A cylindrical water tank has a height of 20cm and a radius of 14cm. If it is filled to 2/5 of its capacity, calculate.

I. Quantity of water in the tank

II. Quantity of water left to fill the tank to its capacity.

Answer:

[tex]F_b= 0.720 N[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Weight [tex]W=600N[/tex]

Average density [tex]\rho=1.20kg/m^3[/tex]

Mass

[tex]m=\frac{W}{g}[/tex]

[tex]m=\frac{600}{9.81}[/tex]

[tex]m=61.22kg[/tex]

Generally the equation for Volume is mathematically given by

[tex]V =\frac{ mass}{density}[/tex]

[tex]V= \frac{61.22}{1000}[/tex]

[tex]V=0.06122 m^3[/tex]

Therefore

Buoyant force [tex]F_b[/tex]

[tex]F_b=\rho*V*g[/tex]

[tex]F_b= rho_air*V*g[/tex]

[tex]F_b= 0.720 N[/tex]

The least distance up to which we can see the objects clearly without any strain is called least distance of distinct vision. Least distance of distinct vision for a normal human being is 25cm. For young people, the least distance of distant vision will be within 25cm which however it varies with age.

Answer:

25 you said ? thats incorecct

Explanation:

Answer:

P = -1 D

Explanation:

For this exercise we must use the equation of the constructor

       / f = 1 / p + 1 / q

where f is the focal length, p and q is the distance to the object and the image, respectively

The far view point is at p =∞  and its image must be at q = -100 cm = 1 m, the negative sign is because the image is on the same side as the image  

        [tex]\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{infinity} + \frac{1}{-1}[/tex]

         f = 1 m

         P = 1/f

          P = -1 D

Answer:  

t = 1.27 x 10⁹ s  

Explanation:  

First, we will find the volume of the wire:

Volume = V = AL  

where,  

A = Cross-sectional area of wire = πr² = π(1 cm)² = π(0.01 m)² = 3.14 x 10⁻⁴ m²  

L = Length of wire = 150 km = 150000 m  

Therefore,    

V = 47.12 m³

Now, we will find the number of electrons in the wire:  

No. of electrons = n = (Electrons per unit Volume)(V)  

n = (8.43 x 10²⁸ electrons/m³)(47.12 m³)  

n = 3.97 x 10³⁰ electrons  

Now, we will use the formula of current to find out the time taken by each electron to cross the wire:

[tex]I =\frac{q}{t}[/tex]  

where,  

t = time = ?  

I = current = 500 A  

q = total charge = (n)(chareg on one electron)  

q = (3.97 x 10³⁰ electrons)(1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C/electron)  

q = 6.36 x 10¹¹ C  

[tex]500\ A = \frac{6.36\ x\ 10^{11}\ C}{t}\\\\t = \frac{6.36\ x\ 10^{11}\ C}{500\ A}[/tex]

Therefore,

t = 1.27 x 10⁹ s

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle T = \sqrt{\frac{4\, \pi^{2} \, r^{3}}{G \cdot m}}[/tex].

The unit of both sides of this equation are [tex]\rm s[/tex].

Explanation:

The unit of the left-hand side is [tex]\rm s[/tex], same as the unit of [tex]T[/tex].

The following makes use of the fact that for any non-zero value [tex]x[/tex], the power [tex]x^{-1}[/tex] is equivalent to [tex]\displaystyle \frac{1}{x}[/tex].

On the right-hand side of this equation:

[tex]\begin{aligned}& \rm \sqrt{\frac{(m)^{3}}{(m^{3} \cdot kg^{-1} \cdot s^{-2}) \cdot (kg)}} \\ &= \rm \sqrt{\frac{m^{3}}{m^{3} \cdot s^{-2}}} = \sqrt{s^{2}} = s\end{aligned}[/tex].

Hence, the unit on the right-hand side of this equation is also [tex]\rm s[/tex].

Answer:

A circuit with two 10 ohm resistors connected in series.

Explanation:

The formula for the equivalent resistance for resistors in parallel is

[tex]\frac{1}{Rt} = \frac{1}{R1} + \frac{1}{R2}[/tex]   So if R1=R2= 10  [tex]\frac{1}{Rt} = \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{10} = \frac{2}{10} <=> Rt =\frac{10}{2} =5 ohm[/tex]

The formula for the equivalent resistance for resistors in series is

Rt = R1 + R2  So Rt= 10 + 10 = 20

Answer:

3.55 T

Explanation:

Applying,

F = BILsin∅.............. Equation 1

Where F = Force, B = magnetic Field, I = current, L = Length of the wire, ∅ = Angle between the wire and the magnetic field

make B the subject of the equation

B = F/ILsin∅.................. Equation 2

From the question,

Given: F = 2.45 N, L = 3.00 cm = 0.03 m, I = 23.0 A, ∅ = 90° (Perpendicular)

