a tensile specimen with a 12mm initial diameter and 50mm gage length reaches maximum load at 90KN and fractures at 70KN

the minimum diameter at fracture is 10mm

determine the engineering stress at maximum load and the true fracture stress.

Answer:

hi = 7026.8  W/m^2.k

Explanation:

Given data :

pressure of saturated steam = 1.2 bar

Horizontal steel pipe : inside diameter = 0.620 , outside diameter = 0.750 inches

temperature of water at entry = 60°F

temperature of water at exit = 75°F

velocity of water = 6 ft/s

Calculate the Inside convective heat transfer coefficient ( hi )

mean temperature ( Tm ) = 60 + 75 / 2 = 67.5°F ≈ 292.877 K ≈ 19.727°C

next : find the properties of water at this temperature ( 19.727°C )

thermal conductivity = 0.598  w/m.k

density = 1000 kg/m^3

specific heat ( Cp ) = 4.18 KJ/kg.k

viscosity = 0.001 pa.s

velocity of water = 6 ft/s ≈ 1.8288 m/s

∴ Re ( Reynolds number ) = 28712.16

and Prandtl number ( Pr ) = (4180 * 0.001) / 0.598  = 6.989

finally to determine the inside convective heat transfer coefficient we will apply the Dittos - Bolter equation

hi = 7026.8 w/m^2.k

attached below is the remaining solution

Answer:

In the absence of dark energy, a flat universe expands forever but at a continually decelerating rate, with expansion asymptotically approaching zero; with dark energy, the expansion rate of the universe initially slows down, due to the effects of gravity, but eventually increases, and the ultimate fate of the universe ...

Explanation:

I think it goes on forever.

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

An evaporator along with  cold low pressure refrigerant absorbs heat from the air within the passenger compartment thereby supplying cool air for the occupants.

Hence, option B is correct

Answer:

The temperature after a long time will return to 15°C

Explanation:

Determine the temperature of the slab after a very long time

First we calculate the heat flow for m^2 area normal to the surface

= q / A = 650°c - 15°C / ( 1 / h  + L / K )

           = 635°c  / ( 1 / 220 + 0.1 / 110 )  = 116.416 kw/m^2

Total heat content in the slab is calculated as

= m* c * ΔT

= 8530 * A * 0.1 * 380 * ( 650 - 15 )

= 205828.9  kJ/m^2

The temperature will return to 15°C after a long time

Answer:

No,  it is not a periodic Signal

Explanation:

No,  it is not a periodic Signal

This signal is repeating itself with the fixed on and off values but the major point to note here is that is this signal repeating after a fixed length of time every time. No, such information is provided in the question and hence, this signal cannot be termed as periodic.

This question is incomplete, the missing image in uploaded along this answer below.

Answer:

The required stress is 200 Mpa

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

diameter D = 12 mm = 12 × 10⁻³ m

Length L = 188 mm = 188 × 10⁻³ m

Poisson's ratio v = 0.34

Reduction in diameter Δd = 0.0105 mm = 0.0105 × 10⁻³ m

The transverse strain will;

εˣ = Δd / D

εˣ = -0.0105 × 10⁻³ /  12 × 10⁻³ m

εˣ = -0.00088

The longitudinal strain will be;

[tex]E^z[/tex] = - ( εˣ  / v )

[tex]E^z[/tex] = - ( -0.00088  / 0.34 )

[tex]E^z[/tex] = - ( - 0.002588 )

[tex]E^z[/tex] = 0.0026

Now, Using the values for strain, we get the value of stress from the graph provided in the question, ( first image uploaded below.

From the graph, in the Second image;

The stress is 200 Mpa

Therefore, The required stress is 200 Mpa

Answer:

Weight of block is 191.424 Kg

Explanation:

The volume of rectangular block = [tex]1*0.6*0.4 = 0.24[/tex] cubic meter

1/5th of its volume being out of water which means water of volume nearly 4/5 th of the volume of rectangular block is replaced

Volume of replaced water = [tex]\frac{4}{5} * 0.24 = 0.192[/tex] cubic meter

Weight of replaced water = weight of rectangular block = [tex]0.192 * 997[/tex] Kg/M3

= 191.424 Kg

Answer:

Sin(angle)=0.1538

Angle=arcsine(0.1538)

Angle is 8.85 degrees

Explanation:

Firstly draw a diagram showing a triangle with the required angle, a hypotenuse of 130 ft and an opposite side of 20 ft.

