can help me with this circuit question? ​
the last word is (cutoff)

Answer:

[tex]GM<0[/tex]

So the bouy does not float with its axis vertical

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Diameter [tex]d=2m[/tex]

Length [tex]l=2.5m[/tex]

Weight [tex]W=22kN[/tex]

Specific weight of sea water [tex]\mu= 10.25kN/m^3[/tex]

Generally the equation for weight of cylinder is mathematically given by

Weight of cylinder = buoyancy Force

[tex]W=(pwg)Vd[/tex]

Where

[tex]V_d=\pi/4(d)^2y[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]22*10^3=10.25*10^3 *\pi/4(2)^2y\\\\\22*10^3=32201.3247y\\\\\y=1.5m[/tex]

Therefore

Center of Bouyance B

[tex]B=\frac{y}{2}=0.26m\\\\B=0.75[/tex]

Center of Gravity

[tex]G=\frac{I.B}{2}=2.6m[/tex]

Generally the equation for\BM is mathematically given by

[tex]BM=\frac{I}{vd}\\\\BM=\frac{3.142/64*2^4}{3.142/4*2^2*0.5215}\\\\BM=0.479m\\\\[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]BG=2.6-0.476\\\\BG=0.64m[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]GM=BM-BG\\\\GM=0.479m-0.64m\\\\GM=-0.161m\\\\[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]GM<0[/tex]

So the bouy does not float with its axis vertical

Answer:

33.56 ft^3/sec.in

Explanation:

Duration = 6 hours

drainage area = 185 mi^2

constant baseflow = 550 cfs

Derive the unit hydrograph using the inverse procedure

first step : calculate for the volume of direct runoff hydrograph using the details in table 2 attached below

Vdrh = sum of drh *  duration

        = 29700 * 6 hours ( 216000 secs )

        = 641,520,000 ft^3.

next step : Calculate the volume of runoff in equivalent depth

Vdrh / Area = 641,520,000  / 185 mi^2

                    = 1.49 in

Finally derive the unit hydrograph

Unit of hydrograph = drh /  volume of runoff in equivalent depth

                                = 50 ft^3 / 1.49 in  =  33.56 ft^3/sec.in

Answer:

5,465.4165939453

Explanation:

formula

A=P(1+r/n)^n(t)

p=1000

r=0.09

n=4

t=5

The per capita GDP of China in the Calendar year 2021 was found to be around 12,359 U.S. dollars.

GDP termed Gross Domestic Product, has been evaluated with the value producing the economy of the region with the values added with the used products formed to be the less of the economy produced. It has been termed as the measure of the income of a region and not the wealth.

The per capita GDP has been the total income earned by a person in a region during a specified period of time. The calculation has been made by dividing the total gross income of the region by the total population.

China has been the world's most populous country in the East Asian region. It has been found that the per capita GDP of China is low because of its large population. In the calendar year 2021, the per capita GDP of China was 12,359 U.S. dollars.

Learn more about the GDP, here:

https://brainly.com/question/15171681

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Answer:

Part A

The flow of the bee lava is inertia dominant and laminar

Part B

The flow of a baseball in Mars is inertia dominated and the flow is laminar

Part C

The flow of an elderly on i95 is viscous force dominated and turbulent

Explanation:

The Reynold's number when inertia is dominant is low, and the flow is laminar

When viscous force is dominant, the Reynold's number is high, and we have turbulent flow

The Reynold's number of laminar flow is Re < 2,000

The Reynold's of unstable or intermediate flow is 2,000 < Re < 4,000

The Reynold's number of turbulent flow is Re > 4,000

Therefore, we have;

Part A

The Reynold's number of a bee lava, Re = 0.2, therefore, the flow is inertia and laminar

Part B

The Reynold's number of the ball in Mars is Re = 500, therefore, given that the Reynold's number is less than 2,000, the inertia is dominant, and the flow is laminar flow

Part C

The Reynold's number of the driver on i95 = 1,200,000 which is larger than 4,000, therefore, the flow is viscous force dominated and the flow is turbulent.

Answer:

a) the COP of this air conditioner is 2.38

b) the rate of heat transfer to the outside air is 1065 kJ/min

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

[ Outdoor ] ←  Q[tex]_H[/tex] [ W[tex]_{net, in[/tex] ] Q[tex]_L[/tex] ← [ House ]

Rate of heat removed from the house; Q[tex]_L[/tex]  = 750 kJ/min = ( 750 kJ/min × ( 1 kW / 60 kJ/min ) ) = 12.5 kW

Net-work input; W[tex]_{net, in[/tex] = 5.25 kW

a) The coefficient of performance of the air conditioner; COP.

