (RR and Rr) and the trait
of white flowers is governed by the alleler (rr).
The horticulturalist crosses two geraniums from the F1 generation.
Look at the Punnett square to see this cross.
R
Rr
RR Rr
Rr
rr
Which ratio of red-to-white flowering plants would she expect to see in the phenotypes of the F2
generation?
A horticulturalist wants to produce geraniums with specific characteristics. The horticulturalist crosses two geraniums from the F1 generation is RR and Rr = Red flower
White flower, rr
When a gene wants to produce geraniums it must has a homozygous state, both alleles are either dominant or recessive. One allele is recessive while the other allele is dominant in a heterozygous situation. Allele: An organism's version of a gene for a particular trait. Predict all conceivable genotypes. Example of a Punnett square where R is used to represent the alleles. The Punnett square would be as follows if a homozygous red flower geranium (RR) and homozygous white flower geranium (RR) were crossed:
R R
r Rr Rr
r Rr Rr
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Rank the subdivisions of large intestine, starting on top with the one that is closest to small intestine. 1. Cecum 2. Appendix 3. Colon 4. Rectum.
Appendix, Colon, Cecum, and Rectum. The large intestine is divided into the following groups, commencing at the top with the one that is closest to the small intestine.
In humans and certain other species, the rectum is the last straight segment of the large intestine, while in others it is known as the gut. The rectosigmoid junction (the end of the sigmoid colon), which is located at the level of the third sacral vertebra, marks the beginning of the adult human rectum, which is approximately 12 centimetres (4.7 in) long. The last section of the gastrointestinal tract and the digestive system in tetra-pods is the large intestine, also referred to as the large bowel. The residual waste is retained here once the water is absorbed in large intestine. large intestine starts from appendix.
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social monogamy is characteristic of: group of answer choices baboons chimpanzees orangutans gibbons
Social monogamy is characteristic of gibbons. Monogamy refers to a social group that includes adult men, adult women, and their offspring.
Is monogamy in mammals natural and why are gibbons called monogamous??Of course, monogamy exists in nature, as do women seeking multiple partners. But nature seems to be pushing things towards polygamy in our evolutionary branch. Only 9% of mammalian species are monogamous. Only 29% in primates. Male and female gibbons are considered monogamous. They mate for life, forming families that stay together until the offspring grow up and leave the home. A couple's bond is strengthened by the time they spend grooming each other.Is monogamy a very common social strategy for primates?Monogamous Family Groups: This group pattern is most common in humans, but rare in nonhuman primates. It occurs among small Asian apes and some New World monkeys and monkeys.
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Describe two patterns of complex inheritance and explain how they are different from mendelian.
A male who is colorblind and blooms, as well as a male who is colorblind and a normal female, are two examples of complicated inheritance patterns. There are recessive and dominant genes, according to one of Mendelian's rules. Only the dominant allele will be present if they are combined and generate a heterozygote.
One of the Mendelian laws (the third) states that each gene has both a dominant and recessive allele, and that if these two alleles are inherited together and create a heterozygote (one from the mother, one from the father), only the dominant allele's characteristic will be displayed.
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Which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?
Group of answer choices
Natural selection and evolutionary change are generally a slow, gradual process.
Natural selection depends on the environment organisms are living in.
Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that improve an organism's fitness.
Natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.
The statement that is false regarding natural selection is as follows: Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that improve an organism's fitness (option C).
What is natural selection?Natural selection is the process by which heritable traits conferring survival and reproductive advantage to individuals, or related individuals, tend to be passed on to succeeding generations and become more frequent in a population.
When this occurs, other less favourable traits tend to become eliminated; the differential survival and reproduction of phenotypes.
Individuals in a population are naturally variable, meaning that they are all different in some ways. This variation means that some individuals have traits better suited to the environment than others.
Therefore, option C is the false statement regarding natural selection.
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Animal cells typically achieve cytokinesis by
a binary fission.
b chromosome condensation.
c. forming a cleavage furrow that pinches the cell into two.
d forming a cell plate across the middle of the cell.