The sine of the angle required uses the formula Opposite/Hypotenuse

(i am not sure sure)

Answer: Diagram associated with your question is attached below

5) B

6) C

Explanation:

5) The pin support at A allows ; Rotation about its central axis  

This is because pin supports does not allow the translation of its structural member in any direction i.e. y or x but only rotation about its axis

6)  The support at B does not allow displacement in y direction

This is because roller support allows displacement only in the direction that they are situated and in this case it is the x - direction

Answer:

[tex]\mathbf{G_m = 2.25}[/tex]

Explanation:

From the given information:

Let the weight of the mix in the air be = [tex]W_{ma}[/tex]

Let the weight of the mix in water be = [tex]W_{mw}[/tex]; &

the bulk specific gravity be = [tex]G_m[/tex]

SO;

[tex]W_{mw} = W_{ma} - v \delta _{w} --- (1)[/tex]

Also;

[tex]G_m = \dfrac{W_{mw}}{v \delta_w} --- (2)[/tex]

From (2), make[tex]v \delta_w[/tex] the subject:

[tex]v \delta_w = \dfrac{W_{ma}}{G_m}[/tex]

Now, equation (1) can be rewritten as:

[tex]W_{mw} = W_{ma} - \dfrac{W_{ma}}{G_m}[/tex]

[tex]G_m = \dfrac{W_{ma}}{W_{ma} - W_{mw}}[/tex]

Replacing the values;

[tex]G_m = \dfrac{1173.5}{1173.5 -652.5}[/tex]

[tex]G_m = \dfrac{1173.5}{521}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{G_m = 2.25}[/tex]

Answer:

the highest rate of heat transfer allowed is 0.9306 kW

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

Volume = 4L = 0.004 m³

V[tex]_f[/tex] = V[tex]_g[/tex] = 0.002 m³

Using Table ( saturated water - pressure table);

at pressure p = 175 kPa;

v[tex]_f[/tex] = 0.001057 m³/kg

v[tex]_g[/tex] = 1.0037 m³/kg

u[tex]_f[/tex] = 486.82 kJ/kg

u[tex]_g[/tex] 2524.5 kJ/kg

h[tex]_g[/tex] = 2700.2 kJ/kg

So the initial mass of the water;

m₁ = V[tex]_f[/tex]/v[tex]_f[/tex] + V[tex]_g[/tex]/v[tex]_g[/tex]

we substitute

m₁ = 0.002/0.001057  + 0.002/1.0037

m₁ = 1.89414 kg

Now, the final mass will be;

m₂ = V/v[tex]_g[/tex]

m₂ = 0.004 / 1.0037

m₂ = 0.003985 kg

Now, mass leaving the pressure cooker is;

m[tex]_{out[/tex] = m₁ - m₂

m[tex]_{out[/tex] = 1.89414  - 0.003985

m[tex]_{out[/tex] = 1.890155 kg

so, Initial internal energy will be;

U₁ = m[tex]_f[/tex]u[tex]_f[/tex] + m[tex]_g[/tex]u[tex]_g[/tex]

U₁ = (V[tex]_f[/tex]/v[tex]_f[/tex])u[tex]_f[/tex]  + (V[tex]_g[/tex]/v[tex]_g[/tex])u[tex]_g[/tex]

we substitute

U₁ = (0.002/0.001057)(486.82)  + (0.002/1.0037)(2524.5)

U₁ = 921.135288 + 5.030387

U₁ = 926.165675 kJ

Now, using Energy balance;

E[tex]_{in[/tex] -  E[tex]_{out[/tex] = ΔE[tex]_{sys[/tex]

QΔt - m[tex]_{out[/tex]h[tex]_{out[/tex] = m₂u₂ - U₁

QΔt - m[tex]_{out[/tex]h[tex]_g[/tex] = m₂u[tex]_g[/tex] - U₁

given that time = 75 min = 75 × 60s = 4500 sec

so we substitute

Q(4500) - ( 1.890155 × 2700.2 ) = ( 0.003985 × 2524.5 ) - 926.165675

Q(4500) - 5103.7965 = 10.06013 - 926.165675

Q(4500) = 10.06013 - 926.165675 + 5103.7965

Q(4500) = 4187.690955

Q = 4187.690955 / 4500

Q = 0.9306 kW

Therefore, the highest rate of heat transfer allowed is 0.9306 kW

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that:

diameter = 100 mm

initial temperature = 500 ° C

Conventional coefficient = 500 W/m^2 K

length  = 1 m

We obtain the following data from the tables A-1;

For the stainless steel of the rod [tex]\overline T = 548 \ K[/tex]

[tex]\rho = 7900 \ kg/m^3[/tex]

[tex]K = 19.0 \ W/mk \\ \\ C_p = 545 \ J/kg.K[/tex]

[tex]\alpha = 4.40 \times 10^{-6} \ m^2/s \\ \\ B_i = \dfrac{h(\rho/4)}{K} \\ \\ =0.657[/tex]

