A moderate wind accelerates a pebble over a horizontal xy plane with a constant acceleration a with arrow = (4.60 m/s2)i hat + (7.00 m/s2)j. At time t = 0, the velocity is (4.3 m/s)i hat. What are magnitude and angle of its velocity when it has been displaced by 11.0 m parallel to the x axis?

Answer:

you will get huge electricity bills ............

Explanation:

a) photovoltaic cell is a semiconductor device and it converts light energy to electrical energy

b) burning of coal converts chemical energy to heat energy

c) rubbing of both hands against each other converts mechanical to heat energy

Answer:

a. solar cells

b.coal,wood,petroleum

c.rubbing ours palms

Answer:

angular acceleration.

Explanation:

Newton's law of universal gravitation states that the force of attraction (gravity) acting between the Earth and all physical objects is directly proportional to the Earth's mass, directly proportional to the physical object's mass and inversely proportional to the square of the distance separating the Earth's center and that physical object.

Generally, when a rigid body is made to rotate about a fixed axis, all the points in the body would typically have the same angular acceleration, angular displacement, and angular speed.

Answer:

140m east

Explanation:

If East is positive then lets rephrase the problem into integers

A truck moves +70 m, then moves -120m, and finally moves +90m.

So totally Displacement = +70-120+90= +140m

Since east is positive, the trucks resultant displacement is 140 m east of origin

Answer:

T1 = 499.9N, T2 = 865.8N, T3 = 1000N

Explanation:

To find the tensions we need to find the vertical and horizontal components of T1 and T2

T1x = T1 cos60⁰, T1y = T1 sin60⁰

Also, T2x = T2 cos30⁰, T2y = T2 sin30⁰

For the forces to be in equilibrium,

the sum of vertical forces must be zero and the sum of horizontal forces must also be zero

Sum of Fx = 0

That is, T1x - T2x=0

NB: T2x is being subtracted because T1x and T2x are in opposite directions

T1 cos60⁰ - T2 cos30⁰ = 0

0.866T1 - 0.5T2 = 0 ............ (1)

Sum of Fy = 0

T1y + T2y - 1000 = 0

T1 sin60⁰ + T2 sin30⁰ - 1000 = 0

NB: The weight of the bag of cement is also being subtracted because it's in an opposite direction.

0.5T1 - 0.866T2 - 1000 = 0 ........(2)

From (1)

make T1 the subject

T1 = 0.5T2/0.866

Substitute T1 into (2)

0.5 (0.5T2/0.866) - 0.866T2 = 1000

(0.25/0.866)T2 - 0.866T2 = 1000

0.289T2 - 0.866T2 = 1000

1.155T2 = 1000

T2 = 865.8N

Then T1 = 0.5 x 865.8 / 0.866

T1 = 499.9N

T3 = 1000N

NB: The weight of the bag is the Tension above the rope, which is T3

Answer:

The work done will be "0.45 J".

Explanation:

Given:

K = 40 N/m

x₁ = 0.20 m

x₂ = 0.25 m

Now,

The required work done will be:

= [tex]\frac{1}{2}k[x_2^2-x_1][/tex]

By putting the values, we get

= [tex]\frac{40}{2}[(0.25)^2-(0.20)^2][/tex]

= [tex]20\times 0.0225[/tex]

= [tex]0.45 \ J[/tex]

Answer:

Because gas contains free molecules but not liquid.

Please mark as brainliast

The free body diagram for the block of mass M consists of four forces:

• the block's weight, Mg, pointing downward

• the normal force of the table pushing upward on the block, also with magnitude Mg

• kinetic friction with magnitude µMg = 0.2 Mg, pointing to the left

• tension of magnitude T pulling the block to the right

For the block of mass m, there are only two forces:

• its weight, mg, pulling downward

• tension T pulling upward

The m-block will pull the M-block toward the edge of the table, so we take the right direction to be positive for the M-block, and downward to be positive for the m-block.

