Answer:
Ethiopians would have the lowest incidence of folate deficiency
the best fluid replacement during a 45 minute exercise session, is: group of answer choices any caffeine free soft drink sports drink cool water non-fat milk
Caffeine is the best fluid replacement during a 45 minute exercise session.
Trimethylxanthine (1,3,7) is the chemical name for the bitter white powder known as caffeine. Within 45 minutes of consumption, caffeine is absorbed, and its blood levels peak between 15 and 2 hours later which is good fluid for exercise. Coffee, tea, and soda all contain caffeine, which is readily absorbed in the gut and dissolves in both water and fat molecules in the body. It has the ability to enter the brain. Food or food-related substances, such as fibres, can slow down the rate at which caffeine levels in the blood peak. A quicker energy boost could result from sipping your morning coffee on an empty stomach as opposed to after eating breakfast.To know more about Caffeine check the below link:
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Who among the following individuals is most likely to be susceptible to occupational health hazards?a. Rose, who has to climb a set of metal steps to enter her officeb. Sally, who works in a manufacturing company where equipment is arranged in a random mannerc. Robert, who has a congested workstationd. Edwin, who works for a company that manufactures insecticides
Edwin, who works for a company that manufactures insecticides. - is most likely to be susceptible to occupational health hazards.
What is health hazard?
Environmental factors that are chemical, physical, or biological that have the potential to negatively impact our health in the short- or long-term are referred to as health risks. The three ways that humans can be exposed are by touch, inhalation, and ingestion. We can take action to lessen or completely remove the threats by being aware of their potential repercussions.
Any substance or chemical that could be detrimental to individuals if they were exposed to it is considered a health hazard in the context of occupational health and safety.
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juan's friends ask them to participate in some activities with them. juan feels pressure to join them, even though the activities might not be in his best interest. which of these reasons might not be strengthening juan's conformity to the group?
His friends sometimes make him feel incompetent. He admires the group's status. His culture strongly encourages respect for social standards.
What is the meaning social standards?It is a rule, principle, or norm that all members of a social group adhere to and that specifies acceptable, desired, or proper attitudes and behaviour in matters pertaining to the group.Social norms may be unwritten rules and laws or they may be formalised understandings that direct how people of a society behave. A "social contract" called norms underpins a group's cooperative efforts. Having specific group norms that everyone can see can give you a framework for dealing with behaviour that might be getting in the way of your goals.In the social sciences, norms are a key idea. They are most frequently described as socially enforced expectations or rules. Both prescriptive and proscriptive norms exist.To learn more about social norms refer :
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which of the following statements best encapsulates the relationship between stress and physical illness according to psychoneuroimmunologists?
Stress compromises the body's immune system, leaving a person vulnerable to illness.
What is psychoneuroimmunology and how does it work?Psychneuroimmunology, nervine tonics, and adrenal supplementsThe study of interactions between the immune system, the autonomic and endrocrine systems, and the central nervous system, or psychoneuroimmunology, shows that conditions like stress, anxiety, insomnia, and other nervous conditions that are widespread in today's society may all have a negative impact on immune function. Although epidemiological evidence has long suggested a connection between life stress and a higher risk of infectious and inflammatory disease,135 it has only lately been clear how this association is made. It's believed that the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis hormones are what cause the impact.To learn more about psychoneuroimmunology, refer to
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what is the primary reason most older people have trouble detecting odors?
Most older people struggle to perceive odors mostly because as they age, their number of taste buds decreases.
What makes odor detection difficult?Those who could not identify at least four out of five common odors were more than twice as likely to acquire dementia within five years as those with a normal sense of smell, according to a lengthy study of over 3,000 adults, aged 57 to 85.
Although 78 percent of those tested showed normal behavior, correctly naming at least four out of five scents, about 14 percent could only name three out of five scents, five percent could only name two odor, two percent could only name one scent, and one percent of the study subjects were unable to name any scents at all.
There was a dose-dependent correlation between the degree of scent loss and the occurrence of dementia five years following the initial test.
Dementia – what is it?The frontal lobe's prefrontal cortex is a component of the brain that is located there. It controls a wide range of intricate behaviors, influencing how people make plans and decisions and having a significant impact on how people become who they are as people. The body's limbic system includes the hippocampus, which is situated in the medial temporal lobe.
