Answer:
A crawling and roping
They can help us identify the insect
How many cranial nerves is it?
Explanation:
there are 12 cranial nerves
what can happen during the cycle of photosynthesis with increasing concentrations of Atrazine?
Answer:
By inhibiting photosynthesis, Atrazine kills plants. Photosynthesis, which is unique to living green plants, occurs when light energy becomes the chemical energy required for food production.
Simply stated, plants eventually die of hunger when food production stops. Atrazine selectively kills unwanted plants (weeds) competing with suitable plants for water and nutrients (crops, turfgrass). It is thus a beneficial tool for both farming and urban plants.
Explanation:
In Texas maize and grain sorghum production, Atrazine is the most often used herbicide. In several "weed and feed" preparations for domestic plowing and commercial turf-grass weed control, it is also often found as an active ingredient.
With its broad use, atrazine has been identified in minute concentrations in Texas ground and surface waterways. Because of this, it is crucial to understand atrazine behavior in the environment and the potential for harmful impacts on human and animal health and on other non-target organisms.
Explain how the ear helps humans in balancing.
Answer:
The vestibular system which is essential to our sense of balance is located within the inner ear
Explanation:
The vestibular system is the sensory apparatus of the inner ear that provides the brain with the information required for maintaining body balance (postural equilibrium), detecting the position and motion of the head and determining the position of the whole body in relation to gravity. The vestibular system in each inner ear is composed of five organs: 3 semicircular ducts located in the innermost part of each ear (i.e., the inner ear), which are sensitive to angular accelerations (head rotations), and 2 otoliths organs referred to as the utricle and saccule, which are sensitive to linear accelerations. Each semi-circular duct exhibit a different orientation (superior, horizontal, and posterior) in order to sense different movements (e.g. nodding, rotating).
what's the target cells of melatonin?
Explanation:
The suprachiasmatic nucleus appears as a target of melatonin in mammals.The pineal hormone may thus be involved in a feedback loop of the mammalian photoneuroendocrine system.
Activity 3: Direction: Study the picture. Write the phases of the moon 1 new moon O first quarter O MOON PHASES last quarter waning crescent woving crescent Waning gibbous working globos
Answer:
1.full moon
2.waxing gibbous
3.first quarter
4.waning gibbous
5.new moon
6.wabing cresent
7.last quarter
8.waxing cresent
What is a group of microscopic unicellular organisms
2.I'm strong and stiff
Getting through me is tough
I'm found only in plants
I'm what makes sticks tough What am I?
A)Golgi Body (Complex)
B)Endoplasmic Reticulum
C)Nucleus
D)Ribosomes
E)Cell membrane
F)Cell wall
G)Vacuole
H)Lysosomes
I)Vesicles
J)Chloroplast
K)Chromosomes
L)Mitocondria
Answer:
Cell wall. I'm strong and stiff . Getting through me is tough. I'm found only in plants, but I guess ... You can find me in the cytoplasm or attached to E.R.'s wall.
Bio--Plant and Animal Cells Flashcards | Quizlet
Explanation:
Which other group of organisms can supply energy to a food chain in a similar way to plants?
why do proteins not pass through plasma membranes
Answer:
because protein molecules are very large in molar masses
Discuss the role of the
kidney in
1. Regulation of blood pressure.
2. Regulation of ECF volume and electrolytes.
Answer:
blood pressure is regulated by baroreceptors which act via the brain to influence the nervous and the endocrine systems. Blood pressure that is too low is called hypotension, pressure that is consistently too high is called hypertension, and normal pressure is called
The Hardy-Weinberg principle is written as the equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1. What does prepresent?
Explanation:
Hardy-Weinberg principle can be illustrated mathematically with the equation: p2+2pq+q2 = 1, where 'p' and 'q' represent the frequencies of alleles. ... The principle behind it is that, in a population where certain conditions are met (see below), the frequency of the alleles in the gene pool will be constant.
different evolution theory of living organism
Answer:
(I) Lamarckism or Theory of Inheritance of Acquired characters.
This theory is based on the comparison between the contemporary species of Jean Baptiste de Lamarck's time to fossil records.
(II) Darwinism or Theory of Natural Selection.
Charles Darwin made an extensive study of nature for over 20 years, especially in 1831-1836 when he went on a voyage on the famous ship “H.M.S. Beagle” and explored South America, the Galapagos Islands and other islands.
(III) Mutation theory of De Vries.
The mutation theory of evolution was proposed by a Dutch botanist, Hugo de Vries (1848-1935 A.D.) in 1901 A.D. in his book entitled “Species and Varieties, Their Origin by Mutation”. He worked on evening primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana).
(IV) Neo-Darwinism or Modern concept or Synthetic theory of evolution.
The detailed studies of Lamarckism, Darwinism and Mutation theory of evolution showed that no single theory is fully satisfactory. Neo-Darwinism is a modified version of theory of Natural Selection and is a sort of reconciliation between Darwin’s and de Vries theories.