Newton's second law gives us

T - 0.2Mg = Ma

mg - T = ma

where a is the acceleration of either block/the system. Adding these equations together eliminates T and we can solve for a :

mg - 0.2 Mg = (m + M) a

a = (m - 0.2M) / (m + M) g

a = 1.96 m/s²

Then the tension in the string is

T = m (g - a)

T = 78.4 N

Answer:

201.5537 mph

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Speed = 90.1 m/s

Speed can be defined as distance covered per unit time. Speed is a scalar quantity and as such it has magnitude but no direction.

Mathematically, speed is given by the formula;

Speed = distance/time

To convert this value into miles per hour;

Conversion;

1 meter = 0.000621 mile

90.1 meters = 90.1 * 0.000621 = 0.05595 miles

1 metre per second = 2.237 miles per hour

90.1 meters per seconds = 90.1 * 2.237 = 201.5537 miles per hour

90.1 m/s = 201.5537 mph

Answer:

The simplified expression is  3.833 x 10⁷ g

Explanation:

Given expression;

3.88 x 10⁷ g  -  4.701 x 10⁵ g

The expression above is simplified as follows;

= (3.88 x 100 x 10⁵ )g  -  ( 4.701 x 10⁵) g

= (388 x 10⁵ )g -  ( 4.701 x 10⁵) g

= (388  - 4.701 ) x (10⁵ )g

= 383.299 x 10⁵ g

In standard form, the simplified expression can be expressed as;

= (3.83299 x 100 x 10⁵) g

= 3.83299 x 10⁷ g

= 3.833 x 10⁷ g

Therefore, the simplified expression is  3.833 x 10⁷ g

Answer:

A(3.56m)

Explanation:

We have a conservation of energy problem here as well. Potential energy is being converted into linear kinetic energy and rotational kinetic energy.

We are given ω= 4.27rad/s, so v = ωr, which is 6.832 m/s. Place your coordinate system at top of the hill so E initial is 0.

Ef= Ug+Klin+Krot= -mgh+1/2mv^2+1/2Iω^2

Since it is a solid uniform disk I= 1/2MR^2, so Krot will be 1/4Mv^2(r^2ω^2=  v^2).

Ef= -mgh+3/4mv^2

Since Ef=Ei=0

Mgh=3/4mv^2

gh=3/4v^2

h=0.75v^2/g

plug in givens to get h= 3.57m

Answer:

The collision takes a finite amount of time, during which the ball and bat are bending or being compressed

Explanation:

These two conditions can be ruled out on the fact that :The collision takes a finite amount of time, during which the ball and bat are bending or being compressed

The rule of energy is been broken here because during the collision of objects energy and momentum is conserved. i.e. the change in shape of the ball when hit by the bat should not be noticed because the compression and returning to normal shape happens instantaneously

Answer:

5.76 μC

Explanation:

The induce emf, ε = -ΔΦ/Δt where ΔΦ = change in magnetic flux = NAΔB where N = number of turns of coil = 1000, A = cross-sectional area of coil = πd²/4 where d = diameter of coil = 2 cm = 2 × 10⁻² m and ΔB = change in magnetic field strength = B' - B where B' = final magnetic field = 0 T and B = initial magnetic field strength = 0.011 T. So, ΔB = 0 T - 0.011 T = -0.011 T

So, ε = -ΔΦ/Δt

ε = -NAΔB/Δt

ε = -NAΔB/Δt

Also ε = iR where i = current and R = combined resistance of circular coil and galvanometer = 200 Ω + 400 Ω = 600 Ω (since they are in series)

So, iR = -NAΔB/Δt

iΔt = -NAΔB/R

Δq = -NAΔB/R where Δq = charge = iΔt

substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

Δq = -1000 × π(2 × 10⁻² m)²/4 × -0.011 T/600 Ω

Δq = -1000 × 4π × 10⁻⁴ m²/4 × -0.011 T/600 Ω

Δq = 0.011π × 10⁻¹ m²T/600 Ω

Δq = 0.03456 × 10⁻¹ m²T/600 Ω

Δq = 5.76 × 10⁻⁶ C

Δq = 5.76 μC

Answer:

