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Answer:

i. The surface area of the ball is approximately 28.0 square inches.

ii. The volume of the ball is approximately 14.0 cubic inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

The ball has the shape of a sphere, so that;

C = 2[tex]\pi[/tex]r

9.4 = 2 x [tex]\frac{22}{7}[/tex] x r

65.8 = 44r

r = [tex]\frac{65.8}{44}[/tex]

r = 1.50 inches

The radius of the ball is 1.50 inches.

i. Surface area of a sphere = 4[tex]\pi[/tex][tex]r^{2}[/tex]

So that,

surface area of the ball = 4 x [tex]\frac{22}{7}[/tex] x [tex](1.5)^{2}[/tex]

                                             = 28.2857

The surface area of the ball is approximately 28.0 square inches.

ii. Volume of the ball = Volume of a sphere = [tex]\frac{4}{3}[/tex][tex]\pi[/tex][tex]r^{3}[/tex]

Volume of the ball =  [tex]\frac{4}{3}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{22}{7}[/tex] x [tex](1.5)^{3}[/tex]

                               = 14.1429

The volume of the ball is approximately 14.0 cubic inches.

Answer:

0.9192 = 91.92% probability that the weight will be less than 4473 grams.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Mean weight of 3950 grams and a standard deviation of 374 grams.

This means that [tex]\mu = 3950, \sigma = 374[/tex]

Find the probability that the weight will be less than 4473 grams.

This is the pvalue of Z when X = 4473. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{4473 - 3950}{374}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.4[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.4[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.9192

0.9192 = 91.92% probability that the weight will be less than 4473 grams.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's start with function (x, y)

Transformations in the given order result in following

A dilation by a factor of 4 with the origin as the center of dilation

A reflection across the y-axis

A 90° counterclockwise rotation about the origin

A translation 3 units down

The final function is:

Answer:

l(x) = (-4y, -4x - 3)

I got the same answer as Mhanifa and if you want the explanation check his, because mine sucks :(

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:0.5

Step-by-step explanation: y = 0.5x + 2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

From the information given:

The probability distribution at the end of 6 months is determined as follows:

After 6 months;

Mean of probability distribution =  value of Initial cash  + [tex]\alpha[/tex]T  

=2.0 +(0.1 × 6)

=2.6

After 6 months;

The probability distribution's standard deviation is estimated by using the following formula:

Standard deviation:

[tex]= b\sqrt{T}[/tex]

[tex]= 0.4 \times \sqrt{6}[/tex]

= 0.9798

Hence, after 6 months;

The company's cash position is supposed to be allocated monthly, with the following expenses.

Mean                            2.6

Standard deviation     0.9798

Variance                      0.96

After 12 months, the probability distribution is as follows:

Mean = value of Initial cash  + [tex]\alpha[/tex]T

= 2.0 +(0.1 × 12)

= 3.2

The standard deviation is:

The standard deviation of probability distribution = [tex]b \sqrt{T}[/tex]

[tex]= 0.4 \times \sqrt{12}[/tex]

= 1.3856

Hence, after 6 months;

The company's cash position is supposed to be allocated monthly, with the following expenses.

Mean                            3.2

Sandard deviation      1.3856

Variance                      1.92

b)  

in 6-month distribution, the probability of the negative value of the cash position is as follows.

Now, for us to find the negative cash distribution;

We need to estimate the z -scores value.

The z-score inform us greatly on the concept of how far a particular data point is from the mean.

For a normal distribution;

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

Here;

the value of x = zero as a result that if it exceeds zero. the cash position will be negative.

∴

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]z = \dfrac{0 - 2.6}{0.9798}[/tex]

[tex]z = -2.6536[/tex]

Using the standard distribution tables, it is now possible to calculate that the likelihood N(-2.65) equals 0.004 or 0.4 percent.

As a result, there's a 0.4 percent chance of getting a negative cash balance after six months.

For 12 months distribution:

The Probability of negative cash position is calculated as follows:

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{0-3.2}{1.3856} \\ \\ z = -2.3094[/tex]

Using the standard distribution tables,

N(-2.31) equals 0.0104 or 1.04 percent.

As a result, there's a 1.04 percent chance of getting a negative cash balance after 1 year  

c) To determine the time period over which the likelihood of achieving a negative cash condition is highest, it's necessary to examine the z-score more closely. Essentially, the z-score measures the difference between a given value(x) and the mean of all potential values [tex](\mu)[/tex], expressed in terms of the total set's standard deviation [tex](\sigma)[/tex]

This suggests that the higher the z-score, the greater the difference occurring between x and [tex]\mu[/tex], and thus the likelihood of receiving x is minimal. As a result, the best chance of finding a certain value is when the z-score is the lowest.

To do so, calculate the derivative of the z-score in relation to the time interval. The point where the derivative is equivalent to zero is where the z-scores are at their lowest.