Afferont neurons
a.transmit sensory input to the CNS
b.are multipolar neurons
c.have many dendrites and a single long axon
d.are found only within the brain and spinal cord
Answer:
a.transmit sensory input to the CNS
Explanation:
Afferent neurons will take input from your muscles, skin etc. and send it to your CNS (usually via spinal nerves).
Which of the following particles has no charge?
O A. Electron
O B. Neutron
C. Proton
D. Ion
Answer:
B. Neutron.
Explanation:
[tex]{ \tt{ {}^{1} _{0}{ \huge{n}} }}[/tex]
Which of the following requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions?
Core integration
Postural development
Dynamic balance
Neuromuscular strength
Answer:
Postural development
Explanation:
The agonist muscles are sets of muscles responsible for causing joint motion, whereas antagonist muscles are muscles that directly opposite agonist muscles (i.e., antagonist muscles generate an opposing joint torque to the agonist muscles). In a given movement, agonist muscles exhibit concentric contractions while antagonist muscles show eccentric contractions in order to stabilize the joint. Postural development is achieved by concerted adjustments of dorsal muscles and ventral muscles. The dorsal muscles are activated when the body sways forward and the muscle fascicles shorten. During backward sway, these muscles lengthen, while ventral muscles are primarily activated.
Dynamic balance is the condition that requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions.
The agonist-antagonist muscle contraction is the movement where one muscle contracts while the other muscle is relaxing or lengthening. The muscle contracts are agonist whereas the muscle that relaxes is the antagonist here.
Core integration: In such conditions, the constant movement of muscle contraction and relaxation does not require. It is a specific movement and increased stability of the movements.Postural development: continuous development and growth of postural muscles comprising the nervous systemDynamic balance: It would be the ability to balance in motion or changing positions. In this case, muscles require constant both agonist and antagonist contractionsNeuromuscular strength: motor commands according to the central nervous system to the ability to move in the nervous system, hence it does not require constant muscle movements.Thus, the correct answer is - Dynamic balance.
Learn more about dynamic balance:
https://brainly.com/question/10275827
In steps 1, 2, and 3, you will use a Punnett square to predict
Answer:
I don't get the question.
Explanation:
A newly discovered pigmented microbe contains a capsule and flagella, but no chloroplasts or cilia. This microbe is approximately 2 microns in size, and divides by binary fission. The nucleic acid of this microbe is packaged within an envelope. Based on this information, is this microbe a eukaryote or a prokaryote? Explain the reasoning behind your answer.
Answer:
in which grade did u read
Note that arteries have a thicker middle layer of tissue than veins. Why is this important and how does it affect the structure of the artery as compared to the vein?
Answer:
The correct answer is - To withstand the high pressure of the outflow of blood from the Heart.
Explanation:
The heart pumps blood to different body parts at high pressure so that it can easily reach all the parts of the body quickly. To able to hold the pressure of the blood pumped at high-pressure arteries need thick walls.
This pressure can be experienced as pulse and which required the walls of arteries and the middle layer or the tunica media to make it much thicker in arteries than in veins. In veins pressure caused by blood is very low pressure that allows them to be thin walls.
The coding RNA in a cell at particular time is comprised of
A. total mature mRNA
B.whole RNA
C. hnRNA
D.4% of total coding RNA
The brain generally stores new information in its own different and unique netowrk but retrieves information by chunking it with information in netowkrs that contain similar characteristics or associations.
a. True
b. False
Earth science includes the study of all the following except: Select one: a. land. O b. water. O c. atmosphere. O d. wildlife.
Answer:
c. atmosphere
Explanation:
the atmosphere is not part of the Earth's surface
A mutation is identified in a tumor sequencing study. Which of the following pieces of evidence would most strongly suggest that the mutation is a passenger mutation?
a. The same gene is mutated in many other individuals with the same kind of cancer.
b. The mutation impacts the function of a known tumor suppressor gene.
c. The mutation is a silent point mutation in a protein-coding sequence.
d. The gene carrying the mutation is known to participate in the cell cycle.
Answer:
The mutation is a silent point mutation in a protein-coding sequence.
Explanation:
A mutation is a change or alteration in DNI sequences that introduce new variants. Many of these are eliminated, but some of them might succeed and be incorporated into each individual. Mutations can be damaging or beneficial.
There are two types of mutations in cancerous cells:
· Driver mutations, which refer to genetic changes that provide malign cells an adaptative advantage. These mutations drive the cells to tumoral evolution.
· Passenger mutations, also known as neutral mutations, refer to those that do not provide any advantage nor disadvantage to the cancerous cell. These mutations can be between DNI segments where the driver mutations are. Some of these passenger mutations might become driver mutations with time.
how many people in the world
Answer:
khjdaVSJHv
Explanation:ASjkbxzjb
SCamzhb
A 45-year-old woman named Christine is measured as having the following skinfold thicknesses on the right side of her body: Triceps: 14mm; Thigh: 32mm; Suprailium: 28mm. Estimate her body fat percentage.
Answer:
The skinfold method, the measurement of subcutaneous fat folds, is the most widely adopted field method for the assessment of body fat, especially in children.
