como, Estes todos .........
If 23 molecules of glucose are catabolized, how many molecules of ATP are produced (via substrate level phosphorylation) by the TCA cycle? How many FADH2 molecules and NADH molecules are produced by the cycle?
Answer:
A
If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).
B
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2)
C
If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3)
D
If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4)
Explanation:Substrate-level phosphorylation is a type of metabolic reaction that results in the formation of Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) of Guanosine Triphosphat (GTP) by the direct transfer and donation of a phosphoryl (PO3) group to Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP) of Guanosine Diposphate (GDP) from a phosphorylated reactive intermediate.
In glycolysis substrate level phosphorylation occurs in following two reactions
(i) 2molecules of 3-phosphoglyceric acid react with 2 molecules of ADP to from 2 molecules of 3-phosphoglyceric acid and 2 molecules of ATP.
1,3−diphosphoglyceric2 mol eculesacid+2ADP−→−−−−−−−−phosphotransferaseMg2+2−phosphoglyceric2mol eculesacid+2ATP
(ii) 2 mol ecules of phosphoenolpyruvic acid reacts with 2 mol ecules of ADP to from 2 mol ecules of pyruvic acid and 2ATP.
1−phosphoenolpyruvic acid2mol ecules2ADP−→−−−−−−Pyruvic kinaseMg2+Pyruvic acid2mol ecuels+2ATP
The negative effects of chemical control of weeds on rangelands
Answer:
Chemical residue remain on the vegetation.
Explanation:
The negative effects of chemical control of weeds on rangelands is that the chemical residue remain on the vegetation in rangeland which is dangerous for animals that feed on vegetation because the chemicals are toxic that cause serious damaged. Sometime the chemical also damaged the weeds as well as vegetation of rangelands and also kill the beneficial insects that is needed by the plants present in rangelands.
Genes:
A. in plants exist only in some individuals
B. they determine the structural and functional characteristics of each individual
C. they determine only the functional characteristics of each individual
D. they determine only the characteristics structural of each individual
E. do not exist in prokaryotes
Answer:
B. They determine the structural and functional characteristics of each individual
Explanation:
Genes are present in all plants and in all prokaryotes, so answer choices A and E are incorrect. Genes are present in all living things.
Genes do determine the structural characteristics of each individual, but they also determine the functional characteristics.
Structure, which is controlled by genes, directly affects function. For example, a gene could code for a specific protein's structure, which will in turn give it a specific function.
So, the correct answer is B.
the prime mover of inspiration is the blank during normal quiet breathing expiration is a passive process as this muscle relaxes into its original dome shape. provide conditions when expiration becomes an active process or forced. explain
Answer:
The prime agonist of inspiration is the diaphragm muscle.
The conditions when expiration becomes an active process is : Emphysema, Pneumonia, Bronchitis.
-Expiration is the passive process as there is elastic recoil of lungs following inspiration without contraction of any muscles.
-The elastic fibers in alveoli are damages or filled with mucus and fluid in the disease such as conditions such as emphysema or pneumonia.
-Elastic recoil of lungs.
-Hence, muscle contraction is required to forcefully exhale the air from lungs. Internal intercostal muscles contract to pull the ribs downward and remove air from the lungs.
When body temperature increases, thermoreceptors are stimulated and send nerve signals to the CNS. The CNS sends motor signals to sweat glands, which attempt to reduce body temperature. This is an example of a __________ reflex.a. organ.b. stretch.c. withdrawal.d. visceral.
Answer:
d. visceral.
Explanation:
The visceral reflex is one that happens autonomously in the body, aiming to maintain the balance of the body through quick responses to some specific impulses. An example of a visceral reflex is the reduction in body temperature with the release of sweat from the sweat glands.
The visceral reflexes are controlled by the autonomic nervous system, using the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
is it possible that after the first meeting of male and female through sexual inter course
the female become pregnant after the sex??
Answer:
Yes, it is possible because, if the sperm from the male goes into the egg of the female it can cause the female to get pregnant by that male. And its very rare for the female not to get pregnant after having inter course with the male. That's only if they had unprotected sex.
I hope this helps you!