- chromosome elongation.
while a lvn has a "directed" scope of practice, this is not true for a rn. this means that the rn
LVN has a "directed" scope of practice which means that the rn is permitted to practice nursing independently within the RN's scope of practice.
What is the scope of practice for an LPN/LVN?The LPN/LVN practice educational preparation involves routine observation and dental care. Depending on the state, LPNs and LVNs may or may not be allowed to conduct assessments.
The specialized position in nursing is performed by a licensed practical nurse or licensed vocational nurse.
Therefore, LPNs and LVNs are better able to understand patients' requirements since they are more attuned to them than RNs are.
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Given question is incomplete, so complete question is,
While an LVN has a "directed" scope of practice, this is NOT true for an RN. This means that the RN
A. has full accountability for the LVN.
B. is able to engage in making medical diagnoses if signed off by a physician and performed under the physician's delegation.
C. must be present in all settings to supervise the LVN's care.
D. is permitted to practice nursing independently within the RN's scope of practice.
fill in the blank question. the difference between the yield curve and the term structure is that the yield curve is based on
The difference between the yield curve and the term structure is that the yield curve is based on bond risk premiums and future interest rate expectations
The yield curve, also known as the interest rate structure, describes the relationship between the remaining time to maturity of debt securities and the yield on those securities. The relationship between interest rates or bond yields and different terms or maturities is referred to as interest rate structure. A yield curve is a line that plots the interest rates of bonds with equal credit quality but different maturity dates at a given point in time. In economics and finance, a yield curve is a curve that shows the interest rate associated with different contract lengths for a specific debt instrument.
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a retiree, tired of minnesota winters, moves to tucson, arizona. he hopes the warm dry climate will ease his chronic respiratory problems. he soon experiences a new kind of weather, a massive dust storm. with which of the following fungi might he become infected? group of answer choices paracoccidioides brasiliensis coccidioides immitis histoplasma capsulatum blastomyces dermatitidis aspergillus fumigatus
In a massive dust storm, the retiree might become infected with b) Coccidioides immitis.
Coccidioides immitis is a fungus that lives in dry soil. In the scenario mentioned in the question, as the condition of the Tuscon, Arizona are warm and dry, hence in such areas the fungal species Coccidioides immitis will be residing.
In case of a dust storm, the Coccidioides immitis living in the soil will pass into the respiratory tract of the retiree and cause respiratory problems. the fungal infection can be serious as the person would not have been exposed to this fungus before.
The question will correctly be written as:
A retiree, tired of Minnesota winters, moves to Tucson, Arizona. He hopes the warm dry climate will ease his chronic respiratory problems. he soon experiences a new kind of weather, a massive dust storm. With which of the following fungi might he become infected? group of answer choices
a) paracoccidioides brasiliensis
b) coccidioides immitis
c) histoplasma capsulatum
d) blastomyces dermatitidis
e) aspergillus fumigatus
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TRUE/FALSE. diapedesis is the group of answer choices loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. production of only red blood cells.
False, Diapedesis is not an loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. WBC at the site of infection is known as diapedesis.
What is WBC?
A type of blood cell found in the blood and lymph tissue that is produced in the bone marrow. WBCs are components of the immune system. They aid the body's defence against infection and other diseases. Granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils), monocytes, and lymphocytes are all types of WBCs (T cells and B cells). The number of WBCs in the blood is usually measured as part of a complete blood cell (CBC) test. It can be used to screen for infections, inflammation, allergies, and leukemia. Also known as a leukocyte and a white blood cell.
The squeezing movement of WBC at the site of infection is known as diapedesis. It is the passage of blood or any of its constituents through the intact walls of blood vessels.
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define in simple terms - Exchange of gases
Answer:
Exchange Of Gases: oxygen is able to move from the lungs to the bloodstreams.
Explanation:
Iron acts as a __________ to many enzymes involved in making amino acids, collagen, hormones, neurotransmitters, and more.
