An episiotomy is a perineum incision performed during the second stage of labour to facilitate the birth of an infant. The most common are lateral and median episiotomy, as well as mediolateral episiotomies.
A midwife can assist you in avoiding a tear during labour when the baby's head becomes visible. The midwife will instruct you to stop pushing and pant or puff a couple of quick short breaths, blowing out through your mouth. The skin of the perineum usually stretches well, but it can tear, especially in first-time mothers. Massaging the perineum in the final weeks of pregnancy can lower the chances of having an episiotomy during birth.
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An episiotomy is a perineum incision performed during the second stage of labour to facilitate the birth of an infant. The most common are lateral and median episiotomy, as well as mediolateral episiotomies.
A midwife can assist you in avoiding a tear during labour when the baby's head becomes visible. The midwife will instruct you to stop pushing and pant or puff a couple of quick short breaths, blowing out through your mouth. The skin of the perineum usually stretches well, but it can tear, especially in first-time mothers. Massaging the perineum in the final weeks of pregnancy can lower the chances of having an episiotomy during birth.
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which of the following characterizes chronic malnutrition in children? a. rapid weight loss b. low weight for height c. short height for age d. hyperactivity e. shrunken liver
The chronic malnutrition in children is short height for age which means option c is the correct choice.
This is a condition that develops when children do not eat the correct balance of nutrients in the first 1,000 days of life (from conception to the age of two), resulting in the irreversible stunting of their cognitive and physical development. It is caused by a lack of nutrients, either as a result of a poor diet or problems absorbing nutrients from food. Estimates indicate that starving people become weak in 30 to 50 days and die in 43 to 70 days.
Therefore, option c is the correct choice.
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the physician asks you to send in a prescription for a patient, but you can't quite read the amount that is being prescribed. what should you do?
Clarify with the doctor how many tablets are being prescribed.
Before writing a prescription, the doctor needs to understand the workings and characteristics of the drug, and the pharmacist needs to be aware of any possible interactions the patient might have with other drugs.
Drugs classified as controlled substances have the strongest federal and state-level regulations and prescription requirements because they are thought to have the highest potential for misuse and use disorders. A physician needs a controlled substance license from the DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) in order to prescribe medication, and a pharmacist needs one in order to fill a prescription. Because they have no recognized medical use in the USA, schedule I drugs like heroin cannot be prescribed or filled by a pharmacist.
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Risk factors associated with the development of breast cancer include which of the following? Select all that apply.
Risk factors associated with the development of breast cancer include:
EthnicityAdvanced ageWomen who have never been pregnantWomen who had late onset of menarche and early menopauseBreast cancer is a type of cancer that develops in the cells of the breasts. Breast cancer is the second most common cancer diagnosed in women in the United States, after skin cancer. Breast cancer can affect both men and women, but it affects women far more frequently.
Significant support for breast cancer awareness and research funding has aided in the advancement of breast cancer diagnosis and treatment. Breast cancer survival rates have increased, and the number of deaths associated with the disease has been steadily decreasing, owing largely to factors such as earlier detection, a new personalized approach to treatment, and a better understanding of the disease.
Breast cancer signs and symptoms may include a breast lump or thickening that feels different from the surrounding tissue, as well as a change in the size, shape, or appearance of a breast, dimpling is a change in the skin over the breast. A newly flipped nipple, the pigmented area of skin surrounding the nipple (areola) or breast skin peeling, scaling, crusting, or flaking, redness or pitting of the skin over your breast, similar to orange skin.
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TRUE/FALSE. In the agreement/attestation statement signed by a provider, it agrees to charge Medicare beneficiaries for any services that Medicare beneficiaries are entitled to have payment made on their behalf by the Medicare program.
False. Assisting the elderly of the country with hospital, medical, and other healthcare bills is the goal of the Medicare health insurance programme. Almost 65 years of age and older has access to Medicare.
Additionally, Medicare has been expanded to cover those under 65 with end-stage renal disease, Social Security disability benefits, or Railroad Retirement Board benefits (ESRD). Medicare is administered by a federal organisation called the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS).