Exercise also enhances prefrontal cortex-controlled abilities such as planning and decision-making. A low-impact sport that calls for quick thinking and planning, helps to improve the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex.
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studies have found that clients who believe their therapists appreciate their culture tend to have lower and better in their therapy.
According to studies, patients who feel that their therapists understand their culture tend to have lower dropout rates and better therapeutic outcomes.
Why do clients drop out of therapy?Studies show that patients who believe their therapists are familiar with their culture had lower dropout rates and more successful treatment outcomes.The authors list a few causes of patient attrition:They have unreasonably high expectations, are unwilling to share personal information, can't agree with the therapist about the nature of the issue, and just don't get along with or have faith in the therapist.When clients are enthusiastic and dedicated to the therapeutic process, the best therapeutic results result.Treatment success also depends on the application of evidence-based practice and a strong therapeutic alliance between the patient and the therapist.To learn more about drop out of therapy refer to:
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which immunizations would the nurse expect a 5 month old infant to have already received?
Answer:
Diphtheria, tetanus, and whooping cough (pertussis) (DTaP) (3rd dose) Haemophilus influenzae type b disease (Hib) (3rd dose) Polio (IPV) (3rd dose) Pneumococcal disease (PCV) (3rd dose)
patient had mitral valve prolapse, and a mitral valve ring was inserted with cardiopulmonary bypass. this is reported with icd10cm code
The above statement "The code used for mitral valve prolapse is reported with ICD-10cm code" is true.
What is an ICD code?
International classification of diseases, tenth revision, clinical modification (ICD-10-CM) is a system of diagnosing codes representing health related problems and external cases of injuries.
ICD-10 code 134.1 is a medical classification to determine the diseases of the circulatory system as listed by the WHO.
What is mitral valve prolapse?
It is the disease of heart valve that affects the valves of left heart chambers. Mitral valve prolapse sometimes causes blood leaking backward across the valve.
Symptoms of mitral valve prolapse:
Racing or irregular heartbeat (arrhythmia)Dizziness or lightheadednessDifficulty breathing or shortness of breathFatigue.This disease can be treated with mitral valve repair because it saves the existing valve.
Hence, code ICD-10 134.1 is used in reporting the mitral valve prolapse.
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tell of the horrors accompanying the death penalty such as innocent people wrongly convicted, executions gone wrong, and the number of poor and minorities executed.
The main objections against the death sentence center on its cruelness, lack of deterrence, persistence of racial and economic prejudices, and irreversibility.
Explain about the death penalty?On the basis that society has a moral duty to ensure the security and wellbeing of its citizens, the death penalty is frequently defended. Murderers put this safety and welfare in danger. Society can only assure that convicted killers don't kill again by putting them to death.
The death penalty system in the United States blatantly flouts human rights law. Frequently, it is used arbitrarily and discriminatorily without providing essential due process rights. Additionally, the execution process and the conditions on death row have been criticized as brutal, barbaric, or even torture.The chance of executing an innocent person can never be completely eliminated, making execution the ultimate, irreversible punishment.
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along with eliminating cross-contamination and ensuring proper cooking and storing temperatures, personal hygiene is one of the most effective ways to prevent foodborne illness. identify the personal hygiene strategies that can be used to prevent foodborne illness. check all that apply. - Wash your hands before handling food
- Remove ringe or bracelets before handling food - Rinse hands under cool, running water
- Thoroughly wash utensils and countertops with soap and hot water
Hands should be thoroughly rinsed under warm, flowing water, and you should wash your hands after handling food.
Maintaining good personal hygiene is one of the simplest and most efficient ways to avoid contracting a foodborne illness. It is in fact the first fundamental guideline outlined in the U.S. Department of Agriculture's campaign to combat bacteria. The best practises include washing your hands completely both before and after handling food, taking off any jewellery before handling it, rinsing your hands under warm running water, and fully cleaning fruits and vegetables before eating.
A key element in preventing foodborne illness is cleanliness. Even with inspection and supervision of food safety at federal, state, and local government facilities, it is the responsibility of the consumer to ensure that food is handled safely after purchase. Food contact surfaces should be spotless.
