A 2-slit arrangement with 60.3 μm separation between the slits is illuminated with 482.0 nm light. Assuming that a viewing screen is located 2.14 m from the slits, find the distance from the first dark fringe on one side of the central maximum to the second dark fringe on the other side. A. 24.1 mm B. 34.2 mm C. 68.4 mm D. 51.3 mm

Answer:

Hey there!

The correct answer would be option A. If one body is positively charged and another body is negatively charged, free electrons tend to move from the negatively charged body to the positively charged body

Let me know if this helps :)

Answer:

L = Pt/M

Explanation:

Power, P= Q/t = mL/t

​

we know that, (Q=m×l)

Now ⇒l= Pt/M

​

Thus l= Pt/M

​

Answer:

0.1 kg or 100 g

Explanation:

The length of the wire = 0.5 m

the field magnitude = 0.98 T

the current through the wire = 2.0 A

magnetic force due to a wire carrying current is

F = [tex]IlB[/tex]

where

F is the force

[tex]I[/tex] is the current = 2 A

[tex]l[/tex] is the length of the wire

B is the magnetic field strength

Substituting, we have

F = 2 x 0.5 x 0.98 = 0.98 N

This force balances the weight of the mass

weight = mg

where m is the mass of the wire

g is acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s^2

therefore, weight = m x 9.81 = 9.81m

equating this weight with the force, we have

0.98 = 9.81m

m = 0.98/9.81 = 0.099 kg ≅ 0.1 kg or 100 g

Answer:

100 g

Explanation:

Answer: 0.0617

Explanation:

Given: The probability of wet weather on any given day in a city of Punjab : p=15%=0.15

Let X be a binomial variable that represents the number of days having wet weather.

Binomial probability formula : [tex]P(X=x)=^nC_xp^x(1-p)^x[/tex], where n= total outcomes, p = probability of success in each outcomes.

Here, n= 7 ( 1 week = 7 days)

The probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days:

[tex]P(X=3)^=\ ^7C_3(0.15)^3(1-0.15)^{7-3}\\\\=\dfrac{7!}{3!(7-3)!}(0.15)^3(0.85)^4\\\\=\dfrac{7\times6\times5}{3\times2}\times 0.003375\times0.52200625\approx0.0617[/tex]

Hence, the required probability =0.0617

Answer:

33.89 m

Explanation:

We must first obtain the acceleration of the car from;

F=ma

Where

F= force= 9500 N

m= mass of the car= 1000kg

a= acceleration

a= F/m= 9500/1000

a= 9.5 m/s^2

From;

V^2=u^2 + 2as

Where;

V= final velocity

u= initial velocity

s= distance covered

a= acceleration

s= v^2 -u^2/2a

s= (30)^2 -(16)^2/2×9.5

s= 900 - 256/19

s= 644/19

s= 33.89 m

The distance is 33.89 m

The first step is to calculate the acceleration

F= ma

force= 9500N

mass= 1000 kg

9500= 1000 × a

a= 9500/1000

= 9.5 m/s

v²= u² + 2as

30²= 16² + 2(9.5)(s)

900= 256 + 19s

900-256= 19s

644= 19s

s= 644/19

s= 33.89 m

Hence the distance traveled by the car is 33.89 m

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Answer:

The initial kinetic energy of the bullet is closest to 491.87 J

Explanation:

Given;

mass of bullet, m₁ = 18g = 0.018kg

mass of block, m₂ = 10kg

height moved by the block, h = 9 mm = 0.009 m

time taken for the bullet to travel through the block, t = 0.001s

let the initial velocity of the bullet = v₁

let the final velocity of the bullet = v₂

Apply the principle of conservation of linear momentum;

initial momentum = final momentum

0.018v₁ = v₂(0.018 + 10)

0.018v₁ = 10.018v₂ -----equation (1)

Apply the law of conservation of energy when the bullet lifts the block through 9mm

mgh = ¹/₂mv₂²

gh = ¹/₂v₂²

v₂² = 2gh

v₂ = √2gh

v₂ = √(2 x 9.8 x 0.009)

v₂ = 0.42 m/s

Substitute in v₂ in equation 1, to determine the initial velocity of the bullet;

0.018v₁ = 10.018v₂

0.018v₁  =  10.018(0.42)

0.018v₁  = 4.208

v₁ = 4.208 / 0.018

v₁ = 233.78 m/s

Now, determine the initial kinetic energy of the bullet;

K.E₁ = ¹/₂m₁v₁²

K.E₁ = ¹/₂(0.018)(233.78)²

K.E₁ = 491.87 J

Therefore, the initial kinetic energy of the bullet is closest to 491.87 J

Answer:

The induced current in the resistor is I = BLv/R

Explanation:

The induced emf ε in the long bar of length, L in a magnetic field of strength, B moving with a velocity, v is given by

ε = BLv.