Here, we can't apply the lumped capacitance method, since Bi > 0.1

[tex]\theta_o = \dfrac{T_o-T_{\infty}}{T_i -T_\infty}} \\ \\ \theta_o = \dfrac{50-30}{500 -30}} \\ \\ \theta_o = 0.0426\\[/tex]

[tex]0.0426 = c_1 \ exp (- E^2_1 F_o_)\\ \\ \\ 0.0426 = 1.1382 \ exp (-10.9287)^2 \ f_o \\ \\ = f_o = \dfrac{In(0.0374)}{0.863} \\ \\ f_o = 3.81[/tex]

[tex]t_f = \dfrac{f_o r^2}{\alpha} \\ \\ t_f = \dfrac{3.81 \times (0.05)^2}{4.40 \times 10^{-6}} \\ \\ t_f= 2162.5 \\ \\ t_f = 36 mins[/tex]

However, on a single rod, the energy extracted is:

[tex]\theta = pcv (T_i - T_{\infty} )(1 - \dfrac{2 \theta}{c} J_1 (\zeta) ) \\ \\ = 7900 \\times 546 \times 0.007854 \times (500 -300) (1 - \dfrac{2 \times 0.0426}{1.3643}) \\ \\ \theta = 1.54 \times 10^7 \ J[/tex]

Hence, for centerline temperature at 50 °C;

The surface temperature is:

[tex]T(r_o,t) = T_{\infty} +(T_1 -T_{\infty}) \theta_o \ J_o(\zeta_1) \\ \\ = 30 + (500-30) \times 0.0426 \times 0.5386 \\ \\ \mathbf{T(r_o,t) = 41.69 ^0 \ C}[/tex]

Answer

a) 62 percent

b) 40 percent

Explanation:

Original diameter ( d[tex]_{i}[/tex] ) = 10.33 mm

Original Gauge length ( L[tex]_{i}[/tex] ) = 52.8 mm

diameter at point of fracture ( d[tex]_{f}[/tex] ) = 6.38 mm

New gauge length ( L[tex]_{f}[/tex] ) = 73.9 mm

Calculate ductility in terms of

a) percent reduction in area

percentage reduction = [ (A[tex]_{i}[/tex] - A[tex]_{f}[/tex] ) / A[tex]_{i}[/tex] ] * 100

A[tex]_{i}[/tex] ( initial area ) = π /4 di^2

= π /4 * ( 10.33 )^2 = 83.81 mm^2

A[tex]_{f}[/tex] ( final area ) = π /4 df^2

= π /4 ( 6.38)^2 = 31.97 mm^2

hence : %reduction = ( 83.81 - 31.97 ) / 83.81

= 0.62 = 62 percent

b ) percent elongation

percentage elongation = ( L[tex]_{f}[/tex] - L[tex]_{i}[/tex] ) / L[tex]_{i}[/tex]

= ( 73.9 - 52.8 ) / 52.8 = 0.40 = 40 percent

the picture is blank for me what does it say i can comment the answer plz mark brainlyist

Answer: Both technicians A and B

Explanation:

I took the pf test

Answer:

Hello your question is incomplete below is the complete question

Design a counter that counts the following sequence of 2-0-1-3 and repeat. Use the JK flip-flops given to you at the start of the semester. These values will be displayed on a seven-segment display like the one used in Lab 3

answer : attached below

Explanation:

Designing a counter that counts in a given sequence can be done using Logic gates that will be used to control the counter. we will design the counter using the 7 segment display

Note : The first Image is the segment display and the second image is the design of the counter

Answer:

The appropriate answer is "0.0043".

Explanation:

The given values is:

Error probability,

p = 0.01

Received digits,

n = 10

and,

[tex]x\sim Binomial[/tex]

As we know,

⇒  [tex]P(x)=\binom{n}{x}p^xq^{n-x}[/tex]

Now,

⇒  [tex]P(x >1) =1- \left \{ P(x=0)+P(x=1) \right \}[/tex]

⇒                 [tex]=1-\left \{\binom{10}{0}(0.01)^0(0.99)^{10-0}+\binom{10}{0}(0.01)^1(0.99)^{10-1} \right \}[/tex]

⇒                 [tex]=1-0.9957[/tex]

⇒                 [tex]=0.0043[/tex]

probably in it's chromosomes

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

Catalytic convertor with in the exhaust pipes of any vehicle converts harmful gases (such as hydrocarbons (HC), carbon monoxide (CO) and nitrogen oxides (NOx)) produced by combustion of fossil fuels (petrol, diesel etc.) into less harmful/toxic pollutants by acting as a catalyst for redox reaction. A catalytic convertor releases some mild gases from the exhaust like less harmful CO2, nitrogen and water vapour (steam)

Hence, option B is correct

Answer: its c

Explanation:

Answer:

CAD and a database

Explanation:

The correct answer is CAD and a database. When American Motors Corportation introduced the Jeep Cherokee, it implemented CAD to increase engineering productivity and combined that with a new communications system.