Numerous enzymes that produce amino acids, collagen, hormones, neurotransmitters, and other substances also require iron as a cofactor. Iron is a crucial mineral that keeps the body's tissues oxygenated, protects against infections, and functions as a cofactor for numerous enzymes.
For the creation of blood, iron is crucial. Hemoglobin, enzymes a component of your blood's red blood cells, and myoglobin, a component of your body muscles, enzymes , both contain around 70% of the iron in your body. Your blood's hemoglobin helps carry oxygen from your lungs to your tissues.
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if a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble _____.
If a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble respiring and feeding.
What are the tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits?The tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits are a series of structures within this taxonomic group that function in order to make the process of respiration and feeding possible by filtering substances in the aquatic environment.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits play a fundamental role in filtering substances.
Complete question:
Fill in the blank. If a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble___.
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Which of the following is FALSE about trabecular bone? Select one: a. comprises approximately 80% of the skeleton b. porous and spongy in composition c. very sensitive to changes in hormones and nutritional deficiencies d. very rapid turnover
comprises approximately 80% of the skeleton
Option A is correct answer.
What is trabecular bone?
In order to offer an indirect assessment of trabecular microarchitecture on lumbar spine DXA images, the trabecular bone score (TBS) is a novel gray-level textural analysis. In ex vivo studies, it has been demonstrated to be strongly correlated with CT measurements of connection density, trabecular number, and trabecular separation. 45–47 A dense trabecular network resulting from a high TBS value is linked to improved bone strength, whereas a low TBS value is linked to worse bone structure. TBS has the benefit of being performable in previously obtained DXA images from GE Lunar and Hologic Discovery, Delphi, and Horizon) instruments. 46,48 TBS has the advantage of being accessible from DXA images with the application of appropriate software.
The spinal column and the ends of the long bones contain trabecular bone, which has a sophisticated three-dimensional architecture and covers the entire interior vertebral space. Age-related alterations in the trabecular structure, cause osteoporosis. More dangerously, it will cause femoral head osteonecrosis. The disease ONFH is widespread in both children and adults. An artificial joint's useful life cannot exceed the patient's lifetime.
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Place the following organs in the appropriate body cavity.
The abdominal depression, which is girdled by the caricatures and pelvis and houses the feathers, ureters, stomach, bowel, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas, and the pelvic depression, which is girdled by the pelvis and houses the bladder, anus, and reproductive system, can be separated from the abdominopelvic depression.
What about the body cavity?The internal organs, or viscera, are set up in the depressions or gaps of the body.The frontal and rearward depressions are the names of the two primary depressions.The diaphragm, a pate- shaped respiratory muscle, divides the frontal depression, which is the largest depression, into the thoracic and abdominopelvic depressions.The frontal depression and rearward depression are the two biggest fleshly depressions in humans.The anterior( or front) of the box is where the frontal depression is located.The thoracic depression and the abdominopelvic depression are divisions of it.The head and the reverse of the box are located in the rearward depression, which is located in the posterior( or back) of the body.A fleshly depression is an area of the body that's filled with fluid and serves to house and guard internal organs.Membranes and other structures divide the colorful fleshly depressions in humans.The frontal depression and the rearward depression are the two biggest fleshly depressions in humans.Lower fleshly depressions are resolved between these two body depressions.The topmost concave area in the body is the abdominal depression.Its lower limit is the upper airplane of the pelvic depression, and its upper hedge is the diaphragm, a distance of muscle and connective towel that divides it from the casket depression.The given question in the portal is incomplete. The complete question is given below.
Place the following organs in the appropriate body cavity.
A. Thoracic
B. Abdominopelvic
C. Spinal
D. Cranial
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which of the following is not a step used by cytotoxic t cells to kill infected host cells? view available hint(s)for part e which of the following is not a step used by cytotoxic t cells to kill infected host cells? secretion of perforin secretion of granzyme activation of b cells recognition of infected host cell using its tcr
Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein is not the step used by cytotoxic t cells to kill infected host cells.