Now, the current I in the resistor is given by

I = ε/R where ε = induced emf in circuit and R = resistance of resistor.

So, the current I = ε/R.

substituting the value of ε the induced emf, we have

I = ε/R

I = BLv/R

So, the induced current through the resistor is given by I = BLv/R

Answer:

Velocity

Explanation:

We finds that the winds are coming from the west at 15 miles per hour. This information shows the velocity of the wind. Since, velocity is a vector quantity. It has both magnitude and direction. 15 miles per hour shows the speed of wind and west shows the direction of wind motion.

Hence, the given information describes wind velocity.

Complete question is;

Consider a bus traveling to the west (-x direction) begins to slow down as it approaches a traffic light. Which statement concerning its acceleration in the x direction is correct

a) The bus is decelerating and its acceleration is positive.

b) The bus is decelerating, and its acceleration is negative.

c) The acceleration is zero.

d) A statement cannot be made using the information given.

Answer:

Option A - bus is decelerating and acceleration is positive.

Explanation:

We are told that the bus is travelling in (negative x direction) and begins to slow down. Since the bus is slowing down, it means that the bus is undergoing a negative acceleration which is called deceleration.

Thus, the bus is decelerating.

Since it is moving in the negative x-axis, it means acceleration is now; -(-a) which gives +a.

Thus, bus is decelerating and acceleration is positive.

Answer:

IMA is always larger than the AMA

Explanation:

IMA is Ideal Mechanical Advantage and it equals the length of effort that is divided by the length of resistance which is given by the formula

IMA= Fr/Fe

Where Fr is the resistance force

Fe is the effort force.

IM= de/dr

Where de is the distance of the applied effort  

dr is the distance traveled by the load.

In any real machine, the effort is needed to overcome friction and because of this, the ideal mechanical advantage(IMA) is always larger than the actual mechanical advantage (AMA)

Answer:

12.2 m

Explanation:

Given:

v₀ = 15.6 m/s

v = 0 m/s

a = -10 m/s²

Find: Δy

v² = v₀² + 2aΔy

(0 m/s)² = (15.6 m/s)² + 2 (-10 m/s²) Δy

Δy = 12.2 m

[tex] \LARGE{ \boxed{ \rm{ \green{Answer:}}}}[/tex]

Given,

Finding the initial kinetic energy,

[tex]\large{ \boxed{ \rm{K.E. = \frac{1}{2}m {v}^{2}}}}[/tex]

⇛ KE = (1/2)mv²

⇛ KE = (1/2)(0.042)(15.6)²

⇛ KE = 5.11 J

|| ⚡By conservation of energy, the potential energy at the highest point will also be 5.11 J, since there is no kinetic energy at the highest point because the ball is not moving (we neglect energy lost due to air resistance, heat, sound, etc.) ⚡||

So, we have:

[tex] \large{ \boxed{ \rm{P.E. = mgh}}}[/tex]

⇛ h = PE/(mg)

⇛ h = 5.11 J /(0.042 × 9.8)

⇛ h = 12.41 m

✏The ball will rise upto a height of 12.41 m

━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━

Answer:

86.4 hrs

Explanation:

The amount of bacteria is initially 1

It doubles every 24 hrs.

After first 24 hrs, the amount = 2

After next 24 hrs = 4

After next 24 hrs = 8

After next 24 hrs = 16

After next 24 hrs = 32

After next 24 hrs = 64

After next 24 hrs = 128

After next 24 hrs = 256

Total time taken to reach 256 = 24 x 8 = 192 hrs

For the bacteria culture on the rocket that travels at a speed of 0.893c relative to the earth, this time is contracted by the relationship

t = t'(1 - ¥^2)^0.5

Where t is the contracted time =?

t' is the time on earth

¥ = v/c

Where v is the speed of the rocket

c is the speed of light

since v = 0.893c

¥ = 0.893

Substituting, we have

t = 192 x (1 - 0.893^2)^0.5

t = 192 x 0.2025^0.5

t = 192 x 0.45 = 86.4 hrs

Answer:

