(-2x) (x-3) answer please

Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of a triangle = (bh)/2

Where b = base length and h = height

Given base length: 18ft

Given height: 4ft

This being known let's define the variables

b = 18

h = 4

Now to find the area we simply plug in these values into the formula

Area = (18)(4)/2

Simplify multiplication 18 * 4 = 72

Area = 72/2

Simplify division

Area = 36

Answer:

At most 3 calls: 64.7%

At least 3 calls: 57.7%

5 or more calls: 18.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

For Task B: [tex]3x^4 - 2x^3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that Volume = l*w*h, we can plug in the values on the diagram, so we get the equation (3x-2)([tex]\frac{1}{2}x[/tex])([tex]2x^2[/tex]) = [tex](\frac{3}{2} x^2 - x)(2x^2) = 3x^4-2x^3[/tex]. Hope this helps!!!

Answer:

y-18=-3(x+2)

Step-by-step explanation:

The Slope-intercept form is -3x+12

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the identities

tan x = [tex]\frac{sinx}{cosx}[/tex] , sin²x = 1 - cos²x

sin2x = 2sinxcosx

Consider left side

cosθ × sin2θ

= [tex]\frac{sin0}{cos0}[/tex] × 2sinθcosθ ( cancel cosθ )

= 2sin²θ

= 2(1 - cos²θ)

= 2 - 2cos²θ

= right side , then established

Answer:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The center of dilation (point D) is a point that doesn't move. Any line not through that point will be moved to a parallel location when a dilation factor is applied.

Any line through the center of dilation will still go through the center of dilation. Its slope does not change, so the line will appear to be the same.

  AB ║ A'B' — True

  AD ≅ A'D' — True

_____

You can see these relationships in the attached figure.

Answer:

4 is E, 5 is A

Step-by-step explanation:

4) Divide both sides by 5 to get |2x + 1| = 11, then solve for x to get 5 and -6.

5) Add 7 to both sides to get ½|4x - 8| = 10. Multiply both sides by 2 to get |4x - 8| = 20, then solve for x to get 7 and -3.

Answer:

The answer is below

Step-by-step explanation:

Transformation is the movement of a point from its initial location to a new location. Types of transformation are rotation, reflection, translation and dilation.

If a point A(x, y) is translated a units right and b units up, the new point is at A'(x + a, y + b).

If a point A(x, y) is reflected across the line y = -x, the new point is at A'(-y, -x).

If a point A(x, y) is rotated counterclockwise by 270 degrees, the new point is at A'(y, -x).

Let us assume that triangle ABC has vertices at A(-6, -1), B(-3, -3) and C(-1, -2).

If it is moved 5 units to the right and 2 units up, the new point is at A'(-1, 1), B'(1, -1) and C'(3, 0). If it is reflected across the line y = -x, the vertices are at A"(-1, 1), B"(1, -1) and C"(0, -3). If it is then rotated counterclockwise about the origin by 270°, the new point is at A'"(-1, -1), B"'(1, 1), C"'(3, 0)

AS IN THE PICTURE...........

Answer:

h= 60

g= 120

m= 147

k= 33

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that all three lines are straight an continuous, so, at any given point the angles should add up to 180 degrees.

This immediately helps with angle h:

    120 + h = 180

              h = 60

As well as m:

     33 + m = 180

              m = 147

There are two ways to solve the next part:

First and most familiar way:

    h + g = 180

    60 + g = 180

             g = 120

and:

    m + k = 180

    147 + k = 180

              k = 33

The other way that I prefer is that the angles opposite of each other when two lines intersect are equal. I don't know if that makes sense, it's hard to explain in this format.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

684 dollars

Answer:

[tex]M = \log(10000)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]M = \log(\frac{I}{I_o})[/tex]

[tex]I = 10000I_o[/tex] ---- intensity is 10000 times reference earthquake

Required

The resulting equation

We have:

[tex]M = \log(\frac{I}{I_o})[/tex]

Substitute the right values

[tex]M = \log(\frac{10000I_o}{I_o})[/tex]

[tex]M = \log(10000)[/tex]

The equation that calculates the magnitude of an earthquake with an intensity 10,000 times that of the reference earthquake is A. M = ㏒10000

Since the magnitude of an earthquake on the Richter sscale is M = ㏒(I/I₀) where

Since we require the magnitude when the intensity is 10,000 times the reference intensity, we have that I = 10000I₀.

So, substituting these into the equation for M, we have

M = ㏒(I/I₀)

M = ㏒(10000I₀./I₀)

M = ㏒10000

So, the equation that calculates the magnitude of an earthquake with an intensity 10,000 times that of the reference earthquake is A. M = ㏒10000

Learn more about magnitude of an earthquake here:

https://brainly.com/question/3457285

Answer:

[tex]Given:[/tex] Δ ABC ≈ ΔDEF

[tex]therefor:[/tex] A(ΔABC)/A(ΔDEF)=(BC)²/(EF)²

⇒ 34/A(ΔDEF)=9²/(13.5)²

⇒34/A(ΔDEF)=81/182.25

⇒A(ΔDEF)=34×182.25/81

⇒Area of ΔDEF=76.5 cm²

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Hope it helps...

Have a great day!!!

Answer:

the answer could be B i think cause that makes total sense

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  x = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The product of lengths to the two circle intercepts are the same for each secant.

  7(7+9) = (8x)(8x+6x)

  112 = 112x² . . . simplify

  1 = x² . . . . . . divide by 112

  x = 1 . . . . . . . take the square root (segment lengths are positive)

Answer:

c=cost of one chair rental

t=cost of one table rental

8c+3t=42

2c+5t=53

multiply the second equation, each term on both sides, by -4

8c+3t=42

-8c-20t=-212

add the two equations

-17t=-170

divide both sides by -17

t=$10 to rent one table

substitute t=10 into either original equation

2c+5(10)=53

2c+50=53

2c=3

c=$1.50 to rent one chair

Step-by-step explanation:

6 carpets=1month

10 carpets=?