Each sort of healthcare coverage that a Medicare beneficiary has is referred to as a "payer" when they do so. It is possible to tell when Medicare is the secondary payer using a number of techniques and tools, which helps to verify that claims are paid properly.
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a patient with a herpes simplex infection is to receive acyclovir 325mg. the medication is provided by the pharmacy as 325mg/50ml 0.9% sodium chloride. the medication should be infused over 1 hour every 8 hours using a volumetric infusion pump. the tubing drop factor is 20 gtt/ml. the nurse should set the pump at what rate in ml per hour? round your answer to the nearest one tenth of a ml/hour.
The nurse should set the pump at 50 ml/hr.
Desired dose(D) = 325 mg.
Dose in hand (H) = 325 mg.
Quantity (Q) = 50 ml.
As per above formula, Rate(ml/hr) = Volume(ml) /Time(hr).
Volume(ml) of drug required = D/H * Q
= 325/325 * 50
= 1 * 50
= 50 ml.
Time(hr) = 1 hr.
So
Rate(ml/hr) = 50 ml/hr.
The herpes simplex virus causes a viral infection known as herpes simplex. Infections are classified according to the part of the body that is infected. The face or mouth are affected by oral herpes. It can cause small blisters in groups known as cold sores or fever blisters, or it can simply cause a sore throat.
Genital herpes, also known as herpes simplex, affects the genitalia. It can cause minor symptoms or blisters that break open and cause small ulcers. These usually heal in two to four weeks. Before the blisters appear, you may experience tingling or shooting pains. Herpes is characterized by periods of active disease followed by periods of no symptoms. The frequency and severity of active disease episodes decrease over time.
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which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead squat assessment
Abductor static stretch mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the exercise squat assessment.
Exercise is a sort of physical activity that enhances or maintains both physical fitness and overall health and wellness. It is done for a variety of reasons, including to improve athletic prowess, support strength and growth, develop the muscles and cardiovascular system, lose or maintain weight, improve health, or just for enjoyment. Since exercising outside enables people to socialize, form groups, and enhance their physical and emotional well-being, many people prefer to do so. Depending on the goal, the type of exercise, and the age of the person, a certain quantity of exercise is recommended for health advantages. Any form of exercise is better for you than no exercise at all.
The complete question is:
which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead exercise squat assessment?
a. Abductor static stretch
b. Adductor static stretch
c. Piriformis foam roller
d. Psoas foam roller
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an orthodox jewish pregnant woman comes to the labor and birth suite with her birth attendant. her partner is also present in the room. the woman is about to give birth when the nurse observes the partner move to the head of the bed outside the view of the birth. the nurse interprets this action as:
According to the condition of the question, the nurse interprets this action as the reflection of the couple's religious beliefs and practices.
What is the major responsibility of the nurse to pregnant women?The prenatal nurse monitors the health status of the mother and fetus, provides emotional support, and teaches the pregnant woman and her family about physiological and psychological changes during pregnancy, fetal development, labor and childbirth, and care for the newborn.
According to the context of this question, when a woman is about to give birth when the nurse observes the partner move to the head of the bed outside the view of the birth. This demonstrates the reflection of the couple's religious beliefs and practices towards their same culture and emotions.
Therefore, the nurse interprets this action as a reflection of the couple's religious beliefs and practices.
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a child is brought into the emergency department with a severe asthmatic episode by the grandparents who are caring for the child over the weekend while the parents are away. what is the legal consideration(s) for the health care team? select all that apply.
A child is brought into the emergency department with a severe asthmatic episode by the grandparents who are caring for the child over the weekend while the parents are away therefore the legal consideration for the health care team is to offer the required medical treatment and save the life of the child and is denoted as option B.
What is Healthcare?This is referred to as the various forms of efforts which are made to maintain or restore physical, mental, or emotional well-being by trained professionals such as Doctors etc.