R₁ = 14.7 10³ Ω , R₂ = 8.18 10³ Ω ,  R₃ = 1.72 10³ Ω ,  R₄ = 5.4 10³ Ω    1/8 W resistor

Explanation:

For this exercise we must use a series circuit since the sum of the voltage on each resin is equal to the source voltage (V = 30 V)

Therefore we build a circuit with 4 resistors in series, in such a way that

   V = i R

let the voltage

1st resistance

         V = i R

         R₁ = V / i

         R₁ = 14.7 / 1 10⁻³

         R₁ = 14.7 10³ Ω

power is

        P = V i

        P = 14.7 1 10⁻³

        P = 14.7 10⁻³ W = 0.0147 W

a resistance of ⅛ W is indicated

2nd resistance

          R₂ = 8.18 / 1 10⁻³

          R₂ = 8.18 10³ Ω

Power

          P = 8.18 1 10⁻³

          P = 0.00818W

a 1/8 W resistor

3rd resistance

this resistance is calculated in such a way that

          V₁ + V₂ + V₃ = 24.6

          V₃ = 24.6 - V₁ -V₂

          V₃ = 24.6 - 14.7 - 8.18

          V₃ = 1.72 V

          R₃ = 1.72 / 1 10⁻³

          R₃ = 1.72 10³ Ω

power

          P = Vi

          P = 1.72 10⁻³

          P = 0.00172 W

a resistance of ⅛ W

To obtain the voltage of 24.6 we use this three resistors together

4th resistance

The value of this resistance is calculated so that the sum of all the voltages reaches the source voltage

           30 = V₁ + V₂ + V₃ + V₄

           V₄ = 30 - V₁ -V₂ -V₃

           V₄ = 30 -14.7 - 8.18 - 1.72

           V₄ = 5.4 V

          R₄ = 5.4 / 1 10⁻³

          R₄ = 5.4 10³ Ω

Power

         P = V i

         P = 5.4 10⁻³

         P = 0.0054 W

⅛ W resistance

The values ​​of these resistance are commercially

Let's check the consumption of the circuit

  R_total = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ + R₄

  R_total = (14.7 + 8.18 + 1.72 + 5.4) 10³

   R_total = 30 10³

the current circulating in the circuit is

     i = V / R_total

     i = 30/30 10³

     i = 1 10⁻³ A

therefore it is within the order requirement.

for connections see attached diagram

Answer:

Φ = 36.84 × 10^(-20) J

Explanation:

In the photoelectric effect, the energy of the incoming photon is usually used in part to extract the photoelectron from the material (work function) and then the rest is converted into kinetic energy of the photoelectron which is given by the formula;

K_max = hf - Φ

where;

hf represents the energy of the incoming photon

h is the Planck's constant

f is the light frequency

Φ is the work function of the material

K_max is the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons.

From the question, we are told that no current flows unless the wavelength is less than 540 nm. This means that when the wavelength has this value, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is zero i.e K_max = 0. Thus the energy of the incoming photons is just enough to extract the photoelectrons from the material.

Thus,

hf - Φ = 0

hf = Φ - - - (1)

We are given the wavelength as;

λ = 540 nm = 540 × 10^(-9) m

Now, let's find the frequency of the light by using the relationship between frequency and wavelength. The equation is;

f = c/λ

Where c is speed of light = 3 × 10^(8) m/s

f = (3 × 10^(8))/(540 × 10^(-9))

f = 5.56 × 10^(14) Hz

Thus, from equation 1,we can now find the work function;

Φ = hf

h is Planck's constant and has a value of 6.626 × 10^(-34) J.s

Thus;

Φ = 6.626 × 10^(-34) × 5.56 × 10^(14)

Φ = 36.84 × 10^(-20) J

Answer:

A simple arrangement by means of which e.m.f,s. are compared is known as?

(a)Voltmeter

(b)Potentiometer

(c)Ammeter

(d)None of the above

Explanation:

Answer:

I know the answer

Explanation:

We want to choose the film thickness such that destructive interference occurs between the light reflected from the air-film interface (call it wave 1) and from the film-lens interface (call it wave 2). For destructive interference to occur, the phase difference between the two waves must be an odd multiple of half-wavelengths.