The first step is to go over the z-score formula in more detail, as seen below.;

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{0-(initial \ value + \alpha T)}{b \sqrt{T}} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{-initial \ value }{b\sqrt{T}}-\dfrac{a \sqrt{T}}{b} \\ \\[/tex]

Now, compute the derivative of this equation with respect to T as follows:

[tex]\dfrac{dz}{dT}= \dfrac{initial \ value \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}}}{2b} - \dfrac{aT^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}}{2b}[/tex]

Now, figure out the value of T at which this derivative is equal to zero by substituting all values as follows:

[tex]0 = \dfrac{2.0 \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}}}{2\times 0.4}- \dfrac{0.1 \times T^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}}{2 \times 0.4} \\ \\ \\ 0.1 \times T^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}= 2.0 \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}} \\ \\ \\T = \dfrac{2}{0.1} \\ \\ \\ T = 20[/tex]

As a result, the time period in which achieving a negative cash condition is = 20 months.

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B is your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

there is none but GOOD LUCK

Answer:

C.8n=56

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The missing number would be 17

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: I think it’s 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a. rational

b. irrational

c. irrational

d. rational

e. rational

f. rational

plz mark me as brainliest

[tex] 1)\displaystyle{} \: \sqrt{4} = \sqrt{2 \times 2} = \sqrt{2} \\ \: \: \: \bold{irrational \: number}[/tex]

[tex]2) \displaystyle{} \: \sqrt{3} = \bold{irrational \: number}[/tex]

[tex] \sqrt{7} \: \: = \bold{irrational \: number}[/tex]

[tex] 3) \: \: \displaystyle \frac{3}{5} \bold{irrational \: number}[/tex]

[tex] \displaystyle \: \frac{3}{5} \: \bold{rational \: number}[/tex]

[tex] \displaystyle{}\frac{1}{4} \bold{rational \: number}[/tex]

[tex] \displaystyle{} \: - 2.57 \: \bold{rational \: number}[/tex]

Note - if digit have root ( radical sign ) so number is irrational but digit have do not radical sign so number is rational.

Answer:

The answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

Triangle DEF was rotated and dilated so that's why is looks different than triangle ABC, but it maintained the same shape that is presented in ABC and that is why A is the answer.

Answer: it’s the same 110 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 110 is the correct answer

Answer:

FNB bank

Step-by-step explanation:

FNB = 18000 * 0.056* 8 = 8064

Nedbank = 18000*0.066* 6 = 7128

Standard = 18000*0.072*5=6480

FNB is the best choice for Steven

Answer:

area = 84 m²

Step-by-step explanation:

area = (1/2)(4)(3)(2) + (5)(6) + (6)(3) + (4)(6) = 84 m²

Answer:

3/2 times 63

Step-by-step explanation: took quiz

Answer:

29

Step-by-step explanation:

4 - 25i^2

4 - 25x(-1)

4 + 25 = 29

the ^2 means exponent 2

ANSWER

-1,-1 is P

-4, -3 is R

-2,  -3 is Q

I think this is the answer hope it helps :)

Answer:

2 notebooks are $2.48, 7 notebooks are $8.68

Step-by-step explanation:

Unit rate is 1.24

1.24x2= $2.48

1.24x7= $8.68

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Instead of how much she should've had left it should've asked how much did she use.

Answer:

I think it's 4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

I divided the servings by the packages and I got 4.5 for each of them.

Answer:

x≤14

Step-by-step explanation:

≤ = greater than/equal to(at least)

Answer:

the missing side is 90 because is a right triangle

Answer:

A)P(ACC has a team in the championship game) = 0.5

B)P(SEC has a team in the championship game) = 0.4

C)P(both ACC & SEC having teams in the championship games) = 0.05

D)P(ACC or SEC) = 0.85

E)P(not ACC or SEC) = 0.15

Step-by-step explanation:

A) We are told that in the last 20 years, ACC has had a team in the championship game for 10 times.

Thus;

P(ACC has a team in the championship game) = 10/20 = 0.5

B) SEC has a team in the championship game 8 times in the last 20 years;

Thus;

P(SEC has a team in the championship game) = 8/20 = 0.4

C) since both ACC and SEC have had teams in the championship game for the past 20 years, then;

P(both ACC & SEC having teams in the championship games) = 1/20 = 0.05

D) Addition rule of probability is that;

P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A & B)

Applying it to this question, we have;

P(ACC or SEC) = P(ACC) + P(SEC) - P(ACC & SEC)

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

P(ACC or SEC) = 0.5 + 0.4 - 0.05

P(ACC or SEC) = 0.85

E) from complement rule, we can find the probability that the championship game will not a have team from one of these two conferences.

Thus;

P(ACC not SEC) = 1 - P(ACC or SEC)

P(ACC not SEC) = 1 - 0.85

P(ACC not SEC) = 0.15