1month=31 days

10 /6*31

51

Step-by-step explanatio

Answer:

(4, 2)

Step-by-step explanation:

½x + y = 4

y = 4 - ½x

½x - y = 0

½x - (4 - ½x) = 0

½x - 4 + ½x = 0

x = 4

y = 4 - ½(4)

y = 2

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

$3 per gallon

that is the procedure above

Answer:

1st degree

Step-by-step explanation:

You look at the largest exponet, right here, there are none so it would be 1st degree.

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

The degree of an expression with multiple exponents is the highest exponent in it. In this expression, there is no expression, so the answer will be 1 because there is no exponent and every variable and number has an invisible 1 as its exponent.

Hope this helps.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  y = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Perhaps you want to solve ...

  10 +√y = 14

  √y = 4 . . . . . . subtract 10

  y = 4² = 16 . . . square both sides

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

1. [tex]6^{2} + 8^{2} = c^{2}[/tex]

2 [tex]100 = c^{2}[/tex]

3. c = 10

Answer:

AC = 377.19

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this is a right triangle, we can use trig functions

tan theta = opp /adj

tan 5 = 33/AC

AC tan 5 = 33

AC = 33/ tan 5

AC = 377.19

Answer:

plz check ur school solution down.

Step-by-step explanation:

14. largest 9510

15. smallest 1000000

16. n+6=22 —> n=22-6 —>n = 16

17. Add : 204 + 38429= 38633

Answer:

[tex]\frac{73,331}{75,516}\approx 97.11\%[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that she will find at least one student cheating is equal to the probability that she finds no students cheating subtracted from 1.

Each time she randomly chooses a student the probability she will catch a cheater is equal to the number of cheaters divided by the number of students.

Therefore, for the first student she chooses, there is a [tex]\frac{9}{35}[/tex] chance that the student chosen is a cheater and therefore a [tex]\frac{26}{35}[/tex] chance she does not catch a cheater. For the second student, there are only 34 students to choose from. If we stipulate that the first student chosen was not a cheater, then there is a [tex]\frac{9}{34}[/tex] chance she will catch a cheater and a [tex]\frac{25}{34}[/tex] chance she does not catch the cheater.

Therefore, the probability she does not catch a single cheater after randomly choosing ten students is equal to:

[tex]\frac{26}{35}\cdot \frac{25}{34}\cdot \frac{24}{33}\cdot \frac{23}{32}\cdot \frac{22}{31}\cdot \frac{21}{30}\cdot \frac{20}{29}\cdot \frac{19}{28}\cdot \frac{18}{27}\cdot \frac{17}{26}[/tex]

Subtract this from one to get the probability she finds at least one of the students cheating after randomly selecting nine students. Let event A occur when the professor finds at least one student cheating after randomly selecting ten students from a group of 35 students.

[tex]P(A)=1-\frac{26}{35}\cdot \frac{25}{34}\cdot \frac{24}{33}\cdot \frac{23}{32}\cdot \frac{22}{31}\cdot \frac{21}{30}\cdot \frac{20}{29}\cdot \frac{19}{28}\cdot \frac{18}{27}\cdot \frac{17}{26},\\\\P(A)=1-\frac{2,185}{75,516},\\\\P(A)=\boxed{\frac{73,331}{75,516}}\approx 0.97106573441\approx \boxed{97.11\%}[/tex]

Answer: Volume of Cylinder A is                          pi times the area of the base times the height

                                                             π r2 h = (3.1416)(4)(4)(15) = 753.98 ft3

Volume of Cylinder B is likewise             pi times the area of the base times the height

                                                             π r2 h = (3.1416)(6)(6)(7)   = 791.68 ft3

After pumping all of Cyl A into Cyl B

there will remain empty space in B         791.68 – 753.98 = 37.7 ft3  

The percentage this empty space is

of the entire volume is                            37.7 / 791.68 = 0.0476 which is 4.8% when rounded to the nearest tenth  

.

Step-by-step explanation: I hope that help you.

Note: you may not need to type in the percent sign.

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Explanation:

Let's find the volume of water in container A.

Use the cylinder volume formula to get

V = pi*r^2*h

V = pi*5^2*8

V = 200pi

The full capacity of tank A is 200pi cubic feet, and this is the amount of water in the tank since it's completely full.

We have 200pi cubic feet of water transfer to tank B. We'll keep this value in mind for later.

-----------------------

Now find the volume of cylinder B

V = pi*r^2*h

V = pi*6^2*6

V = 216pi

Despite being shorter, tank B can hold more water (since it's more wider).

-----------------------

Now divide the results of each section

(200pi)/(216pi) = 200/216 = 25/27 = 0.9259 = 92.59%

This shows us that 92.59% of tank B is 200pi cubic feet of water.

In other words, when all of tank A goes into tank B, we'll have tank B roughly 92.59% full.

This means the percentage of empty space (aka air) in tank B at this point is approximately 100% - 92.59% = 7.41%

Then finally, this value rounds to 7.4% when rounding to the nearest tenth of a percent.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5 years

[tex]1500(1+\frac{.06}{12})^{12*5}=2023.275229[/tex]

10 years

[tex]1500(1+\frac{.06}{12})^{10*12}=2729.095101[/tex]

486 months:

[tex]1500(1+\frac{.06}{12})^{486}=16935.47074[/tex]

round those as you please