XoXo Mashayla
Explanation:
Which of the following are NOT examples of data?
a.
facts
b.
figures
c.
theories
d.
measurements
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
A
B
C
D
Answer:
b
Explanation:
becusen yes
Answer:
Your answer would be C
Explanation:
Theories are not proven, they are simply ideas we come up with
One of the livers main functions is to detoxify potentially toxic substances. Which organelle would you expect liver cells to have in abundance?
liver contain abundance of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Review Questions
1. If a diploid eukaryotic cell contains 14 pairs of chromosomes for a total of 2n = 28, how
many chromosomes will be in the resulting products of cellular division if the cell
undergoes: mitosis?meiosis?
2. If a haploid eukaryotic cell contains 10 chromosomes for a total of n = 10. How many
chromosomes will be in the resulting daughter cells if this cell undergoes mitosis?
3. By what process do homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their DNA during
meiosis?
4. In what phase does the answer to #3 occur?
5. How many mature ova will be produced from each primary oocyte?
6. How many mature sperm will be produced from each primary spermatocyte?
7. Do the homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis I or meiosis II?
8. Do the sister chromatids separate during meiosis I or meiosis II?
9. What is a polar body?
10. List the phases of mitosis and briefly describe what happens in each phase:
Answer:
6==. During spermatogenesis, four sperm result from each primary spermatocyte, which divides into two haploid secondary spermatocytes; these cells will go through a second meiotic division to produce four spermatids
Vasopressin works on
Answer:
To treat diabetes insipidus, which is caused by a lack of this naturally occurring pituitary hormone in the body. And used to treat or prevent certain conditions of the stomach after surgery or during abdominal x-rays.
Which best explains why sawdust burns more quickly than a block of wood of equal mass under the same conditions?
The molecules move more quickly in the sawdust than in the block of wood.
The pressure of oxygen is greater on the sawdust.
More molecules in the sawdust can collide with oxygen molecules.
Oxygen is more concentrated near the sawdust than the block of wood.
Which best explains why, under the same circumstances, sawdust burns more fast than a wood block of equivalent mass The molecules in the sawdust move more swiftly than those in the
A thermal burn is what?
An injury to the skin or other organic tissue known as a burn is one that is primarily brought on by heat, radiation, radioactivity, electricity, friction, or contact with chemicals. When hot liquids, heated solids, or flames come in touch with the skin and other tissues, part or all of the skin's cells are destroyed (flame burns)
What various sorts of Burns are there?
This tiny burn merely penetrates the skin's surface layer (epidermis). It might hurt and make you red. second-degree burn Both the epithelium and the next layer of skin are affected by this kind of burn (dermis). It could result in skin that is swollen, red, white, or patchy. The pain may become intense and blisters may form. Scarring may result from second-degree burns that are deep.
To know more about burns visit:
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Answer:
C.More molecules in the sawdust can collide with oxygen molecules.
Explanation:
real
g Jack fell down and broke his crown. He broke the most anterior bone connected to the coronal suture. What LETTER is this, and what is the NAME of this bone
Chordates have a chord in the back for support. In animals with vertebrates, the
chord itself becomes the
Answer:
1
Explanation:
What is an ecosystem?
How do you explain Meiosis?
Answer:
Chromosome pairs with its corresponding homologous chromosome to form a tetrad.
What must happen before meiosis can begin ?
A male Bengal tiger is mated with a female Bengal tiger. Orange (O) dominates with(o)coat color. A secondary concern is mating Bengal tigers with alleles for white coats is an occurrence of weak wrist bones. Normal wrist bones (B) dominates weak (b). Both parents are heterozygous for both traits. What is the genotype of the parents? OoBb OOBb OoBB oobb
Answer: i dont know the answer
Explanation: bla bla bla bla bla
Dark skin ( a result of increased melanin production in equatorial populations), is likely a response to ultraviolet radiation because UV radiation causes:
Answer: Skin cancer
Explanation:
Melanin is a pigment derived from an amino called acid tyrosine. The most common form of melanin is called eumelanin, which is a polymer of dihydroxyindole carboxylic acids and their reduced forms. When a person is exposed to the ultraviolet light (UV) from the sun, the melanocytes will produce eumelanin to prevent the skin from burning and damage to the cell nuclei (where DNA is found) of the epidermis. This melanin production causes the skin to darken. The eumelanin in the skin then acts as a natural sunscreen by blocking the damaging effects of sunlight. So, skin darkens when exposed UV light, thus providing greater protection when needed by producing more eumelanin, but it also becomes more likely to develop melanoma, which is a type of skin cancer. This is because UV rays damage the DNA of skin cells. The DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is the genetic material that has the instructios to the growth and functioning of an organisms). Skin cancers begin when eumelanin protection is not sufficient and this damage affects the DNA of the genes that control the growth of skin cells. This results in a tumor, which is the uncontrolled growth of cells (in this case, skin cells) because there will be a mutation in DNA that affects the function of the cells.
