Andrea and her friends love cake. Andrea has two cakes. Each of her friends is going to eat 2/3 of a cake. How many friends can Andrea serve cake to? Answer without units. *

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

That’s the answer (the pic)

Answer:

ok

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D. RS = DQ

Step-by-step explanation:

SSS = Side-side-side congruence criteria!

One is given, other is common, and we have RS=DQ

Answer/Step-by-step explanation:

According to the Side Side Side rule (SSS) Side RQ is congruent to side DS.

RQ ≅ DS.

This means that in order to complete the chart:

RS ≅ DQ

Answer:

I think it's consistent

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

X+Y+Z=180

115+23+Z=180

Z=180-115-23

Z=42°

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = -4 , x = -1

Step-by-step explanation:

x² + 5x + 4 = 0

x² + 4x + x + 4 = 0

x ( x + 4 ) + x + 4 = 0

( x + 4 )( x + 1 ) = 0

i) x + 4 = 0

x = -4

ii) x + 1 = 0

x = -1

Answer:

It's C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Stephanie sprinted 550 yards.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

Stephanie ran three sprints during practice.

Her first sprint was 175 yards, her second sprint was 150 yards, and her third sprint was 225 yards.

We need to find the total distance that Stephanie sprinted. It is simply equal to the sum of all above sprints.

Distance = 175 yards + 150 yards + 225 yards

= 550 yards

Hence, Stephanie sprinted 550 yards.

Answer:

A=50.27

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Through pythogoras theorem

a^2+b^2=c^2

20^2+16^2=c^2

c^2=400+256

c^2= 656

c= square root of 656

c=25.6 inches or 30 inches

Missing side 25.6 inches or 30 inches

c^2 = a^2 + b^2

c^2 = 16^2 + 20^2

c^2 = 256 + 400

c^2 = 656

Now, square root both sides to find the missing length of c or the hypontenuse.

Answer:

rko

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

styls clash baaaabyyy

Answer: 15 remainder 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a)i)1/16

ii)5/36

b)i)5/96

ii)20/69

Step-by-step explanation:

a) i) 6/24 =1/4

1/4*1/4=1/16

a)ii)8/24=1/3    10/24=5/12

1/3*5/12=5/36

b)i) 5/24*1/4=5/96

ii) 1/3*10/23=10/69

5/12*8/23=40/276=20/138=10/69

10/69+10/69=20/69

The probabilities are; 1/16, 5/36, 5/96 and 20/69

Probability is the branch of mathematics concerning numerical descriptions of how likely an event is to occur, or how likely it is that a proposition is true.

Given that, A bag contains 6 red, 8 black and 10 yellow identical beads, 2 beads are picked at random one after the other.

a) With replacement:

i) The probability that both will be red =

6/24 =1/4

1/4x1/4=1/16

ii) The probability of getting one black and a yellow =

8/24=1/3    10/24=5/12

1/3x5/12=5/36

b) Without replacement;

i) The probability of getting both red =

5/24x1/4 = 5/96

ii) The probability of getting one black and a yellow =

1/3x10/23 = 10/69

5/12x8/23 = 40/276 = 20/138 = 10/69

10/69+10/69 = 20/69

Hence, The probabilities are; 1/16, 5/36, 5/96 and 20/69

For more references on probability, click;

https://brainly.com/question/11234923

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Answer:

180 pages in 2 hours

225 pages in 150 minutes

210 pages in 2 hours 20 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

135 pages : 90 minutes

= 135/90

= 3/2

= 3 : 2

180 pages : 2 hours

180 pages : 120 minutes

= 180/120

= 3/2

= 3:2

60 pages : 30 minutes

= 60/30

= 2/1

= 2:1

108 pages : 2 1/2 hours

108 pages : 180 minutes

= 108/180

= 18/30

= 3/5

= 3:5

150 pages : 1 hour

150 : 60

= 150/60

= 10/6

= 5/3

= 5:3

225 pages : 150 minutes

= 225/150

= 9/6

= 3/2

= 3:2

210 pages : 2 hours 20 minutes

210 pages : 140 minutes

= 210/140

= 3/2

= 3:2

Answer:

option a

Step-by-step explanation:

alternate exterior angle theorem

Answer:

The factorized form of the function is 6 (1 - 2x)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given function;

6 - 12x

This function can be factorized as follows by using common factor of 6 and 12, which is 6;

6 - 12x = 6 (1 - 2x)

Thus, the factorized form of the function is 6 (1 - 2x)

Answer:

19

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i think its c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

poop

Step-by-step explanation:

poop

Answer:

n = 0.75

1 : 0.75

Step-by-step explanation:

To get from 8 to 1, you have to divide by 8. You do that to the number 6.

