2.) Write the probability as a fraction in simplest form. P (consonant) *
5 points
B
A
С
F.
D
E
1/6
2/3
Ο Ο Ο Ο
0.75
2

Step-by-step explanation:

x^2-6x-6x+36=0

x(x-6)-6(x-6)=0

(x-6)(x-6)=0

x=6

Answer:

1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability calculates the likelihood of an event occurring. The likelihood of the event occurring lies between 0 and 1. It is zero if the event does not occur and 1 if the event occurs.

For example, the probability that it would rain on Friday is between o and 1. If it rains, a value of one is attached to the event. If it doesn't a value of zero is attached to the event.

Experimental probability is based on the result of an experiment that has been carried out multiples times

probability of landing on the orange section = proportion of the orange section / total proportions of all the colours

= 1/3

need help?

Step-by-step explanation:

just try plotting on a number line

Answer:

Arranging : 9.2020 < 9.2200 < 9.2211 < 9.8000

Step-by-step explanation:

9.22   = 9.2200

9.202 = 9.2020

9.8      = 9.8000

9.2211  = 9.2211

Now compare the numbers in the tenths : except 3rd option ( 8 in the tenth place) everything has 2 in the tenths place.

Arranging : 9.2200, 9.2020, 9.2211, 9.800

So we take the next place, hundredths : Compare the number in hundredth place and tenth place and arrange. [ 22, 20, 80 , 22]

Arranging : 9.2020 , 9.2200, 9.2211, 9.8000

Now compare  the numbers in tenths , hundredths and thousandth place :

[220, 202, 800, 221 ]

Arranging : 9.202, 9.220, 9.221, 9.800

Now compare all the four numbers and arrange :

[ 2200, 2020 , 8000, 2211 ]

Arranging : 9.2020 , 9.2200 , 9.2211 , 9.8000

Answer: a. 13120

b. 4100

c. 1025

d. 3280

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) find the costs price of the fridge

Since the cash price is 20% less the hire purchase price, then the cost of the fridge will be:

= (100% - 20%) × 16400

= 80% × 16400

= 0.8 × 16400

= 13120

(b) calculate the deposit

Since 25% is paid as deposit, the deposit will be:

= 25% × 16400

= 0.25 × 16400

= 4100

(c) what is the monthly installments

Monthly installments will be:

= (16400 - 4100)/12

= 12300/12

= 1025

(d) what is the differences between the cash price and the hire purchase price.

This will be:

Hire purchase price = 16400

Cash price = 13120

= 16400 - 13120

= 3280

Step-by-step explanation:

Since g(f(x))=x g ( f ( x ) ) = x , f−1(x)=2x f - 1 ( x ) = 2 x is the inverse of f(x)=12x f ( x ) = 1 2 x .

Replace f(x)f(x) with yy.

y=12xy=12x

Interchange the variables.

x=12yx=12y

Solve for yy.

Rewrite the equation as 12y=x12y=x.

12y=x12y=x

Multiply both sides of the equation by 22.

2⋅12⋅y=2⋅x2⋅12⋅y=2⋅x

Simplify 2⋅12⋅y2⋅12⋅y.

Cancel the common factor of 22.

Cancel the common factor.

2⋅12⋅y=2⋅x2⋅12⋅y=2⋅x

Rewrite the expression.

1⋅y=2⋅x1⋅y=2⋅x

Multiply yy by 11.

y=2⋅xy=2⋅x

Solve for yy and replace with f−1(x)f-1(x).

Replace the yy with f−1(x)f-1(x) to show the final answer.

f−1(x)=2xf-1(x)=2x

Set up the composite result function.

g(f(x))

===============================================

Work Shown:

k = scale factor

k = (OF ')/(OF)

k = (OF ')/(OF ' + F ' F)

k = (3)/(3 + 10)

k = 3/13

The scale factor of the dilation of triangle DEF is 3/10.

The technique of dilation is used to enlarge or reduce the size of the things. This transformation produces an image that resembles the original shape and is identical to the image.

We have a triangle DEF is dilated to smaller triangle D'E'F' .

As, the length of OF' =  3 and F'F = 7.

So, the scale factor of dilation is

OF' / OF = 3 / 10.

Thus, the scale factor is 3/10.

Learn more about Dilation here:

https://brainly.in/question/30389359

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Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

this is just to confuse us.

"t" is used instead of "x" (probably because the formula has something to do with "time"). but it does not matter.

and 3 different functional definitions have been given based on the value of the argument "t".

we need the functional value for t=2.

is 2 = 8 ? no. therefore the first definition does not apply.

is 2 = 10 ? no. therefore the second definition does not apply either.

is 2 unequal to 8 or 10 ? yes, 2 is 2 and not 8 and not 10.

so, the third definition applies :

f(2) = 2² - 3×2 + 2 = 4 - 6 + 2 = 0

Answer

X=25

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The function represents the height of the water in the bucket

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]f(t) = -t^2 + 4t[/tex]

Required

State what the function represents

From the question, we understand that t represents the time spent while the function illustrates the water level in the bucket.

This implies that f(t) calculates the height of the water in the bucket, given the value of time (t)

Answer:

id say a

Step-by-step explanation:

The amount of interest his account should earn after 15 years is:

$7, 915.64.

Here, we have,

Compound interest is when you earn interest on both the money you've saved and the interest you earn.