What are cytotoxic T cells?
One of the primary categories of immune cells made in your thymus are cytotoxic T-cells. Your helper T-cells trigger the cytotoxic T-cells when you are infected. CTLs work to combat the virus. A crucial component of your adaptive immunity are these T-cells.
Immune cells include cytotoxic T-cells. They eliminate virus-infected cells. Killer T-cells is another term for cytotoxic T-cells.
Cytotoxic One of the three primary cell types produced in your thymus are T-cells. In the front of your chest, there lies a little gland called the thymus. The other T-cell varieties consist of:
Helper T-cells, which stimulate the production of additional immune cells to combat infections.Regulatory T cells that, when necessary, inhibit other immune cells.Function of cytotoxic T cells:
A structure termed a CD8 receptor can be found on the surface of cytotoxic T cells. To determine when healthy cells are infected, the CD8 receptor interacts with molecules on cells known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) Class I molecules.The cytotoxic T-cells are activated when the CD8 receptor detects an infected cell. Cytotoxic T-cells produce chemicals that are intended to eradicate the infection.Hence, Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein is the correct answer.
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choose all the regions of the cns that the parasympathetic division of the ans arise from. multiple select question. lumbar spinal cord cervical spinal cord sacral spinal cord brain thoracic spinal cord
The regions of the Central nervous system that the parasympathetic division of the automated nervous system arise from are the sacral and spinal cord regions.
What is central nervous system (CNS)?The central nervous system (CNS) is defined as part of the nervous system that is made up of mainly the following:
the brain, the spinal cord, and the neurons (or nerve cells).The central nervous system has a primary function in the body which is to regulate the body physiological processes.
The parasympathetic nervous system is a division of the autonomic nervous system which functions mainly to counteract the actions of the sympathetic nervous system.
The parasympathetic nervous system is described as originating in the craniosacral region, that is, from the brainstem and also the sacral plexus.
Therefore, the parasympathetic division of the automated nervous system arise from the sacral and spinal cord regions.
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what is the morphology of your bacteria labster
The morphology of the bacteria labster is referred to as a gram-negative bacillus and is denoted as option A.
What is Bacillus?This is used to describe an entire class of bacteria and it is characterized by the rod-shape which can be seen when they are observed under a microscope in the laboratory. They are involved in various purposes ranging from industrial uses to being causes of different types of diseases.
The bacteria which is referred to as labster is unicellular and microscopic in nature and it is also an example of a gram negative bacteria which is therefore the reason why option A was chosen as the correct choice.
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The options are:
a) Gram-negative bacillus.
b) Gram-positive bacillus.
c) Gram-positive coccus.
d) Gram-negative coccus.
what is the complete hemoglobin molecule composed of
The complete hemoglobin molecule is composed of the following below:
Polypeptide chains (globins)Heme groupsIron ions.What is Hemoglobin?This is referred to as a type of protein which is present in the red blood cells of almost all organisms and it comprises of heme groups and iron ions which ensures that it functions adequately in the body system.
It has a very high affinity for oxygen and is responsible for binding and transporting it to different parts of the body such as the brain, legs etc so as to prevent cell death which makes it a very important compound in the circulatory system.
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In the Calvin cycle, ____ and ___ bring chemical energy from the light-dependent reactions. Here, the enzyme ____ catalyzes carbon fixation as a molecule of ____ from the _____ is attached yo a 5-carbon sugar called ____.
In the Calvin cycle, ATP and NADPH bring chemical energy from the light-dependent reactions for enzyme RUBISCO catalyzes carbon fixation as a molecule of carbondioxide from the atmosphere is attached to a 5-carbon sugar called RUBP.
What is Calvin cycle?Calvin cycle is a series of biochemical reactions that take place in the stroma of chloroplasts in photosynthetic organisms.
Calvin cycle is also called light-independent reactions or dark reactions because it does not require light to occur. The light dependent reaction produces ATP and NADPH that serves as energy carrier and electron carrier respectively.