Substitute these values into equation 2

B = 2.45/(0.03×23×sin90)

B = 2.45/0.69

B = 3.55 T

Answer:

solid cylinder

Explanation:

the object that arrives first is the object that has more speed, let's use the concepts of energy

starting point. Highest point

         Em₀ = U = m g h

final point. Lowest point

         Em_f = K = ½ mv² + ½ I w²

since the body has rotational and translational movement

how energy is conserved

         m g h = ½ mv² + ½ I w²

linear and angular velocity are related

          v = w r

          w = v / r

we substitute

          m g h = ½ mv² + ½ I (v/r) ²

          mg h = ½ v² (m + I /r²)

          v = [tex]\sqrt{2gh \ \frac{m}{m + \frac{I}{r^2} } }[/tex]

the tabulated moments of inertia for the bodies are

solid cylinder     I = ½ m r²

hollow cylinder  I = m r²

we look for the speed for each body

solid cylinder

          v₁ = [tex]\sqrt {2gh} \ \sqrt{\frac{m}{m + m/2} }[/tex]

          v₁ = [tex]\sqrt{2gh} \ \sqrt{2/3}[/tex]

let's call    v₀ = [tex]\sqrt{2gh}[/tex]

         v₁ = 0.816 v₀

hollow cylinder

          v₂ = [tex]\sqrt{2gh } \ \sqrt{\frac{m}{m+ m} }[/tex]

          v₂ = v₀ √½

          v₂ = 0.707 v₀

Therefore, the body that has the highest speed is the solid cylinder and since time is the inverse of speed, this is the body that spends less time to reach the bottom, that is, it is the first to arrive

1433 km

Explanation:

Let g' = the gravitational field strength at an altitude h

[tex]g' = G\dfrac{M_E}{(R_E + h)^2}[/tex]

We also know that g at the earth's surface is

[tex]g = G\dfrac{M_E}{R_E^2}[/tex]

Since g' = (2/3)g, we can write

[tex]G\dfrac{M_E}{(R_E + h)^2} = \dfrac{2}{3}\left(G\dfrac{M_E}{R_E^2} \right)[/tex]

Simplifying the above expression by cancelling out common factors, we get

[tex](R_E + h)^2 = \dfrac{3}{2} R_E^2[/tex]

Taking the square root of both sides, this becomes

[tex]R_E + h = \left(\!\sqrt{\dfrac{3}{2}}\right) R_E[/tex]

Solving for h, we get

[tex]h = \left(\!\sqrt{\dfrac{3}{2}} - 1\right) R_E= 0.225(6.371×10^2\:\text{km})[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:= 1433\:\text{km}[/tex]

Answer:

Charge of the particle is 1 coulomb.

Explanation:

Force, F:

[tex]{ \bf{F=BeV}}[/tex]

F is magnetic force.

B is the magnetic flux density.

e is the charge of the particle.

V is the velocity

[tex]{ \sf{20 = (5 \times e \times 4)}} \\ { \sf{20e = 20}} \\ { \sf{e = 1 \: coulomb}}[/tex]

Answer:

(a)  209 Watt

(b) 4482.8 seconds

Explanation:

(a) P = 50×4.18

Where P = rate of heat loss in watt

    P = 209 Watt

Applying,

Q = cm(t₁-t₂)................ Equation 1

Where Q = amount of heat given off, c = specific heat capacity capacity of human, m = mass of the person, t₁ and t₂ = initial and final temperature.

From the question,

Given: m = 90 kg, t₁ = 40°C, t₂ = 37°C

Constant: c = 3470 J/kg.K

Substtut these values into equation 1

Q = 90×3470(40-37)

Q = 936900 J

But,

P = Q/t.............. Equation 2

Where t = time

t = Q/P............ Equation 3

Given: P = 209 Watt, Q = 936900

Substitute into equation 3

t = 936900/209

t = 4482.8 seconds

Answer:

100Hz

Explanation:

In a full wave rectifier, the fundamental frequency of the ripple is twice that of input frequency. Given the input frequency of 50 Hz, the fundamental frequency will be 2 × 50 = 100Hz

Answer:

HZ 100 is the right answer hope you like it

Explanation:

Let [tex]\textbf{A} = 6\hat{\textbf{i}} + 4\hat{\textbf{j}} - 2\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex] and [tex]\textbf{B} = 2\hat{\textbf{i}} - 2\hat{\textbf{j}} + 3\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

The sum of the two vectors is

[tex]\textbf{A + B} = (6 + 2)\hat{\textbf{i}} + (4 - 2)\hat{\textbf{j}} + (-2 + 3)\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

[tex] = 8\hat{\textbf{i}} + 2\hat{\textbf{j}} + \hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

The difference between the two vectors can be written as

[tex]\textbf{A - B} = (6 - 2)\hat{\textbf{i}} + (4 - (-2))\hat{\textbf{j}} + (-2 - 3)\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

[tex]= 4\hat{\textbf{i}} + 6\hat{\textbf{j}} - 5\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

Answer:

B has greater potential

Explanation:

We know;

Potential Energy (PE) = mgh

where, m=mass of body

g=acceleration due to gravity

h=height of body

From the formula,

PE is directly proportional to the mass of the body

so the body with greater mass has greater potential.