Under the law, children are entitled to protection and appropriate medical treatment despite their parents' religious views or in their absence which is why offering the required care is legal and is the appropriate and right thing to do in this type of scenario.
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The options are:
suspend treatment until parents arrive.continue with the treatment.allow the child to die.a client with a spinal cord injury is to receive methylprednisolone sodium succinate 100 mg intravenously twice a day. the medication is supplied in vials containing 125 mg per 2 ml. how many ml will constitute the correct dose? enter the correct number only.
The correct dose maybe 1.6 ml. Use of high-dose methylprednisolone within eight hours of acute closed spinal cord injury as a therapy standard or as a treatment is not supported by enough research.
Within eight hours of a closed spinal cord injury, a bolus intravenous infusion of methylprednisolone at a dose of 30 mg per kilogram of body weight administered over fifteen minutes, followed 45 minutes later by an infusion of 5.4 mg per kilogram of body weight administered every hour for 23 hours, is the only course of treatment for which there is only weak clinical evidence (Level I- to II-1). If methylprednisolone infusion is chosen as a therapy option, there is not enough evidence to justify continuing it past 23 hours.
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you are called to a 'patient down' at a private residence. as you get inside and into the back bedroom, you can see that there is a woman face down and motionless. she does not appear to be conscious and there is a pool of saliva next to her head. your partner maintains spinal precautions as you roll her onto her back. the husband states that she has a history of heart problems, takes a lot of medications, and has no allergies. what would you do next?
Ensure there is no carotid pulse before starting CPR.
Fat deposits (plaques) obstruct the blood vessels that provide blood to your brain and head, causing carotid artery disease (carotid arteries). The obstruction raises your risk of having a stroke, a major medical emergency that happens when the blood supply to the brain is cut off or significantly diminished.
When the heart stops beating, CPR, or cardiopulmonary resuscitation, is a life-saving emergency operation. After cardiac arrest, immediate CPR can increase survival rates by a factor of two to three.
Maintaining blood flow, even if just partially, increases the chance of a successful resuscitation once trained medical personnel arrive on the scene.
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1. A medical order states that a patient is to receive 500 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV over two
hours. How fast is the IV running in ml/hr?
Hello,
I hope you and your family are doing well!
To find the rate at which the IV is running in ml/hr, you can use the formula:
rate = volume/time
In this case, the volume of the IV is 500 mL and the time it is to be infused is 2 hours. Substituting these values into the formula gives us:
rate = 500 mL / 2 hours = 250 mL/hr
Therefore, the IV is running at a rate of 250 mL/hr.
Please rate this answer 5 stars and brainliest if you find it helpful!
Best,
morphine is ordered to infuse at 3mg/hr. the medication is prepared with 60mg of morphine in 250ml of fluid. at what rate should your pump be set
12.5 ml/hr is the right answer. The dosage of morphine to be infused is 3 mg/hr. 250 cc of liquid and 60 milligrammes of morphine are used to produce the medicine. 12.5 ml per hour should be the setting for your pump.
[tex]X mL/hr = 250mL/60 mg x 3 mg/hr= 12.5 ml/hr[/tex]
If you only need to calculate the infusion rate, or the amount of medication to be infused every hour, divide the total volume in mL by the total number of hours the drug is to be infused over to get the rate in mL per hour. For intravenous delivery, it's crucial to administer morphine gradually over a period of 4 to 5 minutes while the patient is lying down. In adults and adolescents older than 12 years old, appropriate starting doses of morphine for continuous intravenous infusion are 1-2 mg per hour.
So, we can conclude that the correct response is 12.5 ml/hr. Your pump's setting should be 12.5 ml per hour.
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a client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv). after recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a desire to learn as much as possible about hiv and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids). when teaching the client about the immune system, the nurse states that humoral immunity is provided by which type of white blood cell?
According to the nurse, lymphocytes, a kind of white blood cell, are responsible for humoral immunity. regarding the immune system with the customer.
The two terms are not synonymous.The people who utilize a company's products or services are called users, as opposed to a certain kind of consumers who pay for the company's professional help. Contrary to what consumers often do, customers frequently purchase solutions.