The Calvin cycle occurs in three stages as follows:
In fixation, which is the first stage of the Calvin cycle, CO2 is fixed from an inorganic to an organic molecule.In the second stage called reduction, ATP and NADPH are used to reduce 3-PGA into G3P; then ATP and NADPH are converted to ADP and NADP+, respectively.In the last stage of the Calvin Cycle, RuBP is regenerated, which enables the system to prepare for more CO2 to be fixed.Learn more about Calvin cycle at: https://brainly.com/question/3199721
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Which of these are commonly used to cleave peptide bonds in polypeptides?
- 2-mercaptoethanol (β-ME)
- dansyl chloride
- iodoacetate
- sodium dodecyl sulfate
- trypsin
The most often utilised enzyme to break peptide bonds in polypeptides is trypsin.
D is the ideal choice.
What is a common method for breaking peptide bonds?Enzymatic cleavage is frequently used to selectively hydrolyze peptide bonds. Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and pepsin are examples of proteases that are frequently utilised in the hydrolysis of proteins. Trypsin cleaves at Arg and Lys (Phe and Leu).
How are the peptide bonds broken?Acid hydrolysis can cleave peptide bonds in a non-specific manner or can be used specifically by a variety of proteolytic enzymes that have an affinity for the bonds between particular amino acid residues.
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in response to increased blood osmolarity, the osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus are stimulated to release more hormone.
Increased blood osmolarity, detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus, triggers the production of vasopressin (also known as antidiuretic hormone).
define vasopressin ?
Human vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), arginine vasopressin (AVP), or argipressin, is a hormone that is generated as a peptide prohormone in hypothalamic neurons and then converted to AVP. It then travels down the axon, ending in the posterior pituitary, and is released into the blod from vesicles in reaction to ecf hypertonicity (hyperosmolality). AVP serves two key purposes. For starters, it increases the quantity of solute-free fluids reabsorbed back into the bloodstream from the filtrate in the nephrons' renal tubules. Second, AVP restricts arterioles, increasing peripheral vascular resistance & blood pressure.
Vasopressin is produced in response to increased blood osmolarity as recognised by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus (also known as antidiuretic hormone).
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where would you find iron regulatory protein (irps)? group of answer choices cytosol nucleus mitochondria golgi apparatus
Similar to how iron is imported and transported within cells, mitochondrial iron import and transport are tightly controlled, careful processes intended to prevent undesired.
Which of these are hollow rods that help the cell form and are supported?The third main component of the cytoskeleton, microtubules, are hard, hollow rods with a diameter of around 25 nm. Microtubules are dynamic, constantly assembling and disassembling within the cell, much like actin filaments.
What form does the packaging and modification of proteins take?Figure 1: Proteins are modified and organized for transport within the cell by the Golgi apparatus. In cells, the Golgi apparatus and ER are frequently found together.
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what were the first true primates called
Answer: Altiatlasius
what is the approximate ki value for the formamide inhibition
Explanation:
The Ki values for most of the formamides ranged from about 1 to 100 M, indicating potent inhibition. What kind of inhibitor is hydroxylamine? competitive inhibitor Hydroxylamine hydrochloride is a known competitive inhibitor of the catalase/hydrogen peroxide reaction.early hominin species, such as ardipithecus ramidus and australopithecus afarensis, evolved during the late epoch.
The earliest hominin species (such as Australopithecus) evolved during the late Pliocene epoch.
The geologic period known as the Pliocene spans from 5.333 million to 2.58 million years ago. In the Cenozoic Era, it is the second and most recent epoch of the Neogene Period.
The Miocene Epoch is followed by the Pliocene, which is then followed by the Pleistocene.
Despite being a brief epoch, the Pliocene saw enormous occurrences including the formation of ice caps, the drying of the Mediterranean, and the union of the Americas.
From a biogeographic perspective, this period is distinguished by the dramatically modernisation of animals.
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