Which is true if energy in ecosystem
Explanation:
energy flows in only one direction through an ecosystem.
Why do you think so many people seem to not care about the environmental issues we are facing?
Answer:
People are not aware of their causes and impacts.
Explanation:
First, people just seem to think that a little bit of harm won't impact the world at all, but that little bit for everyone adds up and the magnitude is a lot worse than people would imagine. Next, even if they/we do know the scale, they don't know how to help or are not interested enough to try and fix the problem. We all think that we won't be able to help enough to fix the issue.
14.
(GT.03)
Which of these best matches a source of information with its most reliable use? (2 points)
cladogram → date events which occurred in Earth's past
cladogram → study the evolution of organisms based on adaptations
fossil records → compare the evolution of completely soft-bodied organisms
fossil records → study the behavior of primitive animals in extreme weather conditions
Answer:
petrified fossils → date sedimentary rocks
According to a famous article by Max Kleiber, the scaling of the metabolic rate or energy consumption for mammals Pmetab (measured in kcal/day) with the body mass Mb (measured in kilograms) is Pmetab=70M0.75b.
a. What is the specific metabolic rate, i.e. the metabolic rate per kilogram of body mass for the following animals?a mouse whose mass is 30g. Give your answer to three significant figures.
b. What is the specific metabolic rate, i.e. the metabolic rate per kilogram of body mass for the following animals?a cow whose mass is 300kg. Give your answer to three significant figures.
Answer:
Explanation:
Given that:
The scaling of the specific metabolic rate is:
[tex]=\dfrac{P_{metab}}{m}[/tex]
where;
[tex]P_{metab} = 70M_b^{0.75}[/tex]
[tex]=\dfrac{ 70M_b^{0.75}}{m}[/tex]
(a) For a mouse whose mass = 30 g = 0.030 kg
The specific metabolic rate [tex]=\dfrac{ 70*(0.030)^{0.75}}{(0.030)}[/tex]
= 168.197 kg
≅ 168 kg to 3 significant fig.
(a) For a cow whose mass = 300 kg
The specific metabolic rate [tex]=\dfrac{ 70*(300)^{0.75}}{(300)}[/tex]
= 16.8197 kg
≅ 16.8 kg to 3 significant fig.
What is rcbL, and why is it a particularly useful molecule for studying evolutionary relationships in plants and green algae
Answer:
RBCL denotes for 'rubisco protein.' It is characterized as 'a plant enzyme which catalyzes both the fixing of carbon dioxide found in atmosphere during photosynthesis and the reverse process of photorespiration.' It plays a very significant role in studying, as well as, in evaluating relations associated with phylogenetics in plants primarily along with green algae as it assists them to produce energy molecules by using carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. It has therefore been the key factor behind a number of organic carbon that is discovered in our surrounding biosphere.
Describe the normal process of osteogenesis for compact and spongy bone using the three different types of bone cells and their functions
Answer:
Osteoblasts penetrate the disintegrating cartilage and replace it with spongy bone. This forms a primary ossification center. Ossification continues from this center toward the ends of the bones. After spongy bone is formed in the diaphysis, osteoclasts break down the newly formed bone to open up the medullary cavity.
Explain why it is not advisable for two sickle cell carriers to marry.
Answer:
it results in pleiotropic effect and caused death of an offspring.