COP = Q[tex]_L[/tex] / W[tex]_{net, in[/tex]

we substitute

COP = 12.5 kW / 5.25 kW

COP = 2.38

Therefore, the COP of this air conditioner is 2.38

b) the rate of heat transfer to the outside air.

Q[tex]_H[/tex] = Q[tex]_L[/tex] + W[tex]_{net[/tex]

we substitute

Q[tex]_H[/tex] = 12.5 kW + 5.25 kW

Q[tex]_H[/tex] = 17.75 kW

Q[tex]_H[/tex] = ( 17.75 × 60 ) kJ/min

Q[tex]_H[/tex] = 1065 kJ/min

Therefore, the rate of heat transfer to the outside air is 1065 kJ/min

Answer:

2.68

Explanation:

Percentage by Mass of each Aggregate :

Pa = 65% ; Pb = 35%;

Bulk Specific gravity of each aggregate :

Ga = 2.45 ; Gb = 3.25

Gsb = (Pa + Pb) / (Pa/Ga + Pb/Gb)

Gsb = (65 + 35) / (65/2.45 + 35/3.25)

Gsb = (65 + 35) / 37.299843

Gsb = 100 / 37.299843

Gsb = 2.68

Answer:

The correct solution is "20 volt".

Explanation:

Given that:

Current,

I = 10 mA

or,

 = [tex]10\times 10^{-3} \ A[/tex]

Resistance,

R = 2 K ohm

or,

  = [tex]1\times 10^3 \ ohm[/tex]

Now,

The voltage will be:

⇒ [tex]V=IR[/tex]

By putting the values, we get

        [tex]=10\times 10^{-3}\times 2\times 10^{3}[/tex]

        [tex]= 20 \ volt[/tex]

Answer:

a) 84.034°C

b) 92.56°C

c) ≈ 88 watts

Explanation:

Thickness of aluminum alloy fin = 12 mm

width = 10 mm

length = 50 mm

Ambient air temperature = 22°C

Temperature of aluminum alloy is maintained at 120°C

a) Determine temperature at end of fin

m = √ hp/Ka

   = √( 140*2 ) / ( 12 * 10^-3 * 55 )

   = √ 280 / 0.66 = 20.60

Attached below is the remaining answers

Answer:

The maximum length of a surface flaw that is possible without fracture is

[tex]2.806 \times 10^{-4} m[/tex]

Explanation:

The given values are,

σ=1.65 MPa

γs=0.60 J/m2

E= 2.0 GPa

The maximum possible length is calculated as:

[tex]\begin{gathered}a=\frac{2 E \gamma_{s}}{\pi \sigma^{2}}=\frac{(2)\left(2 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^{2}\right)(0.60 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m})}{\pi\left(1.65\times 10^{6} \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^{2}\right)^{2}} \\=2.806 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~m}\end{gathered}[/tex]

The maximum length of a surface flaw that is possible without fracture is

[tex]2.806 \times 10^{-4} m[/tex]

Answer:

The correct answer is "15456.8 N".

Explanation:

According to the question,

The inside volume will be:

= [tex]3.14\times (\frac{1.1}{2} )^2\times (2.44-0.82)[/tex]

= [tex]3.14\times \frac{1.21}{4}\times 1.62[/tex]

= [tex]3.14\times 03025\times 1.62[/tex]

= [tex]1.538757 \ m^3[/tex]

hence,

The buoyant force will be:

= [tex]V\times Pw\times g[/tex]

= [tex]1.538757\times 1025\times 9.8[/tex]

= [tex]15456.8 \ N[/tex]

Answer:

Haha I'm a great guy but my friend has been in a day of the day and a lot to be able and I'm happy holi and a lot to the world of the day and day to

Answer: The process of data analysis uses analytical and logical reasoning to gain information from the data. The main purpose of data analysis is to find meaning in data so that the derived knowledge can be used to make informed decisions.

Answer:

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Answer:

i) σ1 = 133.5 MPa

  σ2 = -2427 MPa

ii) 78.89 MPa

Explanation:

Given data:

ε1 = 0.0020 and ε2 = –0.0010

E = 71 GPa

v = 0.35

i) Determine the biaxial stresses  σ1 and σ2 using the relations below

ε1 = σ1 / E - v (σ2 / E)   -----( 1 )

ε2 = σ2 / E - v (σ1 / E)  -------( 2 )

resolving equations 1 and 2

σ1 = E / 1 - v^2 {  ε1 + vε2 } ---- ( 3 )

σ2 = E / 1 - v^2 {  ε2 + vε1 } ----- ( 4 )

input the given data into equation 3 and equation 4

σ1 = 133.5 MPa

σ2 = -2427 MPa

ii) Calculate the value of the maximum shear stress ( Zmax )

Zmax = ( σ1 - σ2 ) / 2

         = 133.5 - ( - 2427 ) / 2

         = 78.89 MPa

Answer:

Development of creative and develop ideas

Explanation:

First task as an entrepreneur is to be creative and develop ideas. The person must design the product based on which he will develop the business strategy.