Since bacteria are present almost everywhere, sanitation is crucial for preventing foodborne illness.
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What is the most common reason people seek mental health services?
a. Depression
b. Bipolar disorder
c. Posttraumatic stress disorder
d. Dissociative identity disorder
e. Illness anxiety disorder
Which of the following statements about basal metabolism is true?
It supports the work that goes on all the time
It is directly controlled by the hormone thyroxine
It accounts for the smallest component of the average person's daily energy expenditure.
both 1 and 2
both 2 and 3
Both 1 and 2 statements are true about basal metabolism.
What is basal metabolism?
Basal metabolism is the rate at which energy is used by the body while at rest to maintain vital bodily functions like breathing or staying warm.
Basically, basal metabolism refers to how our body burns calories even while resting by performing normal body functions. It is the minimum number of calories required while at rest for basic functions.
One way to estimate BMR is the Harris-Benedict formula. This formula takes height, weight, age and gender in account.
Women-
Basal metabolic rate (BMR)- 655 + (9.6 x weight (kg)) + (1.8 x height (cm)) – (4.7 x age)
Men-
Basal metabolic rate (BMR) = 66 + (13.7 × weight (kg)) + (5 × height (cm)) – (6.8 × age)
Therefore, Both 1 and 2 statements are true about basal metabolism.
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The oncology nurse is giving chemotherapy to a client in a short stay area. The client confides that they are very depressed. The nurse recognizes depression as which of the following?
A. An aberrant psychologic reaction to the chemotherapy.
B. A normal reaction to the diagnosis of cancer.
C. A psychiatric diagnosis everyone has at one time or another.
D. A side effect of the neoplastic drugs
The nurse recognizes depression as a normal reaction to the diagnosis of cancer. That is option B.
What is Cancer?Cancer is defined as the abnormal proliferation of body tissue cells which occurs due to the inability of the body to control the cell division.
There are various type of cancer the include the following:
Colorectal Cancer. Kidney Cancer. Lymphoma. Ovarian Cancer. andThyroid Cancer.The treatment of cancer requires the expertise of a professional known as the oncologist.
The various treatment plans which can be used by an oncologist include the following but depends on the type of cancer:
Biomarker Testing for Cancer Treatment. Chemotherapy. Hormone Therapy. Hyperthermia. Immunotherapy. Photodynamic Therapy. Radiation Therapy. Stem Cell Transplant.One of the psychological clinical manifestations observed in a cancer patient is depression which is the result of alteration in mood of the patient.
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When a client is counseled about the advantages of epidural anesthesia, which statement made by the counselor would indicate the need for further teaching?
a. "If you end up having a cesarean, the epidural can be used for anesthesia during surgery."
b. "You can continuously receive epidural anesthesia until you have the baby, and even afterward if you need it."
c. "You have no trouble walking around and using the bathroom after you receive the epidural."
d. "Epidural anesthesia is more effective than opioid analgesia in providing pain relief."
Following the epidural, you have no trouble moving around or using the restroom. Mobility is hampered by epidural anesthesia; most cases are put on bed rest after entering it.
What about epidural anesthesia?The most popular anesthetic for reducing pain during delivery is an epidural.Epidural anesthesia is constantly used as a volition to general anesthesia for operations on the legs or pelvis.lower nausea and vomiting, as well as a speedier recovery time, are benefits.Your croaker will give original anesthetic with a bitsy needle close to the position where they will put the epidural.This reduces the quantum of discomfort you witness when croakers implant the bigger than usual injection needle used for an epidural.Implicit adverse goods of an epidural include headache, soreness, urinary issues, and a drop in blood pressure.Despite the oddity of long- term consequences, they might lead to habitual impassiveness and unrecoverable whim-whams damage.There may be some chinking in your skin throughout this process, which might take many hours.Still, let the croaker or nanny know, If you have any pain. To help you control it, they can give you drugs.After entering an epidural, you should stay 24 hours before operating any ministry or drinking alcohol.The epidural is fitted , and after another 10 to 15 twinkles, there's conspicuous pain relief.The epidural procedure may take longer in people who are fat or have scoliosis.Learn more about epidural anesthesia here:
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a child who ate cream od broccoli soup and became ill now feels ill when it is served
The child most likely has a food allergy. An immune system reaction happens quickly after consuming a particular meal.