You can think of the phases of the two waves as second hands on a clock; as the light travels, the hands tick-tock around the clock. Consider the clocks on the two waves in question. As both waves travel to the air-film interface, their clocks both tick-tock the same time-no phase difference. When wave 1 is reflected from the air-film boundary, its clock is set forward 30 seconds; i.e., if the hand was pointing toward 12, it's now pointing toward 6. It's set forward because the index of refraction of air is smaller than that of the film.

Now wave 1 pauses while wave two goes into and out of the film. The clock on wave 2 continues to tick as it travels in the film-tick, tock, tick, tock.... Clock 2 is set forward 30 seconds when it hits the film-lens interface because the index of refraction of the film is smaller than that of the lens. Then as it travels back through the film, its clock still continues ticking. When wave 2 gets back to the air-film interface, the two waves continue side by side, both their clocks ticking; there is no change in phase as they continue on their merry way.

So, to recap, since both clocks were shifted forward at the two different interfaces, there was no net phase shift due to reflection. There was also no phase shift as the waves travelled into and out from the air-film interface. The only phase shift occured as clock 2 ticked inside the film.

Call the thickness of the film t. Then the total distance travelled by wave 2 inside the film is 2t, if we assume the light entered pretty much normal to the interface. This total distance should equal to half the wavelength of the light in the film (for the minimum condition; it could also be 3/2, 5/2, etc., but that wouldn't be the minimum thickness) since the hand of the clock makes one revolution for each distance of one wavelength the wave travels (right?).

Answer:

Explanation:

initial velocity u = 20 m /s

final velocity v = 36 m /s

time taken t = 4 s .

acceleration = (v - u) / t

= (36 - 20) / 4

a = 4 m / s ²

from the formula

v² - u² = 2 a s  , s is distance covered .

putting the values

36² - 20² = 2 x 4 x s

1296 - 400 = 8 x s

s = 112 m .

Answer:112

Explanation:

Answer:

3.30 x 10^-7 Pascal

Explanation:

distance r = 1.5 m

power P = 700 W

the radiation pressure is given as

Pr = P/A*c

where

area of the surface A = 4πr^2

calculate for A

speed of light is c = 3×10^8  m/s

plugging above values in equation above gives

Pr = 3.30 x 10^-7 Pascal

Answer:

The power delivered by the battery is 17.04 W

Explanation:

Power through a circuit is given as

P = IV    ....1

where P is the power

I is the current through the circuit

V is the voltage through the circuit

The voltage in a circuit is given as

V = IR    ....2

Let us take the value of each resistor as equal to R

when connected in series, the total resistance will be

[tex]R_{t}[/tex] = R + R = 2R

If we assume constant voltage through the circuit, then from equation 2, the current in this case is

I = V/2R

If the resistors are connected in parallel, then the total resistance will be

[tex]\frac{1}{R_{t} }[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{R}[/tex] +

[tex]R_{t}[/tex] = R/2

The current in this case will be increased since the resistance is reduced

I = 2V/R

comparing the two situations, we can see that the current increased when connected in parallel to a ratio of

[tex]\frac{2V}{R}[/tex] ÷  [tex]\frac{V}{2R}[/tex] =  

This means that the current increased 4 times

From equation 1, we can see that electrical power is proportional to the current at a constant voltage, therefore, the power will also increase by four times to

P = 4 x 4.26 = 17.04 W

Answer:

entropy

Explanation:

Answer:

We know that the maximum angle that a light ray can wake with the wall of the core is equipment to the minimum angle with the normal of the core that will give rise in total internal reflection. so using Snell's law the angle is subtracted from 90° to get the maximum angle a light ray can make with the wall of the core if it is to remain inside the fiber.

So using

n1sinစ1. = n2sinစ2

1.6sin(x1) = 1.48sin(90),

But sin(90)=1

1.6sin(စ1) = 1.48,

sin(စ1) = 1.48/1.6

စ = 68°

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

Using the Snell's law formula to solve this question which states that the ratio of the sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant for a given pair of media. This constant is known as the refractive index for the given pair of media. Mathematically,

n = sin(i)/sin(r) where;

i is the angle of incidence

r is the angle of refraction.

n is the refractive index.

Given the refractive index of the optical fibre n₁ = 1.60 and that of cladding n₂ = 1.48

n₂/n₁ = sin(i)/sin(r)

The light ray can make with the wall of the core when its angle of refraction is 90⁰. The angle of incidence at this maximum point is known as the critical angle.