Answer:

7.28×10⁻⁵ T

Explanation:

Applying,

F = BILsin∅............. Equation 1

Where F = magnetic force, B = earth's magnetic field, I = current flowing through the wire, L = Length of the wire, ∅ = angle between the field and the wire.

make B the subject of the equation

B = F/ILsin∅.................. Equation 2

From the question,

Given: F = 0.16 N, I = 68 A, L = 34 m, ∅ = 72°

Substitute these values into equation 2

B = 0.16/(68×34×sin72°)

B = 0.16/(68×34×0.95)

B = 0.16/2196.4

B = 7.28×10⁻⁵ T

Answer:

a) required area is 1.1318 m²

b) the maximum potential difference that can be applied across the compactor is 1931.1 V

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

dielectric constant εr = 2.35

distance between plates ( thickness ) d = 0.0785 mm = 7.85 × 10⁻⁵ m

dielectric strength = 49.5 MV/m

a)

given that capacity capacitor C = 0.3 uF = 0.3 × 10⁻⁶ F

To find the Area, we use the following the expression.

C = ε₀εrA / d

we know that The permittivity of free space, ε₀ = 8.854 x 10⁻¹²  (F/m)

we substitute

0.3 × 10⁻⁶ = [ (8.854 x 10⁻¹²) × 2.35 × A  ] /  7.85 × 10⁻⁵

A = [ (0.3 × 10⁻⁶) × (7.85 × 10⁻⁵) ] / [ 2.35 × (8.854 x 10⁻¹²) ]

A = 2.355 × 10⁻¹¹ / 2.08069 × 10⁻¹¹

A = 1.1318 m²

Therefore, required area is 1.1318 m²

b)

the maximum potential difference that can be applied across the compactor.

We use the following expression;

⇒ 1/2 × dielectric strength × thickness d

we substitute

⇒ 1/2 × ( 49.5 × 10⁶ V/m ) × ( 7.85 × 10⁻⁵ m )

⇒ 1931.1 V

Therefore, the maximum potential difference that can be applied across the compactor is 1931.1 V

Answer:

Florida is tropical, with a significant rainy seson

Your friend would have a better experience of this event, than you .

An eclipse is produced when a planetary body moves in front of another planetary body and is visible from a third planetary body. Considering the sun, moon, and earth's locations in relation to one another during the time of the eclipse,

there are various types of eclipses in our solar system. For instance, a lunar eclipse occurs when the earth passes between the moon and the sun.

For the solar eclipse to happen the light from the sun is obstructed by the moon observing from the earth.

The buddies left Earth because they could view the whole eclipse, but you were on the moon and only saw parts of the eclipse turn black.

To learn more about the eclipse from here, refer to the link;

brainly.com/question/4279342

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Answer:

10.01 cm

Explanation:

Given that,

The time delay between transmission and the arrival of the reflected wave of a signal using ultrasound traveling through a piece of fat tissue was 0.13 ms.

The average propagation speed for sound in body tissue is 1540 m/s.

We need to find the depth when the reflection occur. We know that, the distance is double when transmitting and arriving. So,

[tex]v=\dfrac{2d}{t}\\\\d=\dfrac{vt}{2}\\\\d=\dfrac{1540\times 0.13\times 10^{-3}}{2}\\\\d= $$0.1001\ m[/tex]

or

d = 10.01 cm

So, the reflection will occur at 10.01 cm.

Check attached photo

Check attached photo

Answer:

Explanation:

1. If C = A + B then the lines A and B may have the same magnitude or they may not. The direction of A for example may be northwest ↖️ and the direction of B must be south ⬇️ because the arrow of A and the point of B must connect. Then C’s direction is west ⬅️ because it shouldn’t be as equilibrium.

2. If C = 0 t means the force is at equilibrium. That means all forces add up to zero. A’s direction for example may be northeast ↗️ and the direction of B may be south ⬇️ and the direction of C must be west if it has to be at equilibrium.