The most common Class II variant is the F508del variant, which is missing the 508th amino acid in the protein but has an otherwise normal sequence. Loss of this amino acid leads to misfolding of the protein, and the misfolded protein is not properly transported to the membrane. Based on this information, how many nucleotides are deleted in the CFTR allele encoding this variant?
Answer:
The correct answer is - 3 (two codons of 507th that are U, C, and the first nucleotide of 508th codon U).
Explanation:
Each amino acid is coded by a three-nucleotide base long codon. So in the case of the F508del variant, there is a deletion of three nucleotides that is encoded for phenylalanine amino acid.
In this isoleucine is encoded by 507th codon that is AUG and 508th codon is UUU codes for Isoleucine.
In this case, two codons of 507th are U, C, and the first nucleotide of 508th codon U. So overall three nucleotides are deleted in the F508del variant..
I need help assay about Biopsychology can someone help me?
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✍︎ The core assumption of a biopsychological approach is the fact that illness and health come as a result of a given interplay. In this case it should be known that this interplay revolves around factors like psychological, social and even biological aspects. Most notably, there is always an initiative and attempt to understand the aspect of psychopathology that is done through proper examining.
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꧁❁ ⁱ ʰᵒᵖᵉ ⁱᵗ ʰᵉˡᵖˢ ❁꧂
Recall that one approach to the study of cell cycle regulation has been to fuse cultured cells that are at different stages of the cell cycle and observe the effect of the fusion on the nuclei of the fused cells (heterokaryons). When cells in Gl are fused with cells in S, the nuclei from the Gl cells begin DNA replication earlier than they would have if they had not been fused. In fusions of cells in G2 and S, however, nuclei continue their previous activities, apparently uninfluenced by the fusion. Fusions between mitotic cells and interphase cells always lead to chromatin condensation in the nonmitotic nuclei. Based on these results, identify each of the following statements about cell cycle regulation as probably true (T), probably false (F), or not possible to conclude from the data (NP). Sort each statement into the appropriate bin.
1. The transition from mitosis to G1 appears to result from the disappearance or inactivation of a cytoplasmic factor present during M-phase.
2. The activation of DNA synthesis may result from the stimulatory of one or more cytoplasmic factors.
3. Gl is not an obligatory phase of all cell cycles
4. The transition from G2 to mitosis may result from the presence in the G2 cytoplasm of one or more factors that induce chromatin formation.
5. The transition from S to G2 may result from the presence of a cytoplasmic factor that inhibits DNA synthesis.
A. T
B. F
C. NP
Answer:
1. T
2. T
3. NP
4. F
5. F
Explanation:
In somatic cells, the cell cycle can be divided into 1-the interphase, 2-the mitotic phase or M phase, and 3-the G₀ phase. In turn, the interphase of the cell cycle can be divided into three phases: 1-the gap 1 (G1) phase or growth 1 phase, 2-the S phase (DNA replication or DNA synthesis), and 3-the gap 2 (G2) phase or growth 2 phase. During the G1 phase, the cell synthesizes key enzymes which are required during DNA replication (S phase) and cell division (M phase). Cytoplasmic factors are proteins and messenger RNAs (mRNAs) that control cell functions during the cell cycle. This cycle is modulated by proteins known as control factors, i.e., cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks) that work together to control the progression through different phases of the cell cycle. The transition from S to G2 occurs after DNA replication. This transition (S to G2) is controlled by a DNA damage checkpoint orchestrated by the ATM (Ataxia telangiectasia mutated) and ATR (Ataxia Telangiectasia and Rad3 related) kinases which are recruited to DNA damage sites. Moreover, the transition from G2 to M phase is mediated by the accumulation of mitotic inducers, which lead to an increase in the activity of mitotic kinase and finally trigger mitotic entry.
(URGENT) Which of these statements is correct about the ocean waves? (100 points)
A) Wave 1 and Wave 2 have the same wavelength.
B) Wave 2 and Wave 3 have the same wavelength.
C) Wave 1 and Wave 2 have the same amplitude.
D) Wave 2 and Wave 3 have the same amplitude
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Wave 2 and Wave 3 have the same amplitude.
dialogue between two friends planning a road trip