On substitution:

1.48/1.60 = sin(i)/sin90

1.48/1.60  = sin(i)/1

sin(i) = 1.48/1.60

sin(i) = 0.925

i = sin⁻¹0.925

i = 67.66⁰

Hence the maximum angle a light ray can make with the wall of the core if it is to remain inside the fiber is 67.66⁰.

Answer:

1.227 m

Explanation:

Given that

Minimum wavelength is 410 nm

Maximum wavelength is 750 nm

Grating is 7800 slits/cm

Distance is 3.2 m

To solve this question, we would use the formula

sin θ = λ/d

sin θ = (410*10^-9) / (0.01/7800)

Sin θ = 410*10^-9 / 1.282*10^-6

Sin θ = 0.32 and θ = 18.67 degrees

For the second wavelength = 750 nm

sin θ = [(0.32x750)/410]

sin θ = (240 / 410)

sin θ = 0.5853 or

θ = 35.8 degrees

And finally, the width of spectrum would be

3.2[tan 35.8 - tan 18.67]

3.2 * 0.3833

= 1.227 m

Answer:

The period of motion is 0.5 second.

Explanation:

Given;

extension of the spring, x = 3.8 cm = 0.038 m

mass of the object, m = 13 g = 0.013 kg

Determine the force constant of the spring, k;

F = kx

k = F / x

k = mg / x

k = (0.013 x 9.8) / 0.038

k = 3.353 N/m

When the object is replaced with a block of mass 20 g, the period of motion is calculated as;

[tex]T = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k} } \\\\T = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{0.02}{3.353} } \\\\T = 0.5 \ second[/tex]

Therefore, the period of motion is 0.5 second.

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the shortest wavelength in the series is shown below:-

[tex]\frac{1}{\lambda} = R(\frac{1}{n_f^2} - \frac{1}{n_i^2} )[/tex]

Where

[tex]\lambda[/tex] represents wavelength

R represents Rydberg's constant

[tex]n_f[/tex] represents Final energy states

and [tex]n_i[/tex] represents initial energy states

Now Substitute is

[tex]1.097\times 10^7\ m^{-1}\ for\ R, \infty for\ n_i,\ 3 for\ n_i,\\\\\ \frac{1}{\lambda} = R(\frac{1}{n_f^2} - \frac{1}{n_i^2} )[/tex]

now we will put the values into the above formula

[tex]= 1.097\times 10^7 m^{-1}(\frac{1}{3^2} - \frac{1}{\infty^2} )\\\\ = 1.097\times10^7\ m^{-1} (\frac{1}{9} )[/tex]

[tex]= 1218888.889 m^{-1}[/tex]

Now we will rewrite the answer in the term of [tex]\lambda[/tex]

[tex]\lambda = \frac{1}{1218888.889} m\\\\ = 0.82\times 10^{-6} m[/tex]

So, the whole Paschen series is in the part of the spectrum.

Answer:

g' = g/9 = 1.09 m/s²

Explanation:

The magnitude of free fall acceleration at the surface of earth is given by the following formula:

g = GM/R²   ----- equation 1

where,

g = free fall acceleration

G = Universal Gravitational Constant

M = Mass of Earth

R = Distance between the center of earth and the object

So, in our case,

R = R + 2 R = 3 R

Therefore,

g' = GM/(3R)²

g' = (1/9) GM/R²

using equation 1:

g' = g/9

g' = (9.8 m/s)/9

g' = 1.09 m/s²

Answer:

Explanation:

Surface of earth,

[tex]g = \frac{GM}{R^2}\\\\g = 9.8m/s^2[/tex]

free fall acceleration at height h,

[tex]g_h = \frac{GM}{(R+h)^2}[/tex]

where

G = gravitational constant

R = Radius of earth

M = mass of earth

therefore,

[tex]\frac{g_h}{g} = \frac{\frac{GM}{(R+h)^2}}{\frac{GM}{R^2}}\\\\ \frac{g_h}{g} = \frac{R^2}{(R+h)^2}\\\\g_h = g\frac{R^2}{(R+h)^2}[/tex]

Where height h = 2R

[tex]g_h = 9.8\frac{R^2}{(R+2R)^2}\\\\g_h = 9.8\frac{R^2}{(3R)^2}\\\\g_h = 9.8\frac{R^2}{(9R^2}\\\\g_h = 1.09m/s^2[/tex]

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Answer:

the analog along the diameter of the acceleration of the particle executing simple harmonic motion is the projection along the diameter of the centripetal acceleration of the particle in the circle

Answer:

Fad = 28.8 kN

Fbd = 16.4 kN

Fcd = 28.1 kN

Explanation:

First, find the length of each cable.