[tex]F=208.83N[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Acceleration [tex]a=2.4m/s^2[/tex]

Force of Branch [tex]F=260N[/tex]

Generally the Newton's equation second law for Force is mathematically given by

 [tex]ma=F-mg[/tex]

 [tex]m=\frac{260}{2.4+9.8}[/tex]

 [tex]m=21.31kg[/tex]

Therefore

 [tex]F=mg[/tex]

 [tex]F=(21.31)(9.8)[/tex]

 [tex]F=208.83N[/tex]

Complete question is;

A point charge is positioned in the center of a hollow metallic shell of radius R. During four experiments the value of point charge and charge of the shell were respectively:

+5q; 0

-6q; +2q

+2q; -3q

-4q; +12q

Rank the results of experiments according to the charge on the inner surface of the shell, most positive first:

a. 2, 3, 1, 4

b. 1, 2, 3, 4

c. 2, 4, 3, 1

d. 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer:

c. 2, 4, 3, 1

Explanation:

In this question, we can say that;

q_in = q_b

Where;

q_in is the charge on the inner surface of the shell

q_b is the point charge on the shell.

Thus q_in = -q_b was written because, as the shell is conducting, it means that the electric field would have a value of zero and thus the radius inside will be zero.

Thus;

- For +5q; 0:

q_in = -(+5q)

q_in = -5q

- For -6q; +2q :

q_in = - (-6q)

q_in = +6q

- For +2q; -3q :

q_in = -(+2q)

q_in = -2q

- For -4q; +12q:

q_in = -(-4q)

q_in = +4q

Ranking the most positive to the least positive ones, we have;

+6q, +4q, -2q, -5q

This corresponds to options;

2, 4, 3, 1

Answer:

the natural length of the spring is 9 cm

Explanation:

let the natural length of the spring = L

For each of the work done, we set up an integral equation;

[tex]5.4 = \int\limits^{21-l}_{15-l} {kx} \, dx \\\\5.4 = [\frac{1}{2}kx^2 ]^{21-l}_{15-l}\\\\5.4 = \frac{k}{2} [(21-l)^2 - (15-l)^2]\\\\k = \frac{2(5.4)}{(21-l)^2 - (15-l)^2} \ \ \ -----(1)[/tex]

The second equation of work done is set up as follows;

[tex]9 = \int\limits^{27-l}_{21-l} {kx} \, dx \\\\9 = [\frac{1}{2}kx^2 ]^{27-l}_{21-l}\\\\9 = \frac{k}{2} [(27-l)^2 - (21-l)^2] \\\\k = \frac{2(9)}{(27-l)^2 - (21-l)^2} \ \ \ -----(2)[/tex]

solve equation (1) and equation (2) together;

[tex]\frac{2(9)}{(27-l)^2 - (21-l)^2} = \frac{2(5.4)}{(21-l)^2 - (15-l)^2}\\\\\frac{2(9)}{2(5.4)} = \frac{(27-l)^2 - (21-l)^2}{(21-l)^2 - (15-l)^2}\\\\\frac{9}{5.4} = \frac{(729 - 54l+ l^2) - (441-42l+ l^2)}{(441-42l+ l^2) - (225 -30l+ l^2)} \\\\\frac{9}{5.4 } = \frac{288-12l}{216-12l} \\\\\frac{9}{5.4 } =\frac{12}{12} (\frac{24-l}{18 -l})\\\\\frac{9}{5.4 } = \frac{24-l}{18 -l}\\\\9(18-l) = 5.4(24-l)\\\\162-9l = 129.6-5.4l\\\\162-129.6 = 9l - 5.4 l\\\\32.4 = 3.6 l\\\\l = \frac{32.4}{3.6} \\\\[/tex]