What is food allergy?
When the body's immune system reacts abnormally to a particular food, it is known as a food allergy. Allergy symptoms are frequently minor, but they can also be highly dangerous.
What are symptoms of food allergy?
1. having trouble swallowing
2. wheezing or breathing difficulties.
3. feeling lightheaded and dizzy.
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dsm-5 divides the symptoms of asd into two general domains:
Only social communication and confined, recurring patterns of behavior, hobbies, or activities are recognized as areas of impairment in the DSM-5, and all three items in this domain must be present.
What are the autistic spectrum disorder diagnostic standards according to DSM 5?Diagnostic Standards for Autism Spectrum Disorder A child must exhibit persistent deficits in each of the three components of social interaction and communication in order to meet the DSM-5's diagnostic standards for ASD.
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD): What is it?The word autism, often known as autism spectrum disorder (ASD), is used to refer to a variety of neurodevelopmental problems. Communication and social interaction patterns alter under certain settings. People with ASD frequently exhibit repetitive and constrained interests or behavioural patterns.
What signs or symptoms exist in autism?Typically, between the ages of 12 and 24 months, early childhood is when the symptoms of ASD first become distinctly noticeable. However, signs could possibly show up sooner or later.
A substantial delay in language or social development may be one of the earliest indicators.
The DSM-5 splits ASD symptoms into two groups:
communication and social interaction issues
restricted or consistent behavior patterns or activities
A person must exhibit symptoms in both of these categories in order to be given an autism diagnosis.
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1. The student wants to estimate the fall time for height 1. How should she do this?.
Calculate the average (0.608 s) Put the five times in order and choose the median, or middle number (0.60 s) Just report the first measurement (0.61 s) Report that the time is between 0.57 s and 0.68 s 2.
Using the formula s = (1/2)gt2 = 0.5 * 9.80665 * 82, we can find the free fall distance, which is 313.8 m. Using this calculator, you can also determine the time of fall if you know the height from which the object is falling but not its exact descent!
Each trial's longer time to fall is caused by the increasing displacement (height/distance). This can be shown by the subsequent equation. D = displacement (height/distance), vi = initial velocity, a = acceleration, and t = time are the variables in the equation d=vit+12at2.
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Apply your knowledge of bacterial pathogenesis and the symptoms of RMSF to predict the order of events that occur during RMSF.
A fever, headache, and rash are the most common symptoms of RMSF illness.
Explain about the RMSF?A tick bite from an infected animal can cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF), a bacterial illness. Antibiotic therapy can successfully treat RMSF. On the other hand, severe side effects, such as nerve damage, might develop if left untreated Loss of hearing.
Lyme illness and RMSF are similar Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Lyme disease are two distinct illnesses, despite the fact that they are both contracted by tick bites. The kind of bacteria responsible for the diseases makes the most difference.
Acute, sudden-onset disease with a day-by-day progression is RMSF. A tick bite or exposure should result in an incubation period of roughly 7 to 14 days. Even though non-febrile clinical consequences may linger, the illness typically lasts less than two weeks without treatment.
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Select the correct answer. In a sequence described by a function, what does the notation f(3) = 1 mean? A. The common difference of the sequence is 3. B. The first term in the sequence has a value of 3. C. The third term in the sequence has a value of 1. D. The common ratio of the sequence is 3.
The correction option is;
C. The third term in the sequence has a value of 1.
What is a function?Function, in mathematics, an expression, rule, or law that defines a relationship between one variable (the independent variable) and another variable (the dependent variable). Functions are ubiquitous in mathematics and are essential for formulating physical relationships in the sciences. The modern definition of function was first given in 1837 by the German mathematician Peter Dirichlet "If a variable y is so related to a variable x that whenever a numerical value is assigned to x, there is a rule according to which a unique value of y is determined, then y is said to be a function of the independent variable x".
The function f(3) = 1 means that the third term of the function equals 1.
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which of the following workout schedule would best describe daily undulating periodization for the squat?