The magnitude of A and B must be equal

Answer:

0

Explanation:

The speed of the ball when it reaches the floor is 0 because when an object is at rest or in uniform motion, it has no speed/velocity

The final speed of the ball when it reaches the floor is 7.10 m/s.

The conservation of energy is a fundamental principle in physics that states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, but only converted from one form to another or transferred from one system to another. In other words, the total amount of energy in a closed system remains constant over time, even though it may be converted from one form to another.

This principle is based on the first law of thermodynamics, which states that the total energy of a closed system is always conserved, and can only be changed by the transfer of heat, work, or matter into or out of the system. The conservation of energy has important applications in various fields of physics, including mechanics, thermodynamics, and electromagnetism, and is a fundamental principle in the understanding of the natural world.

Here in the Question,

We can use the conservation of energy to solve this problem. Initially, the ball has kinetic energy due to its motion on the tabletop, but no potential energy since it is at a constant height. When the ball rolls off the edge of the table, it loses some kinetic energy due to friction but gains potential energy as it moves upward. When it reaches the floor, it has gained potential energy but lost kinetic energy due to friction. We can assume that the energy lost due to friction is converted to thermal energy, so the total energy of the system is conserved.

Let's start by calculating the potential energy gained by the ball as it moves from the edge of the table to the floor:

ΔPE = mgh

where ΔPE is the change in potential energy, m is the mass of the ball, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the vertical distance traveled by the ball.

ΔPE = (0.50 kg)(9.81 m/s^2)(1.0 m) = 4.905 J

Now we can use the conservation of energy to find the final kinetic energy of the ball, which will allow us to calculate its final speed:

KEi + ΔPEi = KEf + ΔPEf

where KEi and ΔPEi are the initial kinetic and potential energies of the ball, respectively, and KEf and ΔPEf are the final kinetic and potential energies of the ball, respectively.

Since the ball is not bouncing, we can assume that its initial and final potential energies are zero. Therefore:

KEi = KEf + ΔKE

where ΔKE is the change in kinetic energy due to friction.

We can assume that the coefficient of kinetic friction between the ball and the incline is constant, and use the work-energy principle to find ΔKE:

Wfric = ΔKE

where Wfric is the work done by friction.

The work done by friction can be expressed as:

Wfric = ffricd

where ffric is the force of friction and d is the distance traveled by the ball on the incline.

The force of friction can be expressed as:

ffric = μmg

where μ is the coefficient of kinetic friction, and m and g have their usual meanings.

Putting it all together, we get:

KEi = KEf + ffricd

KEi = KEf + μmgd

(1/2)mv^2 = (1/2)mu^2 + μmgd

v^2 = u^2 + 2gd

where u is the initial speed of the ball on the tabletop, and v is the final speed of the ball on the floor.

Plugging in the given values, we get:

v^2 = (5.0 m/s)^2 + 2(9.81 m/s^2)(1.0 m)

v^2 = 50.405

v = 7.10 m/s

Therefore, the final speed of the ball when it reaches the floor is 7.10 m/s.

To learn more about  the Law of Conservation of Momentum click:

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Answer:

The correct answer would be - Low pitch.

Explanation:

As it is known that if frequency increases then pitch will be increase as well as pitch depends on frequency, Now for the question it is mentioned that the tube closed on one end frequency is:

f = v/2l

Where,

l = length of the tube

v = velocity of longitudinal wave of gas filled in the tube

Now increase with the temperature the density of the gas decreases and velocity v is inversely proportional to density of gas so velocity increases. So if there is an increase in frequency so pitch also increases. As the temperature inside the house is at 750 F more than outsideat 450 Fso pitch is more inside and the pitch is low outside.

Answer:

In direct-current circuit theory, Norton's theorem is a simplification that can be applied to networks made of linear time-invariant resistances, voltage sources, and current sources. At a pair of terminals of the network, it can be replaced by a current source and a single resistor in parallel.

Answer:

Renewable energy is a type of energy that can be renewed easily, such as sunlight. By using Solar panels to collect the suns energy, we are not depleting it, so this source is renewable.

Non-renewable  energy is something that cannot easily be replenished. An example would be oil because oil takes millions of years to form and cannot be renewed easily.

Answer:

0.5849Weber

Explanation:

The formula for calculating the magnetic flus is expressed as:

[tex]\phi = BAcos \theta[/tex]

Given

The magnitude of the magnetic field B = 3.35T

Area of the loop = πr² = 3.14(0.24)² = 0.180864m²

angle of the wire loop θ = 15.1°

Substitute the given values into the formula:

[tex]\phi = 3.35(0.180864)cos15.1^0\\\phi =0.6058944cos15.1^0\\\phi =0.6058944(0.9655)\\\phi = 0.5849Wb[/tex]

Hence the magnetic flux Φ through the loop is 0.5849Weber