[tex]l = 9 \ cm[/tex]

Therefore, the natural length of the spring is 9 cm

Answer:

Explanation:

From the information given:

The motional emf can be computed by using the formula:

[tex]E = L^{\to}*(V^\to*\beta^{\to})[/tex]

[tex]E = L^{\to}*((x+y+z)*\beta^{\to})[/tex]

[tex]E = 0.50*((18\hat i+24 \hat j +72 \hat k )*0.0800)[/tex]

[tex]E = 0.50*((18*0.800)\hat k +0j+(72*0.080) \hat -i ))[/tex]

[tex]E = 0.50*((18*0.800)[/tex]

E = 0.72 volts

According to the question, suppose the wire segment was parallel, there will no be any emf induced since the magnetic field is present along the y-axis.

As such, for any motional emf should be induced, the magnetic field, length, and velocity are required to be perpendicular to one another .

Then the motional emf will be:

[tex]E = 0.50 \hat j *((18*0.800)\hat k -(72*0.080) \hat i ))[/tex]

E = 0 (zero)

Answer:

a)  U = 506 J, b)  U = 37.11 J, c) U = 0

Explanation:

The gravitational power energy is given by the expression

         U = m g (y -y₀)

In general, a reference system is set that allows the expression to be simplified, in this case let's assume the reference system at the child's lowest point, therefore y₀ = 0

Let's use trigonometry to find the child's height

          h = y = L - L cos θ

we substitute

           U = m g L (1 - cos θ)

a) when the chain is horizontal θ = 90 and cos 90 = 0

           U = mg L

weight and mass are related

            W = mg

            m = W / g

           U = 230 2.20

           U = 506 J

b) θ = 33.0º

           cos 33 = 0.83867

           U = 230 (1 - 0.83867)

           U = 37.11 J

c) in this case θ = 0 cos 0 = 1

            U = 0

Answer:

Yes sure, keep it going, and never give up because your dreams are so important

A) The exergy of the refrigerant at the initial and final states are :

B) The exergy destroyed during this process is : - 1048.4397 kJ

Given data :

Mass ( M )  = 5 kg

P1 = 0.7 Mpa = P2

T1 = 60°C = 333 k

To = 24°C = 297 k

P2 = 100 kPa

A) Determine the exergy at initial and final states

At initial state :

U = 274.01 kJ/Kg , V = 0.034875 m³/kg , S = 1.0256 KJ/kg.k

exergy ( Ф ) at initial state = M ( U + P₂V - T₀S )

                                           = 5 ( 274.01 + 100* 10³ * 0.034875 - 297 * 1.0256)

                                           ≈ - 135.5285 kJ

At final state  :

U = 84.44 kJ / kg , V = 0.0008261 m³/kg,  S = 0.31958 kJ/kg.k

exergy ( ( Ф ) at final state = M ( U + P₂V - T₀S )

                                             = -51.96 kJ

B) Determine the exergy destroyed

  exergy destroyed = To * M ( S2 - S1 )

                                 = 297 * 5 ( 0.31958 - 1.0256 )

                                 = - 1048.4397 KJ

Hence we can conclude that A) The exergy of the refrigerant at the initial and final states are : Initial state =  - 135.5285 kJ, Final state =  -51.96 kJ  and The exergy destroyed during this process is : - 1048.4397 kJ

Learn more about exergy : https://brainly.com/question/25534266

Answer:

Option (e)

Explanation:

A body executing SHM moves to and fro or back and forth  about its mean position.

When the particle is at mean position, its velocity is maximum and when it is at extreme position its velocity is zero.

So, when it is at maximum distance:

a.

The acceleration is maximum.

b.

The potential energy is maximum.

c.

The total mechanical energy is non zero.

d.