Answer:
The workout schedule would best describe daily undultaing periodization for the squat is as follows-
1.Walk for 1.5 minutes on a treadmill at 3.0 mph with at least an 8% incline to warm up your hips, glutes, and hamstrings as well.
2.Stretching for 2.5 minutes. Stretch your entire body, including your upper body.
3. Squat the bar fifteen times. After this and every other warm-up set, take a minute to relax.
4. Squat for 10 reps with a small weight. By the tenth repetition, you shouldn't be failing.
5. Squat for 5 reps with a hefty weight. You should put in effort, but you also shouldn't fall short in this situation.
6. Aim for your first set of one reps, but make sure you can complete it.
7. If you are successful, try adding another 5–10 pounds. Till you fail the effort, keep repeating this procedure. Make sure you are on a squat rack and have a spotter. Between maximum tries, take two to three minutes to rest.
Explanation:
Training that uses an up-and-down pattern of volume and intensity throughout the course of the training cycle is known as undulating periodization. The volume and intensity vary from week to week according to weekly undulating periodization (WUP).
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a client is admiteed to the hopital with a diagnosis of liver disease and a liver biopsy performed. postop how often and how long would the nurse take the clietns
The nurse should take the clients vital signs for every 15 minutes for two hours is an appropriate frequency to take vital signs after a liver biopsy.
The risk of internal bleeding is highest immediately after the biopsy, diseases of liver result in impaired blood-clotting mechanisms. Every 30 minutes after a liver biopsy is too infrequent, two hours after the procedure vital signs can be taken every 30 minutes instead of every 15 minutes if they are stable. Every hour for 8 hours is too infrequent and unsafe if hemorrhage is to be detected before the shock occurs. Every 2 hours for 12 hours is too infrequent and unsafe if the hemorrhage is to be detected before shock occurs.learn more about liver biopsy at
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Antibodies _________. A.) are generalists in that any antibody can bind to any antigenB.) are produced by T cellsC.) assist in destroying particular antigensD.) are shaped like the letter B
Antibodies assist in destroying particular pathogens that have specific antigens
Antibodies are shielding proteins produced by your immune system. They attach to antigens (foreign substances) — including micro organism, fungi, viruses and pollutants — and take away them out of your body.
Antibodies are proteins that defend you when an unwanted substance enters your body. Produced with the aid of your immune system, antibodies bind to those undesirable substances as a way to do away with them from your system.another word for antibody is immunoglobulin.
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which of the following is NOT significantly affected by the menstrual cycle?
a. memory
b. sight
c. weight
d. anxiety
The statement that is not significantly affected by the menstrual cycle is:
memory.
So option A is correct.
What is menstrual cycle?The menstrual cycle is described as a series of natural changes in hormone production and the structures of the uterus and ovaries of the female reproductive system that make pregnancy possible.
Factors such as sight, weight and anxiety significantly affects the menstrual cycle.
A recent study finds that contrary to popular belief, having your period doesn't negatively affect your thinking and memory but Bloating, cramps and a sense of fatigue may be common for many women during their menstrual cycle.
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in one study, over half of women ages 18-25 would rather be _____ than be fat.
In one study, over half of women ages 18-25 would rather be slim than be fat.
What is age?Age is a significant fertility factor for women and has an impact on female fertility. A woman's fertility reaches its peak between her late teens and late 20s, at which point it gradually begins to diminish.
After few research have been done since the 19th century, it is unclear whether there is a more pronounced decline around around 35 as many sources suggest.
A 2004 research of European women indicated there was barely a 4% difference in fertility between the groups of women aged 27 to 34 and those aged 35 to 39.
Therefore, In one study, over half of women ages 18-25 would rather be slim than be fat.
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which of the following is not one of the five common areas of concern for all psychotherapies? group of answer choices a) disturbed thoughts b) biomedical disturbances c) disturbed emotions d) disturbed sleep
Disturbed sleep is not one of the five common areas of concern for all psychotherapies.
Psychotherapy, also known as "talk therapy," is a way to help people with a wide range of mental and emotional problems. Psychotherapy can help a person get rid of or control bothersome symptoms so they can function better, feel better, and heal faster.