Answer:

57.14 N/mm2

Explanation:

Answer:

mass flow rate = 0.0534 kg/sec

velocity at exit = 29.34 m/sec

Explanation:

From the information given:

Inlet:

Temperature [tex]T_1 = -16^0\ C[/tex]

Quality [tex]x_1 = 0.2[/tex]

Outlet:

Temperature [tex]T_2 = -16^0 C[/tex]

Quality  [tex]x_2 = 1[/tex]

The following data were obtained at saturation properties of R134a at the temperature of -16° C

[tex]v_f= 0.7428 \times 10^{-3} \ m^3/kg \\ \\ v_g = 0.1247 \ m^3 /kg[/tex]

[tex]v_1 = v_f + x_1 ( vg - ( v_f)) \\ \\ v_1 = 0.7428 \times 10^{-3} + 0.2 (0.1247 -(0.7428 \times 10^{-3})) \\ \\ v_1 = 0.0255 \ m^3/kg \\ \\ \\ v_2 = v_g = 0.1247 \ m^3/kg[/tex]

[tex]m = \rho_1A_1v_1 = \rho_2A_2v_2 \\ \\ m = \dfrac{1}{0.0255} \times \dfrac{\pi}{4}\times (1.7 \times 10^{-2})^2\times 6 \\ \\ \mathbf{m = 0.0534 \ kg/sec}[/tex]

[tex]\rho_1A_1v_1 = \rho_2A_2v_2 \\ \\ A_1 =A_2 \\ \\ \rho_1v_1 = \rho_2v_2 \\ \\ \implies \dfrac{1}{0.0255} \times6 = \dfrac{1}{0.1247}\times (v_2)\\ \\ \\\mathbf{\\ v_2 = 29.34 \ m/sec}[/tex]

Answer: barries

Explanation:

Answer:

Which option identifies the step of the implementation phase represented in the following scenario?

A company in the gaming industry decides to integrate movement controls in its newest hardware release. It sends an online survey to interactive gamers to identify their highest priorities.

establishing a process and budget

using communication tools

building and assembling a team

setting up a change order process

Explanation:

#carryonml

Answer:

using communication tools

Explanation:

The correct answer is using communication tools. Communication tools such as online surveys help project teams identify customers’ wants and needs.

Answer:

A)

shear plane angle = 31.98°

shear strain = cot ( 31.98° ) + tan ( 31.98 - 10 )

B) shear strength = 7339.78

Explanation:

a) Determine the shear plane angle and shear strain

Given data :

Chip thickness before chip formation = 0.5 inches

Chip thickness after separation = 1.125 inches

rake angle ( ∝ ) = 10°  

shear plane angle : Tan ∅ = [tex]\frac{rcos\alpha }{1-sin\alpha }[/tex]    ----- ( 1 )

r = chip thickness ratio = 0.5 / 1.125 = 0.4444

back to equation 1 : Tan ∅ = ( 0.444 ) * cos 10 / 1 - sin 10

Tan ∅ = 0.4444 * 0.9848 / 1 - 0.1736  = 0.5296

hence ∅ = tan^-1 ( 0.5296 ) = 31.98°

shear strain :  R = cot ∅ + tan ( ∅ - ∝ ) ---------- ( 1 )

R = cot ( 31.98° ) + tan ( 31.98 - 10 )

  B) determine the shear strength of the material

cutting force = 1559 N

thrust force = 1271 N

width of cut ( diameter ) = 3.0 mm

shear strength = c + σ.tan ∅

c = cohesion force  = 1271 * 3  = 3813

σ = normal stress  = F / A = 1559 / π/4 * ( 0.5 )^2 = 1559 / 0.1963 = 7941.94

hence : shear strength of material = 3813 + 7941.94 * 0.6244 = 7339.78

Answer:

PERT Chart and GANTT Chart

As the project manager of a residential construction project, I will prefer the PERT chart to the GANTT chart because a PERT chart displays task dependencies unlike a Gantt chart.  With the PERT chart, the sequence of tasks is clearly mapped out.  Dependent tasks are carried out when other tasks that they depend on have been executed.

Explanation:

By definition, a Gantt chart is like a bar chart that lays out project tasks and timelines using bars.  On the other hand, a PERT chart follows a structure in the form of flow charts or network diagrams.  It displays all the project tasks in separate boxes.  The boxes are then connected with arrows which clearly show the task dependencies.

Answer: its c

Explanation:

Answer:

E

Explanation:

I have a big brain and I just took the test and got it correct.