What kind of a customer would you give as an example?An individual who makes purchases or pays for services is referred to as a customer. Clients might include businesses and other groups. The establishment of a relationship or agreement between buyers and sellers is typical.
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a client with breast cancer is being treated with cyclophosphamide. the nurse plans care, knowing that this medication fits which classification?
The classification is the Cell cycle phase nonspecific.
If breast cancer has spread to the lymph nodes your doctor may recommend chemotherapy. Year. Breast cancers that arise at a younger age may be more aggressive than cancers that arise later in life. Therefore, doctors may recommend that young breast cancer patients undergo chemotherapy.
Most women undergo surgery for breast cancer and many receive additional treatments such as chemotherapy, hormone therapy, and radiation after surgery. Chemotherapy may also be used before surgery in certain circumstances. First-line chemotherapy can successfully replace mastectomy with breast-conserving surgery. Adjuvant combination chemotherapy improves survival compared with no chemotherapy.
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the nurse is caring for a client receiving a combination of antineoplastic medications. the client asks the nurse why so many different medications are being used instead of just one medication. the nurse should explain what characteristics of combination therapy? select all that apply.
These characteristics of combination therapy as antineoplastic medications include the following:
Targets different phases of the cell cycle
Decreases the development of cell resistance. That is option B and C respectively.
What is antineoplastic medications?The antineoplastic medications are those drugs that are used for the treatment of various types of cancer.
Typical examples of antineoplastic medications include the following:
busulfan, melphalan, cyclophosphamide, dacarbazine, cytarabine, fluorouracil, carboplatinThe antineoplastic medications are grouped into the following classes such as:
alkylating agents, plant alkaloids, antimetabolites, anthracyclines, topoisomerase inhibitors and corticosteroidsThe combination of one or two classes of antineoplastic medications in the treatment of cancer is to target different phases of the cell cycle and decrease the development of cell resistance.
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Complete question:
The nurse is caring for a client receiving a combination of antineoplastic medications. The client asks the nurse why so many different medications are being used instead of just one medication. The nurse should explain what characteristics of combination therapy? Select all that apply.
Increases the quantity of each medication used
Targets different phases of the cell cycle
Decreases the development of cell resistance
Decreases the adverse effects of each medication
Prolongs the length of treatment
a patient presents to your dental office the day after her dental appointment complaining of swelling and itching on the right side of her face. you should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms are related to dental anesthesia. group of answer choices true false
You should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms related to dental anesthesia is False.
The reason local anesthetic concentrations are higher than injectables is to facilitate the diffusion of local anesthetic through mucous membranes. Neither local nor injectable anesthetics used in dentistry are natural vasoconstrictors.
Cetakaine Spray is the only FDA-approved local anesthetic for gag reflex inhibition. The dosage is one spray per second. The toxicity of local anesthetics usually occurs as a result of treatment error. Circumstances leading to toxicity include accidental intravenous or arterial injections and overdose of ingestion or topical formulations containing local anesthetics.
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with the transition to a greater prevalence of chronic diseases, physicians have increasingly had to take which approach to medical care?
With the transition to a greater prevalence of chronic diseases, physicians have increasingly had to take a "Whole Person" care approach to medical care.
The provision of physical, behavioral, emotional, and social services necessary to enhance care coordination, well-being, and health outcomes while respecting patients' treatment preferences is known as whole-person care. Whole-person care is the patient-centered optimal use of various healthcare resources.
Diet, exercise, leisure time, and sleep. Together, these pillars maintain the well-being of your body and mind.
In order to improve health outcomes and make better use of available resources, "Whole-Person Care" refers to the patient-centered coordination of social, behavioral, and health services.
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student study guide chapter 8: planning a diet for fitness and wellness 1. draw the mypyramid food guide and label the sections. 2. what are some disadvantages with eating fast foods? 3. list some healthy snack foods. 4. what should you look for when reading a food label? 5. what is the basal metabolic rate? 6. will taking vitamin supplements give you more energy? 7. what type of foods will give you the most energy for a longer period of time? 8. what types of liquids should you drink before, during, and after exercise?