Psychotherapy can help with problems like being unable to deal with day-to-day life, the effects of trauma, illness, or loss (like the death of a loved one), and mental disorders like depression or anxiety. There are different kinds of psychotherapy, and some may work better for certain problems or issues than others. Psychotherapy can be used with other therapies or medications.
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the nurse needs to carefully monitor a client with traumatic injuries. which action by the nurse demonstrates understanding of the most essential component of the client’s pain assessment?
The action of a Nurse demonstrates understanding by the administration of pain medication based on the client's reported pain level.
What are the different types of pain management?Pain management is a process that involves the different approaches to control pain like therapy, medication prescriptions and treatments. Physical therapies, psychological therapies and body techniques are the various methods of relieving pain.
Physical therapy includes exercise, massage etc., psychological therapies include mind therapy and meditations, while body technique include acupuncture. In hospitals, patient pain management is essential and usually indicated in their record charts. Nurses understand patient assessment and administers pain medication according to the client's needs.
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which statement is not true about using diet soda pop? responses it saves you about 120 calories per 8 oz serving. it saves you about 120 calories per 8 oz serving. it is a good low calorie substitute for milk. it is a good low calorie substitute for milk. it will decrease your intake of simple sugars. it will decrease your intake of simple sugars. artificial sweeteners in limited amounts are fine to use for most people.
The statement which is not true about using diet soda pop is that it is a good low calorie substitute for milk.
Low calorie means that forty calories or less per serving. Light or fatless means the food has tierce less calories, five hundredth less fat, or five hundredth less atomic number 11 than the food with that it's being compared, sometimes the full-calorie version of a similar food.
Milk is a white liquid food created by the exocrine gland glands of mammals. It's the first supply of nutrition for young mammals before they're ready to digest solid food. Immune factors and immune-modulating parts in milk contribute to take advantage of immunity. Milk is a wonderful supply of vitamins and minerals, together with “nutrients of concern,”
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In this unit, you learned about several human body systems, their organs and structures, their functions, and the disorders that can affect them. When working as a nurse aide, you’ll need to perform several physically challenging tasks. Discuss precautions that you and your coworkers can take to prevent musculoskeletal disorders.
The precautions that you and your coworkers can take to prevent musculoskeletal disorder include the following below;
Minimize twisting and bending motions.Use proper positioning during all activities.What is Precaution?This is referred to as the measure which is taken in advance in other to prevent something dangerous or unpleasant from happening. This is applicable according to the environment and tools which are being used.
Proper positioning should be adopted when performing all the activities and there should be assistance with heavy objects so as to reduce stress on the muscles and bones and eliminate the risk of twisting etc in the body system.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. Jamie and Scott did sit-ups, push-ups, and curl-ups, and then compared the information to find out who had better __________. A. endurance, using the calisthenic method B. strength, using the max 1 RPM method C. strength, using the absolute method D. endurance, using the maxing out method
The callisthenic approach was used by Jamie and Scott to perform sit-ups, push-ups, and curl-ups and then compare the results to see who had greater endurance.
The callisthenic method of endurance
Calisthenics uses complex movements and your bodyweight as resistance. It involves lots of movement, which makes it excellent for slimming down and sculpting your muscles. Other external weights are used in weightlifting. It entails solitary activities that enlarge a particular muscle segment.
Jamie and Scott engaged in various physical activities in order to determine who had a higher physical fitness score. They most likely calculated this by factoring in their weight as well as the total number of sit-ups, push-ups, and curl-ups they completed.
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the nurse in the nicu is caring for preterm newborns. which guidelines are recommended for care of these newborns?
a. dress the newborn in a stockinette cap
b. take the newborns temperature often
c. supply oxygen for the newborn, if necessary
The following guidelines are recommended for care of these newborns in nicu
A) Dress the newborn in a stockinette cap
D) Take the newborn's temperature often
E) Supply oxygen for newborn, if necessary
What is preterm birth?
A birth that occurs before 37th week of pregnancy.
pregnancy normally lasts about 40 weeks Some risk factors for apremature birth include having a previous premature birth and being pregnant with multiples.Preterm and premature mean same thing — early. Preterm labor is the labor that begins early, before 37 weeks of pregnancy. Labor is the process your body goes through to give birth to baby. Preterm labor can lead to the premature birthlearn more about preterm birth at
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