The remaining activities such as marketing, fund raising, recruitment etc. comes at a later stage.

Answer:

The answer is " [tex]\Delta p = f(V1, p, V2, d, D, L)[/tex]"

Explanation:

Please find the complete question in the attached file.

Its change in temperature in pipes depends on rate heads and loss in pipes owing to pipe flow, contractual loss, etc.

The temperature change thus relies on V1 v2 p d D L.

Answer:

lalalalapumpe

Explanation:

Answer:

The generator delivers current of 500.11 A

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

mechanical energy delivered to the generator = 1500 hp

efficiency η = 80.0 %

terminal potential difference of the generator = 1790 V

we know that;

1 hp = 746 W

so

the mechanical energy delivered to the generator will be

Generator Input = ( 1500 × 746 )W = 1119000 W

So the generator output will be;

Generator Output = Generator Input × η

we substitute

Generator Output = 1119000 W × 80.0 %

Generator Output = 1119000 W × 0.8

Generator Output = 895200 W

So the Current will be;

[tex]I[/tex] = Generator Output / terminal potential difference of the generator

we substitute

[tex]I[/tex] =  895200 W / 1790 V

[tex]I[/tex] =  500.11 A

Therefore, The generator delivers current of 500.11 A

Answer:

"192.3 watt" is the right answer.

Explanation:

Given:

Efficient amplifier,

= 65%

or,

= 0.65

Power,

[tex]P_c=250 \ watt[/tex]

As we know,

⇒ [tex]P_t=P_c(1+\frac{\mu^2}{2} )[/tex]

By putting the values, we get

        [tex]=P_c(1+\frac{1}{2} )[/tex]

        [tex]=1.5 \ P_c[/tex]

Now,

⇒ [tex]P_i=(P_t-P_c)[/tex]

        [tex]=1.5 \ P_c-P_c[/tex]

        [tex]=\frac{P_c}{2}[/tex]

DC input (0.65) will be equal to "[tex](\frac{P_c}{2} )[/tex]".

hence,

The DC input power will be:

= [tex]\frac{250}{2}\times \frac{1}{0.65}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{125}{0.65}[/tex]

= [tex]192.3 \ watt[/tex]

Answer:

The International Building Code (IBC) is a model code that provides minimum requirements to safeguard the public health, safety and general welfare of the occupants of new and existing buildings and structures.

Explanation:

Answer:

the output of the IF amplifier consist of 675 kHz

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

AM signal carrier frequency [tex]_{RF[/tex]  = 460 kHz

Local oscillator frequency[tex]_{lo[/tex] = 1135 kHz

Now, The output of the IF amplifier consists of difference of local oscillator frequency & AM carrier signal frequency;

FREQUECY[tex]_{IF[/tex] = FREQUECY[tex]_{lo[/tex] - FREQUECY[tex]_{RF[/tex]

so we substitute in our given values

FREQUECY[tex]_{IF[/tex] = 1135 kHz - 460 kHz

FREQUECY[tex]_{IF[/tex] = 675 kHz

Therefore, the output of the IF amplifier consist of 675 kHz

Explanation:

Light travels in straight lines

Once light has been produced, it will keep travelling in a straight line until it hits something else. Shadows are evidence of light travelling in straight lines. An object blocks light so that it can't reach the surface where we see the shadow.

Answer:

The two factors are Air and Object

Answer:

16Gpa < 30 Gpa

there would be no fracture

Explanation:

fracture can occur if the maximum strength at the top of the biggest flaw is more than the theoretical fracture

to get the theoretical strength =

e/10 = 300/10

= 30 Gpa

we get the magnitude at the buggest flaw

= 2σ√a/ρt

σ = 800

ρτ = 0.0015

a= 0.3/2

[tex]=2*800\sqrt{\frac{\frac{0.3}{2} }{0.0015} }[/tex]

= [tex]=2*800*\sqrt{100} \\=2*800*10\\=16000MPa[/tex]

= 16Gpa < 30 Gpa

the fracture is not going to happen given that the maximum strenght is smaller than the theoretical fracture strength.