Consume an abundance of fruits and vegetables. Select foods low in added sugars, saturated fats, and sodium. Choose whole grains, lean protein sources, and dairy products. Exercise all four types: endurance, strength, balance, and flexibility.
2. Obesity, insulin resistance, type 2 diabetes, and various cardiovascular conditions are examples of such risks. This is due to the high levels of sugar, salt, saturated fat, trans fats, processed ingredients, and calories in most fast foods. It is also low in antioxidants, fiber, and a variety of other nutrients.
3. Fruits and vegetables are excellent healthy snack options. They are high in vitamins while being low in calories and fat. Whole-wheat crackers and cheeses are also tasty snacks. Including healthy fats like olive oil, nuts, nut butter, or avocado can also help with satiety and blood sugar control. She recommends cereal with milk, yogurt, and fruit, as well as whole-grain crackers or toast with nut butter.
4. When reading the Nutrition Facts label, start with the number of servings in the package (servings per container) and the serving size. Total fat, saturated fat, sugar, and salt are the most important to consider. These are the "big four" that can affect our weight and blood pressure, increasing our risk of coronary heart disease and stroke.
5. The resting metabolic rate is typically measured in the morning before eating or exercising and after a full night's sleep. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the number of calories required to perform your body's most fundamental (basal) functions, such as breathing, circulation, and cell production.
6. Vitamins and minerals are substances that your body requires to produce energy, stay healthy, and function properly. It's best to get your vitamins from food to naturally maintain your day-to-day energy levels. Multivitamins can help with energy levels and overall well-being. Consult your healthcare provider to determine the best formula for your specific health needs.
7. Carbohydrates, particularly "complex" carbohydrates like fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, are the best fuel for exercise. Fish, nuts, vegetable oils, and avocados contain healthy fats that can help fuel endurance sports like long-distance running. Protein can help to rebuild an immune system that has been worn down by exercise.
8. Take 8 ounces of water. 20 to 30 minutes before starting your workout or during your warm-up. During exercise, drink 7 to 10 ounces of water every 10 to 20 minutes. Drink 8 ounces of water within 30 minutes of finishing your workout.
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a student who specializes in neurology in their doctorate of physical therapy program would be best equipped to work with which patient conditions? (choose all that apply)
A student who specializes in neurology in their doctorate of physical therapy program would be best equipped to work with patient diseases of the brain and spinal cord.
Neurology is that the branch of drugs coping with the identification and treatment of all classes of conditions and unwellness involving the brain, the medulla spinalis and also the peripheral nerves. medicine apply depends heavily on the sphere of neurobiology, the scientific study of the system.
Serious neurological disorders with diseases of the brain and spinal cord are learning disabilities, autism, cerebral palsy, ADD, epilepsy, spinal stenosis, tumors,degenerative disc disease, etc.
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the nurse is preparing to administer hepatitis b vaccine, recombinant (energix-b) 5 mcg im to a school-aged child. the vaccine is labeled, 10 mcg/ml. how many ml should the nurse administer?
Use ratio and proportion, 5 mcg : X ml :: 10 mcg : 1ml 10X = 5 X = 0.5 ml
Most people who are vaccinated with hepatitis B vaccine are immune for life. Hepatitis B vaccine is usually given as 2, 3, or 4 shots. Infants should get their first dose of hepatitis B vaccine at birth and will usually complete the series at 6–18 months of age.Hepatitis B vaccine is a vaccine that prevents hepatitis B. The first dose is recommended within 24 hours of birth with either two or three more doses given after that. This includes those with poor immune function such as from HIV/AIDS and those born premature.The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) recommends hepatitis B (HepB) vaccination among all adults aged 19–59 years and adults > 60 years with risk factors for hepatitis B or without identified risk factors but seeking protection.