Formula:

A = P(1 + {r}/{n})^{n.t}

A = final amount

P = initial principal balance

r = interest rate

n = number of times interest applied per time period

t = number of time periods elapsed

Here, given that, P =$4,500 , r= 7%, t=15yr , n=365days

Let, A= x

Now, x =$4,500(1+7/100×365)^(365×15)

     x=$12415.64

i.e.  final amount = $12415.64

so,  the amount of interest his account should earn after 15 years is:

$12415.64 - 4500 = $7, 915.64

Hence, the amount of interest his account should earn after 15 years is: $7, 915.64

To learn more on Compound interest click:

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Answer:

5 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]for~x=3[/tex]

[tex]f(x)=-5[/tex]

[tex]So,f(3)=-5[/tex]

Answer:

0.8 cm = 8km

0.5cm = 5km

hope this helps

Answer:

7 and 11

Explanation:

Prime numbers are numbers that have only 2 factors; one and themselves.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Only 7 and 11 are prime.

Step-by-step explanation:

prime numbers are numbers whose factors are only one and them selves

Answer:

120 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Jelisa walked 6 miles in 90 minutes

The amount of mile walked in 1 minutes is

= 6/90

= 0.0666666

If she walks 0.066666 miles in 1 minute then in for 8 miles she travels

= 8/0.066666

= 120 minutes

Answer:

a) 0.4215 = 42.15% probability that all are repaired in less than 6 hours.

b) 0.15 = 15% probability that exactly 3 of them repaired in a time below 6 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we need to understand the normal and the binomial probability distributions.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Proportion repaired below 6 hours:

Mean 5 hours and standard deviation 1 hour, which means that [tex]\mu = 5, \sigma = 1[/tex]

This proportion is the p-value of Z when X = 6. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{6 - 5}{1}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1[/tex] has a p-value of 0.8413.

0.8413 repaired below 6 hours.

For the binomial distribution, this means that [tex]p = 0.8413[/tex]

5 are chosen:

This means that [tex]n = 5[/tex]

a) Probability that all are repaired in less than 6 hours

This is P(X = 5). So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 5) = C_{5,5}.(0.8413)^{5}.(0.1587)^{0} = 0.4215[/tex]

0.4215 = 42.15% probability that all are repaired in less than 6 hours.

b) Probability that exactly 3 of them repaired below 6 hours

This is P(X = 3). So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{5,3}.(0.8413)^{3}.(0.1587)^{2} = 0.15[/tex]

0.15 = 15% probability that exactly 3 of them repaired in a time below 6 hours

Answer:

1/x^4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]b=11, b=17[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

To get rid of the parenthesis, distribute:

[tex]b(28-b)=187,\\28b-b^2=187[/tex]

Move all terms to one side and factor:

[tex]b^2-28b+187=0,\\(b-11)(b-17)=0,\\\begin{cases}b-11=0,b=\boxed{11}\\b-17=0,b=\boxed{17}\end{cases}[/tex]

Answer:

b = 11, 17

Step-by-step explanation:

=> (28 - b) × b = 187

=> 28b - b² = 187

=> 28b - b² - 187 = 0

=> b² - 28b + 187 = 0

=> b² - 11b- 17b + 187 = 0

{as (-11b)×(-17b) = 187b² and (-11b)+ (-17b) = -28b }

=> b (b - 11) - 17(b - 11) = 0

=> (b- 11)(b - 17) = 0

(b - 11) = 0

=> b = 11

(b - 17) = 0

=> b = 17

therfore,

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

beacuse it is more reasonable hope this helps

Answer:

1.5 square miles

Step-by-step explanation:

First divide 1 by 0.5 which is 2. that means you also divide 3 by 2 which is 1.5.

Answer: $17.85

Step-by-step explanation:

The tax on the T-shirt is 5% and the price is $17.

To find the after-tax cost, first find the tax amount:

= 5% * 17

= $0.85

Then add this tax amount to the price to find the after-tax amount:

= 17 + 0.85

= $17.85

Explanation:

Recall that tangent = opposite/adjacent.

For reference angle M, the side ON = 5 is the opposite side and MN = 12 is the adjacent side. We don't need the hypotenuse.

Answer:

C or 5/12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

200

Step-by-step explanation:

Good luck <3

Answer:

200

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps

Answer:

BC = 24

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that triangles CAB and CED are similar because all three of their angles are the same. Thus, we know that the side lengths of these triangles have to be proportional to each other. You would match side BC with side DC and sides AC with EC.

AC/EC = BC/DC

30/10 = (32-x)/x

3 = (32-x)/x

Then using algebraic properties, solve for x.

3x = 32 - x

4x = 32

x = 8.

Lastly, plug in 8 for the x in BC, 32 - 8, so the length of BC is 24

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Δ CBA and Δ CDE are similar triangles, then the ratios of corresponding sides are equal, that is

[tex]\frac{CB}{CD}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{CA}{CE}[/tex] , substitute values

[tex]\frac{32-x}{x}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{30}{10}[/tex] = 3 ( multiply both sides by x )

32 - x = 3x ( add x to both sides )

32 = 4x ( divide both sides by 4 )

8 = x

Then

BC = 32 - x = 32 - 8 = 24 → B

Step-by-step explanation:

x' = ⅓ x => x = 3x'

f'(x) = 7(3x')+1

= 21x' + 1

so g(x) = 21x + 1