AD = √((2 m)² + (0.5 m)² + (2.5 m)²)

AD = √10.5 m

AD ≈ 3.24 m

BD = √((1.5 m)² + (1 m)² + (2.5 m)²)

BD = √9.5 m

BD ≈ 3.08 m

CD = √((1 m)² + (1 m)² + (2.5 m)²)

CD = √8.25 m

CD ≈ 2.87 m

Next, use similar triangles to find the x, y, and z components of each tension force.

Fadx = 2/3.24 Fad = 0.617 Fad

Fady = 0.5/3.24 Fad = 0.154 Fad

Fadz = 2.5/3.24 Fad = 0.772 Fad

Fbdx = 1.5/3.08 Fbd = 0.487 Fbd

Fbdy = 1/3.08 Fbd = 0.324 Fbd

Fbdz = 2.5 / 3.08 Fbd = 0.811 Fbd

Fcdx = 1/2.87 Fcd = 0.348 Fcd

Fcdy = 1/2.87 Fcd = 0.348 Fcd

Fcdz = 2.5/2.87 Fcd = 0.870 Fcd

Now sum the forces in the x, y, and z directions:

∑Fx = ma

-0.617 Fad + 0.487 Fbd + 0.348 Fcd = 0

∑Fy = ma

-0.154 Fad − 0.324 Fbd + 0.348 Fcd = 0

∑Fz = ma

60 kN − 0.772 Fad − 0.811 Fbd − 0.870 Fcd = 0

To solve this system of equations algebraically, start by subtracting the first two equations, eliminating Fcd.

-0.463 Fad + 0.811 Fbd = 0

0.811 Fbd = 0.463 Fad

Fbd = 0.571 Fad

Substitute into either of the first two equations:

-0.617 Fad + 0.487 (0.571 Fad) + 0.348 Fcd = 0

-0.617 Fad + 0.278 Fad + 0.348 Fcd = 0

-0.339 Fad + 0.348 Fcd = 0

0.348 Fcd = 0.339 Fad

Fcd = 0.975 Fad

Now substituting into the third equation:

60 kN − 0.772 Fad − 0.811 Fbd − 0.870 Fcd = 0

60 kN − 0.772 Fad − 0.811 (0.571 Fad) − 0.870 (0.975 Fad) = 0

60 kN − 0.772 Fad − 0.463 Fad − 0.849 Fad = 0

60 kN − 2.083 Fad = 0

Fad = 28.8 kN

Solving for the other two tension forces:

Fbd = 0.571 Fad = 16.4 kN

Fcd = 0.975 Fad = 28.1 kN

Answer:

Tensions of:

DA = 28.81 KN

DB = 16.45 KN

DC = 28.07 KN

Explanation:

see attached

Answer:

7km

Explanation:

The angle of depression is congruent to the angle of elevation and can be explained as angle below horizontal in which the person observing an object must view for him/her to view object's that are lower than him/her.

In angle of depression, there is assumption that object is closer to the person observing it, so there is parallel horizontal for both observing and object been observed.

hot air balloon 2 km​ high,

there exist two triangles

From trigonometry

Tanx= opposite/adjacent

Opp= 2km

Adj= X1

first triangle have base length of

Tan(16)=2/X1

X1=2/ tan(16)

X1=6.97

For Second triangle

Tanx= opposite/adjacent

Opp= 2km

Adj= X2

the other with a base length of

X2=2/tan(84)

X2=0.21

Therefore,, the total distance between the two towns is

x1+x2=6.97+0.21=7.18km

Answer:

The volume will decrease by a factor of 10/51.

Explanation:

Hello,

In this case, since both moles and temperature remain constant, we can use the Boyle's law that relates the volume and pressure as an inversely proportional relationship:

[tex]P_1V_1=P_2V_2[/tex]

Thus, since the pressure increases by a factor of 5.1 (statement), we have:

[tex]P_2=5.1P_1[/tex]

Thus, the final volume is:

[tex]V_2=\frac{P_1V_1}{P_2} =\frac{P_1V_1}{5.1P_1}\\\\V_2=\frac{10}{51}V_1[/tex]

It means that the volume will decrease by a factor of 10/51.

Regards.