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a patient is sent to a general surgeon by her family physician for an opinion and recommendation for surgical repair of a recurrent femoral hernia, right. a brief problem focused history and exam are performed. the mdm complexity was straightforward. what is the correct e/m service code?
The correct e/m service code is CPT Code: 99241
ICD-10-CM:
K41.91
A femoral hernia occurs when fatty tissue or a portion of your bowel protrudes through the top of your inner thigh into your groin. It pushes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle wall (abdominal wall) into an area called the femoral canal. Femoral hernias are generally not life-threatening medical conditions. Strangulation of the hernia can become life-threatening, however, and must be treated through emergency surgery.
Femoral hernias are frequently confused with inguinal hernias due to their proximity. Femoral hernias are relatively uncommon. If the hernia is not repaired, the intestine can become trapped inside. This is referred to as an incarcerated or strangulated hernia. It has the potential to cut off blood supply to the intestines.
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A nurse is caring for a client following arthroscopic knee surgery. To prevent postoperative complications, the nurse should have the client do which of the following?
A. Remain on bed rest for the first 24 hr
B. keep the leg in a dependent position
C. apply ice to the affected area
D. begin active range of motion
Answer:
B: Keep the leg in a dependent position
Explanation:
Keeping the leg in a dependent position will reduce swelling and help to prevent postoperative complications.
Generic medications __________. A. Are more expensive than the original versionb. Are designed to cause more side effects than the original versionc. Often won't help the conditiond. Include the same active ingredients as the original medication.
Answer:
Include the same active ingredients as the original medication.
Explanation:
Dietary supplements may be beneficial for
a. a pregnant woman
b. someone who is on a diet with restricted kilocalorie intake
c. an elderly man with pneumonia
d. a healthy college student
e. a,b, and c only
The correct option is (E) that is a, b and c only.
a. a pregnant woman
b. someone who is on a diet with restricted kilocalorie intake
c. an elderly man with pneumonia
All nutrients are important, but these six play a key role in your baby's growth and development during pregnancy:
Folic acid.Iron.Calcium.Vitamin D.DHA.Iodine.To learn more about pregnancy please visit here:
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at the clinic, little jake received an injection from the physician's assistant who was wearing a white coat. after that, every time he saw someone wearing white, he started to scream in fright. jake's white coat phobia was classically conditioned, the white coat being the .
Jake's white coat phobia was classically conditioned, the white coat being the conditioned stimulus (CS).
A conditioned stimulus (CS) is a stimulus that may eventually trigger a conditional reaction. Using the terminology of the conditioned stimulus (CS) , it is a learned stimulus that may eventually trigger a conditional reaction. as an example, the sound of a bell is that the stimulation in Pavlov's experiment, and therefore the dogs salivating would be the conditional reaction.
An injection is that the act of administering a liquid, particularly a drug, into an individual's body employing a needle and a syringe. An injection is taken into account a sort of canal drug administration; it doesn't involve absorption within the channel.
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which antibiotics may be administered topically? (select all that apply) group of answer choices ofloxacin daptomycin polymyxin b rifampin bacitracin
Both Bacitracin and Polymyxin B are antibiotics used topically. Rifampin, ofloxacin, and daptomycin are not designed to be applied topically.
A particular class of antimicrobial agent that works against bacteria is an antibiotic. Antibiotic drugs are frequently employed in the treatment and prevention of bacterial infections because they are the most effective type of antibacterial agent for doing so.
Bacteria are common, largely free-living creatures that frequently only have one biological cell. They make up a significant portion of the prokaryotic microbial kingdom. Bacteria, which are typically a few micrometers long and were among the first living forms to arise on Earth, are found in the majority of its habitats.
Bacteria may be killed or have their growth suppressed. Antibiotics frequently cause rash, nausea, dizziness, diarrhea, and yeast infections as side effects.
The most severe adverse effects include diarrhea caused by the Clostridioides difficile infection (commonly known as C. difficile or C. diff), which can cause severe colon damage and even death.
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which clinical manifestation would be most indicative of complete arterial obstruction in the lower extremities?