The kinetic energy is zero.

e. The speed is zero. Correct

Answer:

Answer is LC Cirenit (seres)

Answer:

self-indulgence of coil is the property by virtue of wich is tends to maintain magnatic flux link with it and opposed any any change in the flux inducing current in it

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

Specific heat capacity is an intensive property of a material. The specific heat of a material is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one unit mass m of material by one unit of temperature.

a) Temperature is inversely proportional to specific heat capacity. If the same amount of heat is applied to all three balls, the ball that will reach the highest temperature is the ball with the least specific heat capacity.

Hence lead will have the highest temperature since it has the least specific heat capacity.

b) The quantity of heat is directly proportional to the specific heat capacity. Hence if all balls experience the same temperature change, the ball that have the most energy will be that with the highest specific heat capacity.

Hence aluminum will have the most heat since it has the highest specific heat capacity.

Answer: I think its A or C I'm not sure though sorry.

Answer:

the final velocity of the ball is 4.87 m/s

the final velocity of the ping ball is 9.87 m/s

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the ball, m₁ = 4.65 kg

mass of the ping ball, m₂ = 0.06 kg

initial velocity of the ping ball, u₂ = 0

initial velocity of the ball, u₁ = 5 m/s

let the final velocity of the ball = v₁

let the final velocity of the ping ball, = v₂

Apply the principle of conservation of linear momentum for elastic collision;

m₁u₁  +  m₂u₂  = m₁v₁   +  m₂v₂

4.65(5)  +   0.06(0)   =   4.65v₁   +   0.06v₂

23.25 + 0 = 4.65v₁  +  0.06v₂

23.25 = 4.65v₁  +  0.06v₂  ------ (1)

Apply one-directional velocity equation;

u₁ + v₁ = u₂  +  v₂

5 + v₁ = 0  +  v₂

5 + v₁ = v₂

v₁ = v₂ - 5  -------- (2)

substitute equation (2) into (1)

23.25 = 4.65(v₂ - 5)  +  0.06v₂

23.25 = 4.65v₂  -  23.25   +   0.06v₂

46.5 = 4.71 v₂

v₂ = 46.5/4.71

v₂ = 9.87 m/s

v₁ = v₂ - 5

v₁ = 9.87 - 5

v₁ = 4.87 m/s

If an icy surface means no friction, then Newton's second law tells us the net forces on either block are

• m = 1 kg:

∑ F (parallel) = mg sin(45°) - T = ma … … … [1]

∑ F (perpendicular) = n - mg cos(45°) = 0

Notice that we're taking down-the-slope to be positive direction parallel to the surface.

• m = 0.4 kg:

∑ F (vertical) = T - mg = ma … … … [2]

Adding equations [1] and [2] eliminates T, so that

((1 kg) g sin(45°) - T ) + (T - (0.4 kg) g) = (1 kg + 0.4 kg) a

(1 kg) g sin(45°) - (0.4 kg) g = (1.4 kg) a

==>   a ≈ 2.15 m/s²

The fact that a is positive indicates that the 1-kg block is moving down the slope. We already found the acceleration is a ≈ 2.15 m/s², which means the net force on the block would be ∑ F = ma ≈ (1 kg) (2.15 m/s²) = 2.15 N directed down the slope.

Answer:

Riley's reasoning is correct

Explanation:

Her reasoning is correct because as the ball moves upwards, the acceleration due to gravity would be vertical and in downward position. Therefore at all points as the ball moves, the velocity of the ball is going to change in magnitude as well as in direction. given that the direction keeps changing at certain points, the angle made by the initial velocity just as the ball left the surface would also have to continuously change.

If Riley has to wait for this ball to move some inches before she uses the protractor to measure the angle, the angle of travel would have to change.

Therefore there is going to be discrepancies between the measured angle and the predicted angle. The predicted is the angle of velocity with the horizontal just as this ball moves from the surface.

Explanation:

Conservation of energy, principle of physics according to which the energy of interacting bodies or particles in a closed system remains constant

hope it is helpful to you