6/8 = 3/4 = 75/100.

Therefore, n = 0.75.

Answer:

17/33

Step-by-step explanation:

The repeating decimal [tex]$0.\overline{51}$[/tex] is equal to [tex]$\boxed{\frac{17}{33}}$[/tex].

A fraction is a component of a whole. Mathematically, the number is expressed as a quotient, where the numerator and denominator are divided. In a simple fraction, both are integers. In a complex fraction, a fraction can be found in either the numerator or the denominator. A suitable fraction has a numerator that is smaller than its denominator.

Let [tex]$x = 0.\overline{51}$[/tex]. Multiplying both sides of this equation by 100 gives,

[tex]$100x = 51.\overline{51}\\[/tex]. Subtracting the first equation from the second equation eliminates the repeating decimal,

giving:

[tex]\begin1100x - x &= 51.\overline{51} - 0.\overline{51}\\ \99x &= 51 \\\ \\end[/tex]

x = 51/99

Therefore, the repeating decimal [tex]$0.\overline{51}$[/tex] is equal to [tex]$\boxed{\frac{17}{33}}$[/tex].

Learn more about fractions here:

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Answer:

9/4

Step-by-step explanation:

2 1/4 = 9/4 From mixed fraction to an improper fraction: "the numerator of the improper fraction" = "denominator" xx "the whole number" + "the numerator of the mixed fraction" The denominator remains as it is. So 2 1/4 = (4 xx 2 + 1)/4 = 9/4

Answer:

9/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the denominator which is 4 by the whole number which is 2.

4 x 2 = 8

Next add the numerator to the 8.

8 + 1 = 9

The 9 is now the numerator and keep the original denominator.

9/4

The answer would just be 1

Hey there!

The answer to your question is [tex]1[/tex].

Let us start by dividing:

[tex]\frac{54}{-6} = -9[/tex]

Now, we do [tex]10 + -9[/tex], which is [tex]1[/tex].

Hope it helps and have a terrific day!!!

Answer:

X=-2

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

4(4x−4)+x+4=−46

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

4(4x−4)+x+4=−46

(4)(4x)+(4)(−4)+x+4=−46(Distribute)

16x+−16+x+4=−46

(16x+x)+(−16+4)=−46(Combine Like Terms)

17x+−12=−46

17x−12=−46

Step 2: Add 12 to both sides.

17x−12+12=−46+12

17x=−34

Step 3: Divide both sides by 17.

17x

17

=

−34

17

x=−2

Answer:

x=−2

Answer:

x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!! If you need step by step I'll comment it in the comments.

Answer:

9 pieces of candy.

Step-by-step explanation:

The information about how many boys there are is irrelevant, so we can just ignore that.

The important information is that the teacher has 396 pieces of candy and that it is split between 44 students equally.

So, to solve, we just do 396 / 44 = 9.

Therefore, each student will get 9 pieces of candy.

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

you can set up a proportion for it (i included a picture of it)

Answer:

I am just doing this to confirm the other person is right. It is 9.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-10

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps

Answer:

blue point value is -10

Step-by-step explanation:

First lets find the difference between each point on the line,

The gap between 10 and 2 has 2 points

So 10 - 2 = 8 is the difference in value between point A(10) and point C(2), but we need to find difference between each point,

So 8/2 = 4 is the difference between each point from top to bottom.

There is 3 points after 2 to reach blue,

So 4 x 3 = 12, is the difference in value between point C(2) and point blue,

So, subtracting 12 from 2 will get us the value of blue, 2 - 12 = -10

Therefore the value of blue point is -10

Happy to help :)

Answer:

p=23

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

P=23

Step-by-step explanation:

38-15=23

p=23

Hope this helps

Have a great day!