The most frequent cause of lower extremity chronic arterial occlusive disease is atherosclerosis.
Blood flow to the lower leg is decreased during activity or at rest due to artery blockage brought on by atherosclerosis. Exercise-induced discomfort in the affected limb that goes away with rest is known as intermittent claudication. The location of this pain is typically far from the artery obstruction or constriction. The discomfort of intermittent arterial claudication is primarily confined to the calf since the superficial femoral and popliteal arteries are the vessels that are most frequently damaged by atherosclerosis. The two iliac arteries' bifurcation and the distal aorta are the next most typical sites of involvement. Pain in the thighs or buttocks as well as in the legs may result from the narrowing of these arteries.
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The most frequent cause of lower extremity chronic arterial occlusive disease is atherosclerosis.
Blood flow to the lower leg is decreased during activity or at rest due to artery blockage brought on by atherosclerosis. Exercise-induced discomfort in the affected limb that goes away with rest is known as intermittent claudication. The location of this pain is typically far from the artery obstruction or constriction. The discomfort of intermittent arterial claudication is primarily confined to the calf since the superficial femoral and popliteal arteries are the vessels that are most frequently damaged by atherosclerosis. The two iliac arteries' bifurcation and the distal aorta are the next most typical sites of involvement. Pain in the thighs or buttocks as well as in the legs may result from the narrowing of these arteries.
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a healthcare provider has entered orders for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd). which order should the nurse question?
The order the nurse should question for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is Oxygen increased to 3 L/minute if oxygen saturation is less than 94% on room air, option 4.
What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or COPD, is a group of diseases that cause airflow obstruction and breathing difficulties. Emphysema and chronic bronchitis are examples. COPD makes it harder to breathe for the 16 million Americans who have it.
COPD patients retain CO2, the normal trigger for respiratory rate. In clients with COPD and high levels of CO2, oxygen levels trigger breathing. When the body receives too much oxygen, it slows its breathing. When given extremely high levels of oxygen, patients with COPD may stop breathing completely (greater than 2 L).
The full question is:
A healthcare provider has entered orders for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following orders should the nurse question?
1. Albuterol nebulizer treatments every 4 hours as needed
2. Keep head of bed elevated 30-45°
3. Oxygen via nasal canula at 2 L/minute
4. Oxygen increased to 3 L/minute if oxygen saturation is less than 94% on room air
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a client who is in rehabilitation following a cerebrovascular accident (or brain attack) is experiencing total hemiplegia of the dominant right side. the nurse finds that the client needs assistance with eating to ensure optimum nutrition. which action is most important for the nurse to take to facilitate rehabilitation with eating?
Answer:
The most important action for the nurse to take to facilitate rehabilitation with eating for a client who is experiencing total hemiplegia of the dominant right side following a cerebrovascular accident is to assess the client's swallowing function. This is important because individuals with hemiplegia often have difficulty swallowing, which can lead to malnutrition and other complications. The nurse can assess the client's swallowing function by performing a swallowing evaluation, which typically involves observing the client while they eat and drink to identify any problems with swallowing. Based on the results of the evaluation, the nurse can recommend appropriate interventions to improve the client's swallowing function and ensure that they are able to eat and drink safely and optimally.
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Explanation:
the nurse is presenting a seminar to expectant teen parents regarding infant car seat safety. what statement from a teen parent indicates to the nurse that teaching was successful?
The statement from a teen parent that indicates to the nurse that teaching was successful is "An infant must stay in the backseat, facing backward, till at least a year old."
The nurse is searching for a press release that indicates the teenager parents perceive the right use of babe automotive seats. Though there ar some variations from state to state, the National Safety Council advises that infants ought to be in an exceedingly rear-facing seat within the back seat of a vehicle till a minimum of age one year. This comment indicates the fogeys perceive the teaching clearly.
Infants are often thought of kids anyplace from birth to one year recent. Baby are often accustomed consult with any kid from birth to age four years recent, therefore encompassing newborns, infants, and toddlers.
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