It is based on the principle that fat is of a known density and by “summing” measurements of subcutaneous fat thickness across the body, total and regional fat can be estimated.
Skinfold thickness measurements are typically used to rank individuals in terms of relative total “fatness”, or to assess subcutaneous fat at various regions of the body.
Population specific equations are used to derive estimates of percent body fat.
In infancy, it might be the sole tool available for assessing body composition longitudinally as other methods may not be feasible, or may only be suitable for use at body sizes e.g. PEA POD, can only measure infants up to 10kg.
The most generally used field method for determining body fat, particularly in kids, is the skinfold method, which involves measuring subcutaneous fat folds.
What is skinfold method?Skinfold method is defined as a method for determining how much body fat there is. It entails delicately pinching the skin and underlying fat in several locations using a tool called a caliper. To acquire precise findings using this quick and easy body fat estimation technique, a high level of competence is needed.
It is based on the idea that since subcutaneous fat thickness measurements may be "summed" to estimate total and regional fat because subcutaneous fat has a known density. Measures of skinfold thickness are widely used to categorize individuals based on their relative degrees of overall "fatness" or to assess subcutaneous fat in various bodily regions. Estimates of the percent body fat are derived using equations that are specific to a population.
Thus, the most generally used field method for determining body fat, particularly in kids, is the skinfold method, which involves measuring subcutaneous fat folds.
To learn more about skinfold method, refer to the link below:
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#SPJ2
define cell and atom
Answer:
hope it is helpful to you
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Write the events of the human life cycle in the correct order, starting with what happens right after a pair of gametes comes together?
Answer: Fertilization occurs, a zygote undergoes mitosis, a baby's cells divide mitotically, meiosis produces sex cells that will participate in fertilization.
Explanation:
Incomplete questions, options are:
Meiotic cell division occurs as the zygote develops into a gamete, meiosis produce the sex cells that will participate in fertilization, a baby grows into an adult through uncountable meiotic divisions, fertilization occurs, a zygote undergoes mitosis, a baby's cells divide mitotically, mitosis produces gametes.
1. Fertilization occurs: Fertilization is the union of a human egg and sperm (male and female gametes), which usually occurs in the fallopian tube. The result is the formation of a zygote or fertilized egg, which initiates the development of the embryo. In this way, the genetic material of both gametes is also fused.
2. A zygote undergoes mitosis: The zygote is the union of the egg and the sperm. Each gamete contributes 23 chromosomes to form the genetic material of the future organism. The zygote starts to divide throught mitosis. Mitosis is a type of cell division that generates two genetically identical daughter cells and occurs in somatic cells (all cells in the body that are not gametes). Eventually, it divides into two blastomeres, then into 4, then into 8, and so on during the passage of the zygote along the fallopian tube towards the uterus. Subsequent divisions of the 12 cells give rise to the morula. Then, the blastocyst is generated, which is an embryo of between 5-7 days of development and is composed of a large number of cells that begin to differentiate.
3. A baby's cells divide mitotically: An embryo is a living being in the early stages of its development, from fertilization until the organism acquires the morphological characteristics of the species. In the specific case of the human being, the term applies until the eighth week after conception (fertilization). Cell divisions for development occur by mitosis. In this way, the embryo will grow and develop, forming tissues and organs through growth thanks to mitotic divisions.
4. Meiosis produces sex cells that will participate in fertilization: Meiosis is a type of cell division that occurs in the gonads for the production of gametes, whereby a diploid cell undergoes two cell divisions, that generates four haploid cells. Thus sperm and oocytes are produced to eventually fuse during reproduction to form a diploid zygote. Meiosis has certain differences from mitosis, since in this type of cell division, the daughter cells created are all genetically distinct from each other and from the parent cell. This is because a crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes to exchange genetic material. This ensures that each gamete produced has genetic variability.
what are the difference between DNA and RNA
Answer:
There are two differences that distinguish DNA from RNA: (a) RNA contains the sugar ribose, while DNA contains the slightly different sugar deoxyribose (a type of ribose that lacks one oxygen atom), and (b) RNA has the nucleobase uracil while DNA contains thymine.
Genes a and b are 10 map units apart, b and c are 20 map units apart, and a and c are 30 map units apart. If a triple heterozygote is testcrossed, among 1,000 progeny, how many are expected to result from double crossovers if there is no interference?
а. 10;
b. 20;
c. can't be determined
d. 30;
e. 60;
Answer:
20 ( B )
Explanation:
Given data:
a and b are 10 map units apart
b and c are 20 map units apart
a and c = 30 map units apart
condition ; Triple heterozygote testcrossed
number of progeny = 1000
Determine the number of double crossover result
P( crossover between a and b ) = 10/100 = 0.1
P( crossover between b and c ) = 20/100 = 0.2
p( double crossover ) = 0.1 * 0.2 = 0.02
hence number of double crossovers = number of progeny * 0.02
= 1000 * 0.02 = 20
Which explains why this is the case
Answer:
i dont know cause the question is missing
Explanation:
What is your opinion about climate change ?